Dentist Abroad
What causes amalgam expansion?
1) Excess mercury
2) Sufficient ventilation
3) Moisture contamination
4) Inadequate mixing
Moisture during the mixing and placement of amalgam can result in expansion, particularly with zinc-containing alloys.
Endodontic therapy is CONTRAINDICATED in teeth with
1) inadequate periodontal support.
2) pulp stones.
3) constricted root canals.
4) accessory canals.
Endodontic therapy is contraindicated in teeth with inadequate periodontal support because the success of the treatment relies on the health of the surrounding periodontal tissues. If the periodontal support is compromised, the tooth may not be able to withstand the forces of occlusion, leading to failure of the endodontic treatment.
Immediately following the closure of the A-V valves is the period of 1. Isotonic contraction 2. Isometric contraction 3. Isometric relaxation 4. Isotonic relaxation
Anatomy Answer: 3Immediately following the closure of the A-V valves is the period of Isometric relaxation
What is the primary mechanism by which S. mutans contributes to the
formation of dental caries?
1) Production of lactic acid
2) Formation of dental plaque
3) Secretion of hydrogen sulfide
4) Breakdown of collagen in dentin
S. mutans produces glucosyltransferases that convert dietary sugars into extracellular polysaccharides and lactic acid, which lowers the pH and leads to demineralization of tooth structure.
The primary reason to replace missing anterior teeth with a bridge is:
1) Aesthetic considerations
2) Functional occlusion
3) Overbite correction
4) Tooth stability
ADC Test Answer: 1
Aesthetics play a crucial role in the choice to replace missing anterior teeth, as they impact patient confidence and facial appearance.
What fluoride treatment is recommended for a child with a high caries rate?
1) 2,800 ppm toothpaste
2) 5,000 ppm toothpaste
3) Application of 2.2% Duraphat 2 times yearly
4) Application of 2.2% Duraphat 3-4 times yearly
For children with a high caries rate, more frequent applications of fluoride varnish like Duraphat are recommended to provide additional protection.
What is the primary histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Acanthosis
2) Acantholysis
3) Hyperkeratosis
4) Dysplasia
Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by the loss of intercellular adherence of suprabasal spinous cells, leading to acantholysis and the formation of vesicles.
Can informed consent be given over the phone or through email?
1) Yes, as long as the patient signs and returns the form
2) No, it must always be obtained in person
3) It is preferred in person, but alternatives can be used in some cases
4) Only for emergency treatments
Informed consent is typically a face-to-face interaction where the
dentist can assess the patient's understanding and answer questions. However,
some jurisdictions may allow for alternative methods under certain
circumstances, such as telemedicine or in emergencies.
Which one of the following is the initial treatment for internal resorption?
1) Pulpectomy.
2) Pulpotomy.
3) Pulp capping.
4) Apicoectomy.
The initial treatment for internal resorption is typically a pulpectomy, which involves the complete removal of the pulp tissue. This procedure is necessary to halt the resorptive process and to allow for the potential healing of the tooth. A pulpotomy may be considered in some cases, but a pulpectomy is more definitive for internal resorption.
A child with autism may exhibit:
1) Repetitive actions and sensitivity to light and noise
2) Social withdrawal and lack of eye contact
3) High intelligence and advanced verbal skills
4) All of the above
Autism spectrum disorder (AS4) is characterized by a range of behaviors, including repetitive actions such as hand-flapping or rocking, and sensory sensitivities like being overly sensitive to light and noise. While children with ASD can have varying levels of intelligence and verbal skills, the core features of the disorder are the presence of repetitive behaviors and sensory issues, which are crucial for diagnosis and understanding the condition's impact on daily functioning.
Which of the following is NOT a typical adverse effect of opioids?
1) Diarrhea
2) Somnolence
3) Constipation
4) Nausea
Opioids are commonly associated with constipation due to their effect on the gastrointestinal tract, which slows down bowel movements. They also frequently cause somnolence and nausea due to their action on the central nervous system. Diarrhea, however, is not a typical side effect of opioid use. In contrast, opioids are often used to treat diarrhea associated with conditions such as irritable bowel syndrome and other gastrointestinal disorders due to their constipating effects.
What is the most common site for mandibular fractures resulting from interpersonal violence? 1) Condyle 2) Symphysis 3) Angle 4) Ramus
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 3The angle of the mandible is the most common site for fractures resulting from interpersonal violence. This often occurs as a result of a direct blow to the side of the face.
The pain after the application of force after activation during fixed mechanotherapy is likely to disappear within how much time ?
1) 24 hours
2) 2 to 4 days
3) 4 to 8 days
4) 10 days
SOLUTION If heavy pressure is applied to a tooth, pain develops almost immediately as the PDL is literally crushed. If appropriate orthodontic force is applied, the patient feels little or nothing immediately.
There is no excuse for using force levels for orthodontic tooth movement that produce immediate pain of this type.
The pain typically lasts for 2 to 4 days, and then disappears until the orthodontic appliance is reactivated. At that point, a similar cycle may recur, but for almost all patients, the pain associated with the initial activation of the appliance is the most severe.
What hormone increases blood glucose and decreases serum potassium?
1) Insulin
2) Cortisol
3) Glucagon
4) Adrenaline
Cortisol increases blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreases serum potassium levels by enhancing renal excretion.
Which class of drugs has been implicated in the development of thrombotic and bleeding complications in patients with disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)?
1) NSAIDs
2) Vitamin K antagonists
3) ACE inhibitors
4) Statins
NSAIDs can exacerbate bleeding complications by affecting platelet function and are linked to increasing the risk of angioedema.
What is the purpose of Formocresol in pulpotomy?
1) Remove bacteria from the pulp chamber.
2) Prevent further decay of the tooth.
3) Promote the formation of dentin.
4) Seal the pulp chamber after amputation.
Formocresol is used to sterilize the pulp chamber after amputation, reducing the risk of infection.
What is the sex ratio for oral cancer?
1) 2:3
2) 1:2
3) 2:1
4) 3:1
In England and Wales, the male to female ratio for oral cancer is approximately 2:1, while in Scotland, it is about 3:1, indicating a higher prevalence in males.
What is the most common way dental unit waterlines become contaminated?
1) By patients' saliva
2) By bacterial growth in waterlines
3) By backflow from the public water supply
4) By cleaning and disinfecting solutions
Dental unit waterlines can become contaminated with bacteria if
they are not regularly maintained and disinfected, leading to potential
infection risks during dental procedures.
A diastema between two maxillary central permanent incisors could be associated
with the followings, EXCEPT
1) a mesiodens.
2) a congenital absence of permanent maxillary lateral incisors.
3) a large labial frenum.
4) adenomatoid odontogenetic tumour
Adenomatoid odontogenic tumors are generally not linked to diastemas; other options can contribute to spacing.
Which of the following antibiotics shows an incidence of approximately 8% cross-allergencity with penicillins?
1) Bacitracin
2) Erythromycin
3) Cephalexin
4) Vancomycin
Cephalosporins can cause allergic reactions in people with penicillin allergy.
it is generally recommended that those allergic to penicillin avoid cephalosporins all together.
Which of the following is used for the treatment of chlamydia infection in pregnancy?
1) Tetracycline
2) Erythromycin
3) Azithromycin
4) Doxycycline
Azithromycin Preferred agent for treatment of chlamydia infection in pregnancy in azithromycin.
It is given as a single dose of 1g leading to high compliance rate.
Which vitamin deficiency can lead to scurvy, affecting gingival tissues?
1) Vitamin A
2) Vitamin B12
3) Vitamin C
4) Vitamin D
Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by weakened collagen synthesis and can result in bleeding gums and other oral health issues.
During which stage of caries can a lesion be detected using transillumination?
1) White spot lesion
2) Dentinal caries
3) Enamel caries
4) Advanced cavitation
Transillumination is most effective in detecting interproximal caries, particularly enamel lesions, as the light can penetrate and highlight changes in the tooth structure at these early stages.
The term cold sterilization has been employed to refer to 1. physical methods of sterilization 2. prolonged exposure to 20° C 3. exposure to low temperature steam 4. chemical disinfection
Microbiology Answer: 4chemical disinfection is cold strelization
A 22-year-old woman presents with acute gingival hypertrophy and spontaneous bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1) Myelogenous leukaemia
2) Infectious mononucleosis
3) Thrombocytopenic purpura
4) Gingivitis of local aetiological origin
The symptoms and blood analysis suggest a hematological disorder, with myelogenous leukaemia being a strong possibility.
All the following are non-verbal signs of attentive or active listening except:
1) Posture.
2) Eye contact.
3) Mirror.
4) Positive Reinforcement.
Positive reinforcement is not a non-verbal sign of attentive or active listening.
Non-verbal signs of attentive or active listening typically involve body language and facial expressions, such as maintaining good posture, making eye contact, and mirroring the speaker's body language.
Positive reinforcement,
on the other hand, is a verbal or non-verbal response that rewards or encourages
a behavior, and it is not directly related to the act of listening attentively.
The Beta Blocker with local Anesthetic effect is
1) Pindolol
2) Atenolol
3) Esmorolol
4) Timolol
Local anesthetic action, also known as "membrane-stabilizing" action, is a prominent effect of several -blockers Acebutolol, Labetalol, Pindolol Propranolol.
This action is the result of typical local anesthetic blockade of sodium channels and can be demonstrated experimentally in isolated neurons, heart muscle, and skeletal muscle membrane.
Which of the following is NOT a type of dental charting?
1) Periapical charting
2) Periodontal charting
3) Full mouth series charting
4) Panoramic charting
Panoramic radiographs are not a type of charting. They are a type of radiograph that provides a two-dimensional view of the entire mouth on a single film. The other options Periapical charting, Periodontal charting, Full mouth series charting, and Bitewing charting refer to different types of charting that are used to document specific dental conditions, such as the presence of cavities or periodontal disease.
Where should you ideally place your finger support when performing operative treatment in the oral cavity?
1) Tooth
2) Gingiva
3) Cheek
4) Chin
5) Lip
Supporting your hand on a tooth provides a stable base for performing precise dental procedures and reduces the risk of accidental injury to soft tissues.
Which of the following is the best practice for communicating with an anxious patient?
1) Speak in technical jargon
2) Use a calm, reassuring tone and simple language
3) Avoid eye contact to reduce pressure
4) Give a detailed explanation of all possible complications
Clear, simple language delivered in a calming tone can help reduce anxiety and build the patient's trust.
Which of the following local anaesthetic is sympathomimetic:
1) Cocaine
2) Procaine
3) Lignocaine
4) Tetracaine
Cocaine is a sympathomimetic local anaesthetic and thus adrenaline should not be added to it.
In partial dentures, guiding planes serve to:
1) Aid in balancing occlusion
2) Ensure predictable clasp retention
3) Form a right angle with the occlusal plane
4) Eliminate the need for posterior clasps
ADC Test Answer: 2
Guiding planes provide a surface to help achieve reliable clasp retention, essential for the stability and effectiveness of partial dentures.
Which of the following is common to all forms of hemorrhagic shock?
1) Sepsis.
2) Hypovolemia
3) Impaired tissue perfusion.
4) Vasoconstriction.
Hemorrhagic shock results in inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues due to reduced blood volume.
What is the primary advantage of computerized dental records in terms of patient care?
- Enhanced data security
- Improved legibility and reduced errors
- Reduced waiting times for appointments
- Increased marketing opportunities
Digital records can enhance patient care by reducing errors associated with handwritten notes and improving legibility, which facilitates better communication among dental professionals and safer treatment planning.
Which type of cells is seen in the late stage of chronic periodontitis?
1) Basophils
2) Eosinophils
3) Lymphocytes
4) Neutrophils
5) Macrophages
In the late stages of chronic periodontitis, macrophages are more prevalent, reflecting ongoing inflammation and tissue destruction.
he material of choice for obturating the root canal system of a primary
tooth is
1) silver cone.
2) gutta percha
3) zinc-oxide eugenol.
4) paper point medicated with formocresol.
Zinc-oxide eugenol (ZOE) is commonly used for obturating the root canal system of primary teeth due to its biocompatibility, sealing ability, and ease of use. It is particularly favored in pediatric dentistry because it is less likely to cause irritation to the surrounding tissues compared to other materials. Gutta percha is more commonly used in permanent teeth.
How often should dental records be updated?
- Annually
- With each appointment
- Only when there is a change in treatment plan
- It depends on the patient's dental insurance
Dental records should be updated at every appointment to reflect the most current information regarding the patient's oral health and treatments.
What substance is primarily responsible for the re-mineralization process in teeth?
1) Fluoride
2) Calcium
3) Phosphate
4) All of the above
Fluoride, calcium, and phosphate work together to enhance the re-mineralization process in enamel, helping to repair demineralized areas.
What cement is used to temporarily cement a crown?
1) Glass ionomer cement
2) Resin cement
3) Zinc oxide eugenol (ZOE)
4) Composite resin
ZOE is commonly used for the temporary cementation of crowns due to its ease of use and sedative properties.
Nonselective beta blocker possessing quinidine-like membrane stabilizing effects.
1) pindolol
2) acebutolol
3) sotalol
4) esmolol
Beta-blockers, such as propranolol, labetalol, and pindolol, can have membrane stabilizing effects (eg, quinidinelike effects, Vaughan-Williams class I antiarrhythmic effects).
What is the percentage of edentulous patients in England and Scotland?
1) 10%
2) 25%
3) 50%
4) 64%
Approximately 64% of adults over 65 years are edentulous in the UK, reflecting the impact of dental health over time.
What type of discharge is typically associated with vesiculobullous lesions?
1) Purulent
2) Bloody
3) Serous
4) Foul-smelling
Vesiculobullous lesions often present with a serous discharge, which is a clear, yellowish fluid resulting from the inflammatory response.
What is the primary function of the palatal cusp of a premolar?
1) Incisal guidance.
2) Lateral support.
3) Anterior guidance.
4) Posterior guidance.
ADC Test Answer: 4
The palatal cusp of a premolar primarily serves as a guide for the opposing molar during lateral excursive movements, providing posterior guidance in the occlusion.
Which anesthetic is known to penetrate the bone better?
1) Lidocaine
2) Articaine
3) Bupivacaine
4) Mepivacaine
Articaine has a unique chemical structure that facilitates better penetration of bone, making it very effective in dental anesthesia, especially for inferior alveolar nerve blocks.
Which of the following conditions may predispose a patient to have a higher incidence of caries?
1) Down syndrome
2) Cerebral palsy
3) Autism spectrum disorder
4) All of the above
Patients with Down syndrome, cerebral palsy, and autism spectrum disorder often face challenges that make maintaining oral hygiene difficult, predisposing them to caries.
What type of information should be included in the patient's medical history?
1) Only dental information
2) Only medical information
3) Both dental and medical information
4) Dental, medical, lifestyle, and family history information
A comprehensive medical history should include the patient's dental information, medical conditions, current medications, allergies, and surgeries. Additionally, lifestyle factors such as tobacco and alcohol use, and family history of diseases can be relevant to the patient's oral health and treatment decisions.
What is the difference between a horizontal mattress suture and a simple interrupted suture?
1) A horizontal mattress suture has a single loop, while a simple interrupted suture has multiple loops.
2) A horizontal mattress suture is used to compress tissues, while a simple interrupted suture is not.
3) A simple interrupted suture is used to approximate tissues in a straight line, while a horizontal mattress suture is used for more complex tissue relationships.
4) Both sutures have the same function and are used interchangeably.
ADC Test Answer: 2
A horizontal mattress suture is designed to compress tissues against each other, promoting healing and reducing tension.
What can be a sign of dental phobia?
1) Occasional apprehension before visits
2) Excessive avoidance of dental care
3) Pleased demeanor when discussing dental procedures
4) Knowledge of dental health
Dental phobia often manifests as a persistent and overwhelming fear that leads to significant avoidance of dental treatment.
For a young adult with tooth surface loss, which treatment option is best?
1) Restorative dentistry
2) Behavioral modification
3) Removal of iatrogenic causes
4) Surgery
Identifying and removing any causes of tooth surface loss, especially those related to dental treatments, is critical in addressing and preventing further damage.
Orthodontic tooth movement is inhibited by which of the following drugs
1) NSAIDS, such as Brufen
2) OPIOIDS, such as CORTISONE
3) Antibiotics such as tetracycline
4) Vasoconstrictors such as adrenaline
SOLUTION NSAIDS, i.e.
• Nimesulide does not interfere with PG production and so can be safely given during tooth movements.
What is the role of the dental nurse in maintaining patient records?
- To make and keep complete and accurate records of patient treatments and discussions
- To handle financial transactions and appointments
- To manage the dental office's social media accounts
- To oversee the sterilization of instruments
Dental nurses are crucial in the record-keeping process as they can take notes during patient appointments, ensuring that the records are made contemporaneously.
Which type of blood vessel is classified as an elastic artery?
1) Vein
2) Artery
3) Capillary
4) Arteriole
Elastic arteries, such as the aorta, have a high content of elastic fibers, allowing them to stretch and recoil with blood flow.
Morphine withdrawal is characterized by all except
1) Miosis
2) Yawning
3) Lacrimation
4) Diarrhea
Withdrawal of morphine is associated with marked drug-seeking behavior.
Physical manifestations of abstinence are - lacrimation, sweating, yawning, anxiety, fear, restlessness, gooseflesh, mydriasis, tremor, insomnia, abdominal colic, diarrhea, dehydration, rise in BP, palpitation and rapid weight loss.
Delirium and convulsions are not a characteristic feature (contrast barbiturates) and are seen only occasionally.
Cardi-ovascular collapse and fatality are rare if supportive measures are instituted.
Which of the following is derived entirely from Meckel's cartilage?
1) Incus
2) Malleus
3) Stapes
4) Mandible
The malleus is derived from Meckel's cartilage, while the incus and mandible develop from other embryonic structures.
Which of the following is an indicator of potential physical abuse in a patient?
1) A patient with good oral hygiene
2) Frequent dental visits
3) Unexplained injuries or bruises in various stages of healing
4) A patient who is shy and quiet
Unexplained injuries, particularly in various stages of healing, can be a strong indicator of physical abuse.
Most potent opioid:
1) Fentanyl
2) Alfentanil
3) Buprenorphine
4) Sufentanil
Sufentanil is the most potent opioid, being 500-1,000 times more potent than morphine.
Which nerve fibers are responsible for pulpal pain?
1) A-alpha fibers
2) A-delta fibers
3) C fibers
4) Both 2 and 3
A-delta fibers are responsible for sharp, stabbing pain associated with pulpal pain, while C fibers transmit dull, aching pain.
Which of the following conditions might warrant caution when using benzodiazepines?
1) Young adults
2) Pregnant women
3) Healthy athletes
4) Non-smokers
Caution is especially required when prescribing benzodiazepines to pregnant women due to potential risks and complications that could affect fetal health, including withdrawal symptoms and respiratory problems in the neonate.
Which factor is considered the most potent vasoconstrictor?
A. Adrenaline
B. Noradrenaline
C. Serotonin
D. Histamine
Adrenaline (epinephrine) is the most potent vasoconstrictor and is frequently used in medical emergencies for its ability to rapidly constrict blood vessels and enhance blood pressure.
What enzyme assists microorganisms when they are causing dentine caries?
1) Collagenase
2) Enolase
3) Lactoferrin
4) Amylase
Enolase is involved in the glycolytic pathway of bacteria, aiding in their metabolism and contributing to the caries process.
Which of the following cannot be used to slow down the setting of zinc oxide eugenol impression paste? 1. cooling mixing slab 2. adding a small amount of water 3. adding a small amount of glycerine 4. altering the amounts of the two pastes used
Dental Material Answer: 2a small amount of water acccelerates the setting of zinc oxide eugenol impression paste
What is a potential use of dental records in forensic dentistry?
1) To determine the patient's insurance coverage
2) To identify a dead or missing person
3) To track treatment costs
4) To evaluate staff performance
Dental records can provide antemortem information that assists forensic odontologists in identifying deceased individuals.
What does the principle of non-maleficence require dentists to do?
1) Provide only beneficial treatment
2) Do no harm to the patient
3) Ensure the patient's financial well-being
4) Advocate for social justice in healthcare
Non-maleficence is the ethical principle that obliges dentists to refrain from causing harm to patients, both intentionally and unintentionally. This includes avoiding actions that could lead to unnecessary pain, injury, or suffering.
Nitinol has the disadvantage of which of the following?
1) It cannot be formed into desired shapes
2) It lacks elastic properties
3) Its strength is not suited for orthodontic purposes
4) It lacks stiffness
Nitinol is a metal alloy – or mixture – of nickel and titanium.
Glutamate-pyruvate trans-aminase is predominantly present In: 1. Skeletal muscle 2. Cardiac muscle 3. Brain 4. Liver
Biochemistry Answer: 4Glutamate-pyruvate trans-aminase is predominantly present In Liver
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the size of the face at birth?
1) The face forms 2/3rd the bulk of head whereas in the adult it forms 1/3rd of the bulk.
2) The face forms the bulk of the head through life
3) The face forms 1/3rd the bulk of the head, whereas in the adult it forms 1/8th of the bulk
4) The face forms only 1/8th of the bulk of head whereas in the adult it forms 1/3rd to of the bulk.
Due to the advanced state of the growth of brain this size at birth of the head of the infant is relatively large .
What is the most common site for oral cancer within the mouth?
1) Hard palate
2) L ateral borders of the tongue
3) Floor of the mouth
4) Buccal mucosa
The lateral borders of the tongue are the most frequently affected site for oral cancer, particularly in the context of squamous cell carcinoma.
What is the primary study design to evaluate tetracycline as an adjunct to scaling and root planing for chronic periodontitis?
1) Cohort
2) Non-randomised controlled trial
3) Randomised controlled trial
4) Case-control
A randomized controlled trial (RCT) is the ideal design to assess the effectiveness of a treatment by removing bias and allowing for controlled comparisons.
A 30-year-old man with an unknown allergy to latex goes into anaphylactic shock whilst being treated in the dental surgery. Which drug and route of administration is of most benefit in this situation?
A. Hydrocortisone - orally
B. Epinephrine – intramuscularly
C. Chlorphenamine - orally
D. Epinephrine - intravenously
In anaphylactic shock, immediate administration of epinephrine is crucial as it acts quickly to reverse bronchoconstriction, vasodilation, and subsequent hypotension.
What is the GDC's guideline regarding the use of abbreviations in dental records?
- Abbreviations should be avoided altogether
- Only standardized dental abbreviations should be used
- Abbreviations are acceptable as long as they are legible
- It is up to the dentist's discretion
The GDC advises that abbreviations should be kept to a minimum and only standardized abbreviations should be used to avoid misunderstandings or misinterpretations of the recorded information.
What is the definition of syncope?
1) A prolonged seizure
2) Transient loss of consciousness due to cerebral anoxia
3) A chronic condition resulting from a brain tumor
4) A mental health disorder
Syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness caused by a lack of oxygen to the brain. It is characterized by pallor, dilated pupils, coldness of skin, and unconsciousness.
Where are occlusal rests typically located?
1) On the incisal edge of teeth
2) On the lingual surface of teeth
3) On the occlusal surface of posterior teeth
4) On the mesial surface of teeth
Occlusal rests are seated on the occlusal surfaces of posterior teeth to provide stability.
Which immunoglobulin exists as both a monomer and a dimer?
1) IgG
2) IgM
3) IgE
4) IgA
Immunoglobulin A (IgA) is unique because it can exist both in a monomeric form found in serum and as a dimer (secretory IgA) predominant in mucosal areas.
What is the purpose of a comprehensive medical history in dental care?
- To bill the patient's insurance
- To tailor treatment plans based on the patient's health
- To determine the patient's credit score
- To market dental services to the patient
Knowing the patient's medical history helps the dentist make informed decisions about the patient's treatment and overall care.
If the drug is taken while teeth are still in the enamel developmental stage, it
can produce hypoplasia and intrinsic staining. What is the drug that's being
referred to?
1) Amino glycosides
2) Tetracycline
3) Amoxicillin
4) Levaquin
Tetracycline is the drug being referred to in this question. When taken during
the enamel developmental stage of teeth, it can cause hypoplasia and intrinsic
staining. This means that the drug can affect the growth and development of the
enamel, leading to underdevelopment (hypoplasia) and discoloration (intrinsic
staining) of the teeth.
What is the effect of xerostomia on dental health?
1) Increased salivary flow rate
2) Decreased risk of caries
3) Increased risk of dental caries
4) No impact at all
Xerostomia, or dry mouth, significantly reduces salivary flow, increasing the risk of dental caries due to decreased neutralization of plaque acidity and lack of protective effects that saliva provides to the dental tissues.
Position of needle in relation to medial pterygoid during IANB?
1) Lateral and posterior.
2) Medial and anterior.
3) Lateral and anterior.
4) Medial and posterior.
ADC Test Answer: 1
During an Inferior Alveolar Nerve Block (IANB), the needle is positioned laterally and posteriorly to the medial pterygoid, which is critical for successful anesthesia of the mandibular teeth.
Which of the following is a thiazide diuretic commonly used to manage hypertension?
1) Furosemide
2) Amiloride
3) Chlorothiazide
4) Spironolactone
Chlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic commonly used in hypertension, while Furosemide is a loop diuretic, Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist.
The mesial and distal walls of a Class I amalgam preparation diverge toward the
occlusal surface in order to
1) resist the forces of mastication.
2) provide resistance and retention form.
3) prevent undermining of the marginal ridges.
4) extend the preparation into areas more readily cleansed
This design feature ensures that the remaining tooth structure is supported and not weakened by the preparation, which is crucial for maintaining the integrity of the tooth.
Which of the following is an example of a violation of patient confidentiality?
1) Discussing a patient's treatment plan in a private setting
2) Sharing patient information with unauthorized individuals
3) Documenting patient records in a secure location
4) Using initials instead of full names in clinical notes
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 2Sharing patient information without consent or with unauthorized individuals constitutes a breach of confidentiality and violates ethical and legal standards.
In which condition is the prothrombin time typically prolonged?
1) Hemophilia
2) Vitamin K deficiency
3) Use of salicylates or anticoagulants
4) Platelet disorders
Both salicylates and anticoagulants can interfere with blood clotting mechanisms and prolong prothrombin time.
For carious lesions, which diagnostic method is appropriate?
1) Carious halfway through enamel on proximal surface – Bitewing
2) Carious halfway through enamel on occlusal surface – Visual exam
3) Carious halfway through dentine not cavitated – Wet surface
4) Stained fissure – Bitewing and visual exam
Each diagnostic method is appropriate for the specific type of carious lesion described.
What is the effective way to prevent the spread of infection during dental procedures?
1) Use a single-use needle
2) Sterilize instruments thoroughly
3) Disinfect surfaces before and after procedures
4) All of the above
Multiple strategies are essential for infection control in dental settings, including using sterile instruments, disinfecting surfaces, and employing single-use items to prevent cross-contamination.
Activation of a reverse labial bow is done by?
1) Opening the loop
2) Compressing the loop
3) Reversing the loop
4) Bending the loop
Reverse labial bow is so called as activation of the bow is done by opening the U-loop, instead of compressing as is seen in the conventional labial bows.
An alpha helix of a protein is most likely to be disrupted if a missense mutation introduces the following armino acid within the alpha helical structure:
1. Alanine.
2. Aspartic acid.
3. Tyrosine.
4. Glycine.
Glycine and proline introduce a bend in structure of protein, hence alpha helix disrupted
Mercury is dangerous when it turns into vapor form because of:
1) It is accumulative and causes liver poisoning
2) It is accumulative and causes kidney poisoning
3) It induces neoplasia in the liver
4) It is accumulative and causes brain poisoning
Mercury vapor can accumulate in the body and is particularly harmful to the central nervous system, leading to neurological damage.
Which behavior might indicate that a patient is anxious during a dental consultation?
1) Asking questions about the procedure
2) Maintaining eye contact
3) Fidgeting and avoiding eye contact
4) Relaxed body language
Physical signs, such as fidgeting and avoiding eye contact, are common indicators of anxiety in patients.
In a 4 year old the most appropriate treatment for a chronically infected,
non-restorable primary first molar is to
1) extract it and place a space maintainer.
2) observe it until it exfoliates.
3) extract it only.
4) observe it until it becomes symptomatic
Extraction and space maintenance prevent space loss for the permanent successors, ensuring proper arch alignment.
At what gestational week does the development of the parotid gland begin?
1) 6 weeks
2) 12 weeks
3) 20 weeks
4) 24 weeks
The parotid gland begins to develop in utero around the 6th week, making it the first of the major salivary glands to form.
Why should we give 5 rescue breaths first in a child during CPR?
1) Children require more oxygen
2) Children often have cardiac arrest
3) Children have asphyxial arrest
4) Children can often breathe on their own
In children, cardiac arrest is often due to respiratory failure or asphyxia, hence providing early rescue breaths ensures they receive vital oxygen quickly.
A child with a hypoplastic crown and both enamel and dentin being defective, the restoration is:
1) Composite with calcium hydroxide.
2) Amalgam with calcium hydroxide.
3) Zinc phosphate and zinc polycarboxylate cement.
4) Porcelain crown.
ADC Test Answer: 1
For children with hypoplastic teeth, a composite restoration is often preferred due to its aesthetic properties and bonding capabilities, especially when the dentin is also affected.
Penumbra in radiology and imaging refers to?
1) Area of sharpness in imaging
2) Lack of sharpness of the film
3) The outer region of a shadow
4) The central part of an image
In the context of radiology and imaging, penumbra refers to the peripheral, less dense area surrounding the shadow cast by an opaque object. It is the transition zone between the dense shadow and the surrounding, unaffected tissue. It can sometimes cause difficulties in interpreting the extent of lesions or structures due to the blending of the shadow's edges with the surrounding tissue.
Whom to contact if there is a 20% increase in radiation dose?
1) The clinic manager
2) The radiation protection advisor
3) The health and safety officer
4) The dental board
The radiation protection advisor should be contacted to assess and address any significant increases in radiation exposure.
What is a common reason why a ten-year-old amalgam filling has become raised above the tooth surface?
1) Wear
2) Creep
3) Improper placement
4) Over-carving
Creep is the tendency of dental amalgam to deform under constant stress, often leading to a raised filling surface as it continues to flow slowly over time.
The first thing to assess when a patient complains of pain under a denture is:
1) Occlusion
2) Soft tissue changes
3) Fit of the denture
4) Age of denture
ADC Test Answer: 1
Checking occlusion is critical, as occlusal discrepancies can be a primary cause of discomfort under dentures.
The patient whom you are about to treat states that he has Von Willebrand’s disease. Which one of the following preoperative hematological analyses may reflect this disease?
1) Bleeding time and factor VIII level
2) Bleeding time and factor IX level
3) Bleeding time and factor X level
4) Platelet count
ADC Test Answer: 1
Von Willebrand's disease is characterized by prolonged bleeding time and low levels of factor VIII, which is essential for normal clotting.
Apart from a dentigerous cyst, which other lesions are associated with the absence of teeth?
1) Adenomatous odontogenic tumor
2) Keratocyst
3) Ameloblastoma
4) All of the above
All these lesions can be associated with the absence of teeth, either due to their developmental nature or their impact on the surrounding structures.
For lower premolars, the purpose of inclining the handpiece lingually is to:
1) Avoid buccal pulp horn
2) Avoid lingual pulp horn
3) Remove unsupported enamel
4) Conserve lingual dentine
ADC Test Answer: 1
Inclining the handpiece lingually helps in avoiding the buccal pulp horn while preparing the cavity.
What percentage of children under 5 years old have caries?
1) 30%
2) 43%
3) 50%
4) 60%
According to health surveys, 43% of children aged 5 years in the UK have experienced dental caries.
What is the main purpose of using chlorhexidine mouth rinse in dentistry?
1) To promote tooth whitening
2) To reduce plaque and gingivitis
3) To provide pain relief
4) To replace fluoride treatments
Chlorhexidine mouth rinses are primarily used in dentistry for their efficacy in reducing plaque accumulation and gingivitis.
What is the largest possible cavosurface angle?
1) 90 degrees
2) 100 degrees
3) 110 degrees
4) 120 degrees
The largest possible cavosurface angle in dental restorations is typically around 110 degrees, which helps in achieving a proper seal and retention.
What is the GDC guideline for recording patient consent?
- Verbal consent is sufficient if witnessed by a dental nurse
- Consent must be recorded in the patient's own words
- Written consent is mandatory for all treatments
- Consent must be obtained before every appointment
The GDC guideline emphasizes that consent should be recorded in the patient's own words to ensure that the patient's understanding and agreement to the treatment plan are clearly documente4) This is a critical aspect of informed consent and patient-centered care.
Which of the accompanying is NOT an intermediate acting muscle relaxant?
- Cisatracurium
- Rocuronium
- Mivacurium
- Vecuronium
Mivacurium is a short-acting muscle relaxant.
Which material is commonly used for direct pulp capping?
1) Glass ionomer
2) Composite resin
3) Calcium hydroxide
4) Amalgam
Calcium hydroxide is commonly used for direct pulp capping due to its ability to promote healing and dentin formation.
What is the primary goal of behavior management in pediatric dentistry for a child with special needs?
1) Completing the dental treatment as quickly as possible
2) Minimizing the child's fear and anxiety
3) Maximizing parental involvement during procedures
4) Ensuring the child is fully sedated for all dental visits
Behavior management in pediatric dentistry for children with special needs focuses on creating a positive experience and reducing fear and anxiety.
When calcospherites fail to fuse during calcification of dentin matrix then
1 Interglobular dentin is formed
2 Dead tracts are found in formed dentin
3 Irregular dentin results
4 None
Interglobular Dentin:
Sometimes, mineralization of dentin begins in small globular areas that fail to coalesce into a homogenous mass.
These zones are known as globular dentin or interglobular spaces. Thus, demonstrating defect of mineralization and not of matrix formation, the dentinal tubules pass uninterruptedly through interglobular dentin.
In regards to HIV infection, which of the following is the earliest finding?
1) Kaposi sarcoma on the palate
2) Reduced hemoglobin
3) Infection with pneumocystic carinii
4) Reduction in white cell count
ADC Test Answer: 4
A reduction in white blood cell count, particularly CD4 T cells, is one of the earliest indicators of HIV infection and immune system compromise.
Which of the following is NOT an ethical consideration in the management of a
patient with HIV/AIDS?
1) Confidentiality
2) Duty to treat
3) Patient autonomy
4) Patient's right to know their dentist's HIV status
The ethical considerations in managing patients with HIV/AIDS
include maintaining confidentiality, upholding the duty to treat, and respecting
patient autonomy. It is not an ethical requirement for dentists to disclose
their own HIV status to patients as long as they follow infection control
protocols and do not pose a risk of transmission.
Three types of expansion that are possible in an investment are 1. thermal expansion, hygroscopic expansion, and setting expansion 2. thermal expansion, casting expansion, and metal expansion 3. casting expansion, hygroscopic expansion, and thermal expansion 4. thermal expansion, hygroscopic expansion, and metal expansion
Dental Material Answer: 1Types of expansion that are possible in an investment are thermal expansion, hygroscopic expansion, and setting expansion
Which of the following is a common side effect of benzodiazepines used for anxiety management in dental settings?
1) Nausea
2) Headache
3) Dry mouth
4) All of the above
Benzodiazepines, such as midazolam, can cause side effects like nausea, headache, and dry mouth, which may be experienced by patients receiving them for anxiety management.
The steps of plaque formation on teeth are:
1) Pellicle, biofilm, materia alba, plaque
2) Biofilm, pellicle, plaque, materia alba
3) Pellicle, plaque, biofilm, materia alba
4) Materia alba, plaque, biofilm, pellicle
The formation of dental plaque begins with the deposition of a pellicle, a thin film of proteins and salivary components on the tooth surface. This pellicle provides a substrate for bacterial adhesion, leading to the development of a biofilm. As the biofilm matures, it can form a white, soft, and easily removable substance known as materia alba. If not removed, the biofilm can become mineralized and transform into the dense and firm structure recognized as dental plaque, which can contribute to the onset of gum disease and tooth decay.
What is the primary goal of the Gillies approach in zygomatic arch fractures?
1) To minimize scarring
2) To allow for accurate fracture reduction
3) To prevent nerve damage
4) To facilitate faster healing
The Gillies approach is designed to provide direct access to the zygomatic arch, enabling precise reduction of fractures through a bimanual technique.
What does "informed refusal" refer to in the context of medical and dental
care?
1) When a patient refuses to sign an informed consent form
2) When a patient refuses to proceed with a recommended treatment after being
informed of its benefits and risks
3) When a patient refuses to provide personal health information
4) When a patient refuses to pay for the treatment
When a patient refuses to proceed with a recommended
treatment after being informed of its benefits and risks
Explanation: Informed refusal occurs when a patient has the capacity to make a
decision and has been provided with all necessary information but chooses not to
undergo the treatment.
The administration of barbiturates is contraindicated in :
1) Anxiety disorders
2) Acute intermittent prophyria
3) Kernicterus
4) Refractive status epilepticus
Acute intermittent prophyria (AIP) : Barbiturates exacerbate it by inducing microsomal enzymes and d amino levulinic acid synthetase and increasing prophyrin synthesis. Note: Contraindications of barbiturates : · Liver and kidney disease · Severe pulmonary insufficiency eg.
What is the importance of maintaining confidentiality in dental records?
- It is not important as long as the records are accurate
- It encourages patient honesty and trust in the dentist-patient relationship
- It is only important for insurance purposes
- It is only relevant for HIPAA compliance
Confidentiality is crucial for fostering a relationship of trust and respect between the patient and the dental team.
The advantage of the lingual split technique for the extraction of impacted
mandibular third molar teeth is/are:
1) Bone loss is minimal
2) Easy and quick method
3) Tissue trauma is minimal
4) All of the above
The lingual split technique, introduced by Sir William Kelsey Fry, is advantageous because it minimizes bone loss and tissue trauma during the extraction of impacted mandibular third molars. This technique allows for a more conservative approach, preserving surrounding structures while facilitating the removal of the tooth, making it a preferred method in many cases.
What is the purpose of color coding in dental records management?
- To indicate payment status
- To highlight allergies and medical conditions
- To indicate the type of treatment provided
- For aesthetic purposes
Color coding is often used to draw attention to important medical information such as allergies or medical conditions for quick reference.
What is the role of sIgA in the protection against dental caries?
1) It directly neutralizes bacterial acids.
2) It promotes the growth of beneficial bacteria in the oral cavity.
3) It binds to bacteria and prevents them from adhering to tooth surfaces.
4) It provides structural support to tooth enamel.
Secretory immunoglobulin A (sIg1) is a salivary antibody that can bind to cariogenic bacteria, limiting their ability to colonize and produce acids on the tooth surface.
Which is the most common jaw cyst in the UK?
1) Dentigerous cyst
2) Radicular cyst
3) Odontogenic keratocyst
4) Nasopalatine duct cyst
The radicular cyst is the most prevalent type of jaw cyst, commonly associated with non-vital teeth.
Local anaesthetic causing methemoglobinemia is:
1) Lignocaine
2) Prilocaine
3) Bupivacaine
4) All of the above
Methemoglobinemia is mainly caused by prilocaine but can also be caused by benzocaine and rarely reported with lignocaine.
What is the primary purpose of informed consent in dentistry?
1) To protect the dentist from legal liability
2) To ensure the patient understands and voluntarily agrees to the proposed
treatment
3) To provide the patient with financial information about the treatment
4) To obtain the patient's signature for insurance purposes
Informed consent is a process where the dentist communicates with the patient about the diagnosis, the risks and benefits of the proposed treatment, alternative treatment options, and the patient's right to refuse or withdraw consent. The primary goal is to empower the patient to make an informed decision regarding their dental care.
What does overtrituration of amalgam cause?
1) Porosities
2) Shrinkage on setting
3) Bonding failure
4) Increased strength
Overtrituration leads to excessive heat generation and contraction, resulting in shrinkage and compromised integrity of the amalgam restoration.
Which is harder?
1) Amalgam.
2) Composite.
3) Type IV gold.
4) Glass ionomer.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Type IV gold is the hardest material compared to amalgam, composite, or glass ionomer.
In which of the following situations is it most crucial to obtain informed
consent from a patient?
1) Routine dental cleaning
2) Filling a cavity with local anesthesia
3) Extracting a wisdom tooth
4) Performing oral surgery under general anesthesia
Informed consent is crucial for any treatment with significant risks or potential complications. Oral surgery under general anesthesia involves greater risks than routine procedures and thus requires thorough discussion and consent.
What is the age of majority for giving informed consent?
1) 16 years
2) 18 years
3) 21 years
4) Varies by country
In most jurisdictions, the age of majority is 18 years, which means
individuals below this age are considered minors and typically require parental
or guardian consent for medical or dental treatment, except in cases of
emergency.
What is the general guideline for discussing risks with patients?
1) Only discuss risks that are common and severe
2) Discuss all possible risks, no matter how rare
3) Only discuss risks that patients inquire about
4) It is not necessary to discuss risks if the treatment is routine
Healthcare providers should inform patients about common and severe
risks that have a reasonable chance of occurring, allowing them to make an
informed decision.
Which of the following anaesthetic has beta blocker action:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Nitrous oxide
Halothane produces l3-blocker like action ie., direct depression of myocardium and bradycardia (negative inotropic and negative chronotropic effect).
The most common failure in constructing porcelain-to-metal restorations is due to:
1) Improper metal framework
2) Rapid heating
3) Poor porcelain layering
4) Inadequate glazing
ADC Test Answer: 1
The failure of porcelain-to-metal restorations frequently arises from a poorly constructed metal framework, which compromises the bond between the two materials.
What is the significance of the pH buffering capacity of saliva in
preventing dental caries?
1) It does not affect caries formation
2) It prevents the formation of lactic acid
3) It helps to maintain a pH above the critical threshold for demineralization
4) It promotes the formation of enamel
Saliva's buffering capacity helps to counteract the acidity produced by bacterial fermentation of sugars, maintaining a pH above the critical threshold and preventing demineralization.
What is the best approach to take if a patient becomes overwhelmed during a procedure?
1) Continue without interruption
2) Stop the procedure, offer reassurance, and give the patient time to recover
3) Dismiss the patient’s feelings as unimportant
4) Ask another staff member to take over
Allowing the patient to regroup and addressing their feelings can help restore their composure and comfort.
Dens in dente is thought to arise as a result of 1. a normal tooth but enclaved within an other tooth, during formation 2. proliferation and evagination of an area of the inner enamel epithelium 3. extensive growth of mesenchymal cells of pulp tissue 4. an invagination of the enamel organ during tooth formation
Oral Pathology Answer: 4Dens in dente is an invagination of the enamel organ during tooth formation
Which of the following calcium channel blockers is commonly used to treat hypertension?
1) Losartan
2) Nifedipine
3) Furosemide
4) Clonidine
Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used in hypertension, while Losartan is an ARB, Furosemide is a diuretic, and Clonidine is a central alpha2-agonist.
What is the purpose of documenting informed consent in the dental record?
- To ensure the patient has read and understood the treatment plan
- To provide legal protection in the event of a malpractice claim
- To serve as a reminder for the dental team of the agreed-upon treatment
- To bill the patient for services provided
Documenting informed consent protects the dentist in legal matters by showing that the patient was fully informed and agreed to the proposed treatment.
Which antihypertensive agent is a direct renin inhibitor?
1) Aliskiren
2) Ramipril
3) Valsartan
4) Verapamil
Aliskiren directly inhibits renin, reducing the production of angiotensin I and lowering blood pressure.
What is the recommended approach to treat a patient with severe dental phobia?
1) Immediate comprehensive treatment
2) Gradual exposure to dental procedures
3) Immediate surgery under general anesthesia
4) Avoiding dental treatment altogether
Gradual exposure through a process like systematic desensitization can help patients with severe dental phobia to build tolerance and overcome their fears.
Which of the following drugs is known for potentially causing gingival hyperplasia?
1) Phenytoin
2) Aspirin
3) Metoprolol
4) Clindamycin
Phenytoin is associated with gingival hyperplasia as a side effect, which is characterized by the overgrowth of gum tissue.
The most significant finding in clinical evaluation of a parotid mass may be accompanying:
1) Lymphadenopathy
2) Nodular consistency
3) Facial paralysis
4) Slow progressive enlargement
ADC Test Answer: 3
Facial paralysis can indicate a serious underlying condition, such as a tumor affecting the facial nerve, making it a significant finding in parotid mass evaluation.
Diffusion hypoxia is caused by:
1) Ether
2) Halothane
3) N2O
4) Trielene
Nitrous oxide (N2O) can cause diffusion hypoxia when its delivery is stopped, as it displaces oxygen in the alveoli.
When is the best time to schedule an appointment for an asthmatic patient?
1) Morning
2) Afternoon
3) Evening
4) Anytime
Asthma attacks are known to be more frequent in the morning and evening due to various physiological factors.
In patients under corticosteroid therapy, what precaution must be taken to prevent adrenal crisis during oral surgery?
1) Ensure doses are not missed to maintain adrenal reserve
2) Gradually taper off corticosteroids before surgery
3) Increase corticosteroid dosage immediately post-operatively
4) Administer corticosteroid injections during surgery
Corticosteroids suppress the adrenal glands, so missing doses can lead to an adrenal crisis.
Which is the most common jaw cyst in the UK?
1) Dentigerous cyst
2) Radicular cyst
3) Odontogenic keratocyst
4) Nasopalatine duct cyst
The radicular cyst is the most prevalent type of jaw cyst, commonly associated with non-vital teeth.
What is the recommended duration for sterilizing dental instruments in an
autoclave at 134°C (273.2°F)?
1) 3 minutes
2) 10 minutes
3) 15 minutes
4) 20 minutes
To effectively sterilize dental instruments, the autoclave must be
maintained at a temperature of 134°C (273.2°F) for at least 15 minutes to ensure
that all microorganisms are destroyed.
You notice a lesion on the labial alveolar mucosa of the lower right lateral incisor tooth of one of your patients and decide to take a biopsy. Which nerve would require local anesthesia in order to carry out a pain-free biopsy?
1) The lingual nerve
2) The buccal nerve
3) The incisive nerve
4) The mental nerve
The incisive nerve would require local anesthesia in order to carry out a pain-free biopsy.
For composite resin preparations, cavosurface enamel margins are bevelled because
1. A bevelled margin produces a more favorable surface for etching.
2. A bevelled margin improves the edge strength of the composite resin.
3. After etching, the bonding agent reduces microleakage.
4. The procedure eliminates the need to polish the restoration.
1) (1) (2) (3)
2) (1) and (3)
3) (2) and (4)
4) (4) only
Beveling the margins of a cavity preparation for composite resin has specific benefits:
- Favorable surface for etching: A bevelled margin increases the surface area for bonding and improves the etching process.
- Reduces microleakage: Proper bonding after etching can help seal the margins and reduce the risk of microleakage.
- Edge strength: While beveling can improve aesthetics and bonding, the primary reasons are related to etching and sealing.
A 64-year-old patient with a history of metastatic breast cancer presents with loose teeth, dental pain, and swollen gums. What is the most likely causative agent?
1) Osteonecrosis of the left mandible
2) Long-term use of bisphosphonates
3) Osteomyelitis
4) Periodontal disease
Patients on long-term bisphosphonates for metastatic cancer are at risk for osteonecrosis of the jaw, which can present with loose teeth and swelling.
Which type of rest is often used for additional support or indirect retention?
1) Primary rest
2) Secondary rest
3) Occlusal rest
4) Cingulum rest
Secondary or auxiliary rests provide additional support and help in maintaining retention in the RPD.
What is the recommended prothrombin time for safe tooth extraction?
1) Less than 20 seconds
2) Within 1½ times the normal prothrombin time
3) Within 2 times the normal prothrombin time
4) More than 25 seconds
Extraction can be done if the prothrombin time is less than or equal to 1½ times the normal range to ensure adequate blood clotting.
What is the normal prothrombin time?
1) 10-12 seconds
2) 11-15 seconds
3) 15-20 seconds
4) 20-23 seconds
Prothrombin time is a measure of blood clotting, with a normal range between 11-15 seconds.
Ipratropium bromide is useful in bronchial asthma because of
1) Anticholinergic effect
2) Vasodilator properties
3) Antiallergic action
4) Stabilization of mast cells
Ipratropium (as ipratropium bromide, trade name Atrovent) is an anticholinergic drug administered by inhalation for the treatment of obstructive lung diseases. It acts by blocking muscarinic receptors in the lung, inhibiting bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion. It is a non-selective muscarinic antagonist, and does not diffuse into the blood, which prevents systemic side effects.
Ipratropium is a derivative of atropine[1] but is a quaternary amine and therefore does not cross the blood-brain barrier
Which functional assessment tool is commonly used to evaluate the dental
treatment needs of geriatric patients?
1) Barthel Index
2) Katz Index of Independence in Activities of Daily Living (ADL)
3) Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
4) Geriatric Depression Scale
The Katz Index assesses a patient's ability to perform daily
activities, influencing their capacity to maintain oral hygiene and attend
dental appointments.
Dry mouth during antidepressant therapy is caused by blockade of:
1) Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors.
2) Serotonergic receptors.
3) Dopaminergic receptors.
4) GABA receptors.
Anticholinergic side effect of antidepressant leads to dry mouth in the patients on these drugs. Dry mouth is due to the Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonism of these drugs.
Fins or spines may be produced on a casting because of 1.cracks in the investment 2. too rapid heating of the mold 3. steam production which causes the walls of the mold to flake off 4. all of the above
Dental Material Answer: 4Fins or spines may be produced on a casting because of 1.cracks in the investment 2. too rapid heating of the mold 3. steam production which causes the walls of the mold to flake off
Which of the following is NOT one of the Four Cs of record keeping?
- Clear
- Comprehensive
- Concise
- Contemporaneous
The Four Cs of record keeping are Contemporaneous, Clear, Concise, and Complete.
A woman aged 48 years visits a dermatologist to have a mole removed. The patient tells her physician that she got allergic reaction to a local anaesthetic the last time she had undergone dental work. Investigation of the lady's dental records by her dentist discloses that the patient received procaine for a tooth extraction. Among the following alternatives, which drug would be suitable for the present procedure?
- Benzocaine
- Chloroprocaine
- Tetracaine
- Mepivacaine
Two classes of local anaesthetics exist namely: Esters and Amides.
What is the normal pH range for venous blood?
1) 7.35-7.45
2) 7.25-7.35
3) 7.45-7.55
4) 7.40-7.50
Venous blood has a pH range of 7.35 to 7.45, which is essential for maintaining various biochemical processes in the body.
What is the role of dental records in forensic dentistry?
- To establish the identity of a deceased person
- To determine the cause of death
- To evaluate the dental health of the general population
- To monitor dental insurance fraud
Antemortem records can be used by forensic odontologists to help identify individuals in the event of death.
The first teeth to erupt in the dental arches of the human being are the, primary 1. mandibular cuspids 2. maxillary central incisors. 3. mandibular central incisors 4. maxillary first molars
Dental Anatomy Answer: 3The first teeth to erupt in the dental arches of the human being are the, primary mandibular central incisors
Enamel most likely effected by deficiency of vitamin A
In the TNM classification, what does M1 indicate?
1) No distant metastases
2) Distant metastasis present
3) Localized tumor
4) Tumor size greater than 4 cm
M1 indicates that there is evidence of distant metastasis, which is critical for determining the stage of cancer.
Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of Thrombocytopenia secondary to myelosuppressive cancer chemotherapy?
1) Filgrastim
2) Sargramostim
3) Oprelvekin
4) Erythropoietin
Oprelvekin (Interleukin 11) is the only agent approved by the FDA for treatment of thrombocytopenia secondary to myelosuppressive cancer chemotherapy
Filgrastim (G-CSF) and Sargramostim (GM-SCF) are used in the treatment of neutropenia
Erythropoietin is used in treatment of anemia
Which of the following is/are associated with the presence of microorganisms in
the bloodstream?
1) Anachoresis.
2) Cavernous sinus thrombosis.
3) Bacteremia
4) All of the above.
All the options listed (Anachoresis, Cavernous sinus thrombosis, and Bacteremia) are associated with the presence of microorganisms in the bloodstream. Anachoresis refers to the process by which bacteria can localize in tissues, cavernous sinus thrombosis can occur due to the spread of infection from the oral cavity, and bacteremia is the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream itself.
Impressions taken with which of the following materials are subject to distortion as a result of water sorption? 1. silicone rubber 2. polysulflde polymers 3. zinc oxide-eugenol-paste 4. polyether
Dental Material Answer: 4polyether materials are subject to distortion as a result of water sorption
What protein has I, T, and C subcomponents in muscle fibers?
1) Myosin
2) Actin
3) Troponin
4) Tropomyosin
Troponin is a regulatory protein complex in muscle fibers that includes I (inhibitory), T (tropomyosin-binding), and C (calcium-binding) subcomponents.
Before filling a Class V abrasion cavity with GIC (Glass Ionomer Cement) you should:
1) Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water, and weak acid
2) Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything
3) Acid etch cavity then dry thoroughly
4) Rinse the cavity with saline
ADC Test Answer: 1
The purpose of using pumice and a rubber cup is to clean the cavity without excessively drying it, which is important as GIC is moisture-loving.
What antibiotic is commonly prescribed for chronic sinusitis?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Doxycycline
3) Azithromycin
4) Ciprofloxacin
Doxycycline is often used to treat chronic sinusitis due to its effectiveness against a range of bacteria that can cause sinus infections.
What should be included in a patient's medical history in dental records?
1) Patient's favorite food
2) List of systemic diseases and medications
3) Patient's hobbies
4) Financial status
A thorough medical history should include relevant health information that can impact dental treatment.
Which of the following factors contributes to increased xerostomia in elderly
patients?
1) Increased salivary gland function
2) Systemic medications
3) Higher water intake
4) Increased oral hydration
Many medications taken by older adults, such as antihypertensives
and antidepressants, can lead to reduced saliva production, resulting in
xerostomia.
At the end of a balanced anaesthesia technique with non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, a patient recovered spontaneously from the effect of muscle relaxant without any reversal. Which of the below given is the most probable relaxant the patient received?
- Pancuronium
- Gallamine
- Atracurium
- Vecuronium
The patient must have received Atracurium which is a short-acting muscle relaxant.
A woman aged 48 years visits a dermatologist to have a mole removed.
The patient tells her physician that she got allergic reaction to a local
anaesthetic the last time she had undergone dental work.
Investigation of the lady's dental records by her dentist discloses that the
patient received procaine for a tooth extraction.
Among the following alternatives, which drug would be suitable for the present
procedure?
1 Benzocaine
2 Chloroprocaine
3 Tetracaine
4 Mepivacaine
Two classes of local anaesthetics exist namely:
Esters Amides
The rule of thumb describes that in case you are allergic to one drug in a given
class (generally the ester class), you will also be allergic to other drugs of
the same class.
The lady received procaine which is an ester in the present case.
Hence, we need to identify Amide in the list of answers.
Mepivacaine is the only amide listed here.
Other amide local anaesthetics include:
Prilocaine Ropivacaine Lidocaine Bupivacaine Etidocaine
The oral lesion of warty dsykeratoma is described as a small whitish area of the mucosa with a central depression
What is the main characteristic of dentinal lesions?
1) They are always cavitated.
2) They widen due to higher penetrability of dentin.
3) They are less susceptible to decay than enamel lesions.
4) They do not require removal during restoration.
Dentinal lesions widen due to the higher penetrability of dentin, allowing for faster progression of decay.
What’s the percentage of tooth erosion in 6-year-olds and 15-year-olds in the UK?
1) 5-10% and 15-20%
2) 5-52% and 15-27%
3) 10-30% and 20-40%
4) 15-25% and 25-35%
Studies indicate that tooth erosion affects a significant percentage of children, with varying rates between different age groups.
The regional lymphatic drainage of the left side of the tip of the tongue is to the?
1) Left submandibular lymph node.
2) Left submental lymph node.
3) Left and right submental lymph nodes
4) Left and right submandibular lymph nodes.
The regional lymphatic drainage of the left side of the tip of the tongue is to the left and right submental lymph nodes.
A patient expresses extreme anxiety about getting needles. What is the most appropriate response?
1) Tell them not to worry
2) Avoid discussing needles altogether
3) Explain the procedure and show the needle in a non-threatening way
4) Schedule their appointment without discussing their fears
Providing clear information and familiarizing the patient with the process can help reduce anxiety associated with needles.
Which one of the following is true about oral hairy leukoplakia?
1) Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the dorsal of the tongue
2) Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue
3) Usually caused by Candida species
4) Always associated with trauma to the lateral side of the tongue
ADC Test Answer: 2
Oral hairy leukoplakia is typically associated with Epstein-Barr virus and is most commonly found on the lateral borders of the tongue in immunocompromised individuals.
While doing preparation for an FMC crown prep on tooth 16 in a 20-year-old man, a pinpoint pulp exposure occurred. How would you best manage the situation?
1) Do DPC immediately under rubber dam then tell the patient about the situation
2) Tell the patient immediately and do pulpotomy
3) Start RCT then describe the situation to the patient
4) Tell the patient that you have encountered an inadvertent incident while preparing and refer him to a specialist
ADC Test Answer: 1
Direct Pulp Capping (DPC) is the most appropriate management strategy for a small pinpoint pulp exposure.
What is the primary function of a wedge in oral surgery?
1) To remove teeth
2) To split teeth
3) To expand the tooth socket
4) To elevate the tooth
A wedge is used to create space in the tooth socket, facilitating tooth elevation and reducing the risk of fracture during extraction.
The ingredient of dental waxes that is extremely hard, has a high melting temperature, is added to decrease flow at oral temperatures and contributes to glossiness of the waxes is 1. paraffin 2. gum dammar 3. gutta percha 4. carnauba
Dental Material Answer: 4Carnauba is added to decrease flow at oral temperatures and contributes to glossiness, is extremely hard, has a high melting temperature
Which of the following statements about the defective margins of amalgam restoration is true?
1) The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay
2) Secondary caries is less likely with marginal defects
3) Microscopic defects do not affect caries development
4) All margins always prevent secondary caries
ADC Test Answer: 1
Research has shown that larger defects in the margins of amalgam restorations increase the prevalence of secondary caries, making it critical to maintain good margins to prevent decay.
If a patient on warfarin is also allergic to penicillin, which antibiotic is recommended?
1) Erythromycin
2) Clindamycin
3) Cephalexin
4) Vancomycin
Clindamycin is a suitable alternative for patients allergic to penicillin who are also on warfarin since it does not interact adversely with anticoagulants.
What is the function of sodium meta bisulfite in a local anesthetic solution?
1) It acts as a vasoconstrictor.
2) It acts as an antiseptic.
3) It prevents oxidation of the anesthetic agent.
4) It reduces the acidity of the solution.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Sodium meta bisulfite is a reducing agent that helps maintain the potency of the local anesthetic by preventing its oxidation during storage.
What should a dentist do if a patient is unable to read the informed consent
form due to visual impairment?
1) Have a family member read it to the patient
2) Skip the consent process
3) Read the form to the patient and ensure they understand the information
4) Have the patient listen to an audio recording of the consent form
It is the dentist's responsibility to ensure that the patient
comprehends the information presented in the consent form. If the patient cannot
read, the dentist should read the form to them and answer any questions to
confirm understanding.
An orthopantomogram (OPG) and a PA (posteroanterior) mandible X-ray are essential radiographic views for diagnosing mandibular fractures and determining management strategies.
Is Myasthenia Gravis and Grave's disease type 2 or type 5 hypersensitivity reactions?
1) Type 2
2) Type 5
3) Both
4) Neither
Both Myasthenia Gravis and Grave's disease are classified as type 2 hypersensitivity reactions, mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies.
What legal principle underpins the concept of informed consent?
1) Patient confidentiality
2) Patient autonomy
3) Beneficence
4) Non-maleficence
Informed consent is grounded in the legal and ethical principle of patient autonomy, which is the right of patients to make decisions about their own medical treatment.
You notice that your patient's submandibular lymph nodes are enlarged. You would look for potential infection sites in the?
1) Hard palate, upper lip, upper central incisor, and lower first molar
2) Hard palate.
3) Hard palate and upper lip.
4) Hard palate, upper lip, and upper central incisor.
The correct answer is hard palate, upper lip, upper central incisor, and lower first molar.
Which of the following is considered a biological hazard in a dental practice? 1) Chemical spills 2) Noise from dental equipment 3) Bloodborne pathogens 4) Ergonomic strain
Occupational Hazards Answer: 3Biological hazards include exposure to infectious agents such as bloodborne pathogens (e.g., HIV, Hepatitis B and 3) that can pose risks to dental professionals.
Cardio stable anaesthetic:
1) Etomidate
2) Propadanil
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopental
Etomidate is considered a cardio-stable anaesthetic.
For stage 2 hypertensive patients, periodic monitoring during dental procedures helps manage blood pressure fluctuations.
Condylar fractures account for 26% of all mandibular fractures, often resulting from falls or trauma to the chin.
What is the recommended position for a pregnant patient during oral surgery to avoid pressure on the inferior vena cava?
1) Supine position
2) Semi-reclined position
3) Sitting position
4) Left lateral position
The patient should be placed in the left lateral position to reduce pressure on the inferior vena cava and ensure adequate venous return, preventing hypotension.
Who checks if there is a written protocol for radiation protection in the clinic?
1) The dentist
2) The radiation protection supervisor
3) The clinic manager
4) The health and safety officer
The radiation protection supervisor is responsible for ensuring that protocols are in place and adhered to for the safety of both patients and staff.
A patient presents with a history of using an old diamond bur. What consequence might arise from this?
A. Faster cutting
B. Excessive heat generation
C. Reduced pain during procedures
D. Improved tooth surface finish
Using an old diamond bur can lead to inadequate cutting efficiency, forcing the dentist to apply excessive pressure which generates excessive heat—this can damage the dental pulp.
Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of poor oral health
in geriatric patients?
1) Pneumonia
4) Malnutrition
3) Dementia
4) Cardiovascular disease
While poor oral health is associated with an increased risk of
developing pneumonia and cardiovascular disease, it is not a direct cause of
dementi1) However, oral health can impact the quality of life and overall
systemic health.
What is the most effective way to manage a patient with dental anxiety?
1) Sedation
2) General anesthesia
3) Cognitive behavioral therapy
4) All of the above
Managing dental anxiety can involve sedation, general anesthesia, and psychological approaches like cognitive behavioral therapy, depending on the severity of the anxiety.
The growth of the alveolar process has a major effect on
1) Anteroposterior jaw relationship
2) Vertical jaw relationship
3) Both
4) None of the above
If a cut is made below the cricoid cartilage, which structure might be injured?
1) Inferior laryngeal nerve
2) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
3) Superior laryngeal nerve
4) Both A and B
The recurrent laryngeal nerve runs below the cricoid cartilage and
supplies all the intrinsic laryngeal muscles except for the cricothyroid muscle,
which is supplied by the superior laryngeal nerve. Inferior laryngeal nerve (which supplies the cricothyroid muscle) Recurrent laryngeal nerve (which supplies all other intrinsic laryngeal
muscles except the cricothyroid muscle)
What are the layers of the skin from innermost to outermost?
1) Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale
2) Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum
3) Stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale, stratum corneum, stratum lucidum
4) Stratum lucidum, stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale
These layers represent the structure of the epidermis, with the stratum lucidum being thickest on the palms and soles.
Epoxy resins are compatible with which of the following impression material :
1) Polysulphide impression material
2) Polyether impression material
3) Agar
4) Alginate
Epoxy resins
· Abrasion resistance is many times greater than gypsum
· More expensive
· Undergoes 0.1 – 0.2% shrinkage, thus their shrinkage is approximately equal to gypsum.
· Their detail reproduction is better.
· Hydrocolloids, polysulfides are not compatible with them.
Thymol is preservative used for:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Desflurane
4) Enflurane
Halothane is stored in amber-colored bottles and contains thymol 0.01% as a preservative to prevent decomposition by light.