Dentist Abroad
Which muscle of the soft palate is not supplied by the pharyngeal plexus? 1. Palatoglossus 2. Musculus uvulae 3. Palatopharyngeus 4. Tensor veli palatine
Anatomy Answer: 4muscle of the soft palate is not supplied by the pharyngeal plexus is Tensor veli palatine
What are the main challenges in the adoption of computerized dental records?
- Affordability and reliability of technology
- Lack of patient interest
- Limited space for computer equipment
- Complex regulations regarding color coding
The main barriers to adopting electronic records are the cost of the technology and ensuring it is reliable and user-friendly.
What is the effect on local anesthetic when used with sodium
bicarbonate ?
1 Increases speed and quality of anaestheisa
2 Decreases diffusion of the anaesthetic drug
3 Causes rapid elimination of the local anaesthetic
4 Decreases speed and quality of anaesthesia
The speed of onset of Anaesthesia is raised by Sodium bicarbonate and further
enhances its quality by elevating the intensity and duration of block.
Administration of which among the following anaesthetic agent results in a state of dissociative anaesthesia?
1) Ether
2) Propofol
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopentone sodium
Dissociative Anaesthesia refers to a characteristic state which results after an induction dose of Ketamine.
The action of Furosemide in acute pulmonary edema due acute left ventricular failure is by:
1) Pulmonary venodilation
2) Increasing urine formation
3) Decreases blood volume
4) All of the above
Penicillins:
1) Are the antibiotic of choice for anaerobic infections
2) Are bacteriostatic
3) Are protagonistic to tetracycline
4) Interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesis
The penicillins all act by interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis, by inhibiting cross-linking of the mucopeptides in the cell wall and as such are bacteriocidal.
Which of the following is a form of emotional abuse?
1) Hitting a partner
2) Constantly belittling a child
3) Withholding food
4) Ignoring a patient's medical needs
Emotional abuse involves harming a person's self-esteem or emotional well-being, such as through belittling or verbal insults.
For composite resin preparations, cavosurface enamel margins are bevelled because
1. A bevelled margin produces a more favorable surface for etching.
2. A bevelled margin improves the edge strength of the composite resin.
3. After etching, the bonding agent reduces microleakage.
4. The procedure eliminates the need to polish the restoration.
1) (1) (2) (3)
2) (1) and (3)
3) (2) and (4)
4) (4) only
Beveling the margins of a cavity preparation for composite resin has specific benefits:
- Favorable surface for etching: A bevelled margin increases the surface area for bonding and improves the etching process.
- Reduces microleakage: Proper bonding after etching can help seal the margins and reduce the risk of microleakage.
- Edge strength: While beveling can improve aesthetics and bonding, the primary reasons are related to etching and sealing.
What is the primary function of salivary IgA?
1) To neutralize bacterial toxins
2) To prevent bacterial adhesion to tooth surfaces
3) To initiate the immune response against caries-causing bacteria
4) To provide a source of calcium for remineralization
Salivary IgA is an antibody that specifically targets bacteria in the mouth, helping to prevent their colonization and the initiation of the caries process.
Which of the following drugs acts by enzyme inhibition?
1) salbutamol
2) acetazolamide
3) tolbutamide
4) chlorpromazine
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that reduces aqueous humour production and is therefore indicated in glaucoma to reduce the intraocular pressure.
Salbutamol is a selective, short-acting beta2-agonist used as a bronchodilator in asthma.
Chlorpromazine is an aliphatic neuroleptic antipsychotic drug used in schizophrenia.
What is the primary focus of the General Dental Council (GDC) regarding record keeping?
1) Financial management
2) Patient care and safety
3) Marketing strategies
4) Staff training
The GDC emphasizes the importance of maintaining accurate records to ensure high standards of patient care and safety.
Which of the following is a well-recognized feature of capitation-based remuneration?
1) Encourages under-prescribing
2) Encourages high technical quality of work
3) Encourages high output of procedures
4) Encourages over-prescribing
Capitated payments encourage dentists to provide quality treatment since their income is not based on the number of procedures performed.
Laminar flow is mainly dependent on:
1) Density
2) Viscosity
3) Solubility
4) Molecular weight
Laminar flow mainly depends on the viscosity of the gas, while turbulent flow is more dependent on density.
Before restoring a tooth with composite, the area is etched. Accidental contamination occurs with saliva, Therefore
1) the area is re-etched before restoration
2) the area is air-dried using an air spray and continue with restoring
3) wipe the saliva with cotton and continue to restore.
4) add excess composie material and cure it
Etching of tooth surface with 37% phosphoric acid creates microporosities in the enamel and dentin.
After etching the surface energy of the enamel will increase. This will make it very sticky to any kind of contaminants. If salivary contamination will occur, the salivary proteins will precipitate in the microporosities. This will prevent the adequate penetration of the bonding agent, therby reducing the micotag formation. Hence, complete isolation is essential.
What is the GDC's guideline regarding the use of abbreviations in dental records?
- Abbreviations should be avoided altogether
- Only standardized dental abbreviations should be used
- Abbreviations are acceptable as long as they are legible
- It is up to the dentist's discretion
The GDC advises that abbreviations should be kept to a minimum and only standardized abbreviations should be used to avoid misunderstandings or misinterpretations of the recorded information.
A 30-year-old man with an unknown allergy to latex goes into anaphylactic shock whilst being treated in the dental surgery. Which drug and route of administration is of most benefit in this situation?
A. Hydrocortisone - orally
B. Epinephrine – intramuscularly
C. Chlorphenamine - orally
D. Epinephrine - intravenously
In anaphylactic shock, immediate administration of epinephrine is crucial as it acts quickly to reverse bronchoconstriction, vasodilation, and subsequent hypotension.
What is the best approach to ensure the cooperation of a patient with autism spectrum disorder during dental treatment?
1) Sticking strictly to a predefined treatment schedule
2) Providing a structured and predictable environment
3) Using bright, flashing lights in the operatory
4) Asking the patient to hold their mouth open without support
Patients with autism may benefit from a structured environment with minimal sensory stimulation.
If the sealant or bonding agent is not placed on part of the enamel that has been etched by an acid solution, you would expect:
1) Arrest of enamel caries by organic sulfides
2) The enamel to return to normal within 7 days
3) Continued enamel demineralization in the etched area
4) Slight attrition of the opposing tooth
If the etched area is not sealed, it may remineralize over time, but the risk of continued demineralization exists if not properly managed.
What is the role of dental records in forensic dentistry?
- To establish the identity of a deceased person
- To determine the cause of death
- To evaluate the dental health of the general population
- To monitor dental insurance fraud
Antemortem records can be used by forensic odontologists to help identify individuals in the event of death.
Type 1 diabetes is more common in which of the following populations?
1) Hispanics
2) Africans
3) Asians
4) Non-Hispanic Whites
Type 1 diabetes has a higher incidence among non-Hispanic whites, particularly in children. This demographic shows a greater prevalence of the autoimmune condition compared to other ethnic groups.
According to the water regulations, what type of gap must exist between the water ingress and drainage points for dental equipment?
1) Type A gap of 20mm
2) Type B gap of 30mm
3) Type C gap of 40mm
4) Type D gap of 50mm
Water regulations necessitate that dental equipment be safeguarded against back-siphonage to prevent contamination.
The basic principle of Orthodontic spot welder lies on the concept of :-
1 Heat technique
2) Quenching
3) Diodelasers
4) Electrode Technique
SOLUTION The type of welding used to join Orthodontic components is called Spot welding.
1. Transmit current to the metals to be joined so as to cause a rapid increase in temperature.
2. The electrodes help in conducting the heat produced away from the area so as to preserve the properties of stainless steel around the weld spot.
3. The electrode also help in holding together the two metals to be joined.
4. The electrodes are designed to apply pressure on the metals being joined. As soon as the temperature increases, the pressure exerted by the electrodes helps in squeezing metal into each other.
What happens when rests are not properly designed?
1) They could be aesthetically displeasing
2) They may not transfer occlusal stresses effectively
3) They could enhance retention
4) They become more comfortable
Poorly designed rests may fail to effectively transfer occlusal stresses, potentially compromising the stability of the RPD.
The gas with greatest solubility in blood:
- Nitrous oxide
- Nitrogen
- Oxygen
- Hydrogen
Although the solubility of nitrous oxide in blood is less than other inhalational agents, its solubility is 35 times more than nitrogen and 15 times more than oxygen.
What neurotransmitter is responsible for closing pre-capillary sphincters?
1) Acetylcholine
2) Serotonin
3) Nor-adrenaline
4) Substance P
Nor-adrenaline is responsible for vasoconstriction and can close pre-capillary sphincters, regulating blood flow.
Tourniquet cannot be released before ....... minutes after Beir's block
1) 5 minutes
2) 10 minutes
3) 30 minutes
4) 60 minutes
Local Anesthesia Answer: 3
30 minutes Tourniquet once inflated and drug given, it cannot be released before half an hour as it is assumed that it takes this much time for drug to be completely out of vascular compartment.
What protein has I, T, and C subcomponents in muscle fibers?
1) Myosin
2) Actin
3) Troponin
4) Tropomyosin
Troponin is a regulatory protein complex in muscle fibers that includes I (inhibitory), T (tropomyosin-binding), and C (calcium-binding) subcomponents.
In which condition is the prothrombin time typically prolonged?
1) Hemophilia
2) Vitamin K deficiency
3) Use of salicylates or anticoagulants
4) Platelet disorders
Both salicylates and anticoagulants can interfere with blood clotting mechanisms and prolong prothrombin time.
What neurotransmitter is responsible for closing pre-capillary sphincters?
1) Acetylcholine
2) Serotonin
3) Nor-adrenaline
4) Substance P
Nor-adrenaline is responsible for vasoconstriction and can close pre-capillary sphincters, regulating blood flow.
The decreased CO2 concentration the airways causes 1. Dilation of airways 2. Constriction of airways 3. No effect on airway 4. Complete obliteration of airway.
Physiology Answer: 2The decreased CO2 concentration the airways causes Constriction of airways
Premature exfoliation of primary mandibular canine is most often the sequelae of:
1) Caries
2) Trauma
3) Serial tooth extraction
4) Arch length inadequacy
SOLUTION The two major symptoms of severe crowding in the early mixed dentition are severe irregularity of the erupting permanent incisors and early loss of primary canines caused by eruption of the permanent lateral incisors.
After a definitive analysis of the profile and incisor position, these patients face the same decision as those with moderate crowding; whether to expand the arches or extract permanent teeth. In the presence of severe crowding, limited treatment of the problem will not be sufficient and permanent tooth extraction is most likely the best alternative.
A removable partial denture rest should be placed on the lingual surface of a canine rather than on the incisal surface because:
1) Less leverage is exerted against the tooth by the rest.
2) The enamel is thicker on the lingual surface.
3) Visibility and access are better.
4) The cingulum of the canine provides a natural recess that does not need to be prepared.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1Lingual rests provide better mechanical advantage by minimizing leverage and torque forces on the abutment teeth, preserving their health and stability.
What is the difference between implied and verbal consent?
1) Implied consent requires no action from the patient, while verbal consent
involves the patient stating their agreement
2) Verbal consent is documented, while implied consent is not
3) Implied consent is for diagnostic procedures, and verbal consent is for
treatments
4) There is no difference between implied and verbal consent
Implied consent is inferred from the patient's passive cooperation, while verbal consent requires the patient to explicitly state their agreement to the proposed treatment.
What is the purpose of using a rubber dam during dental procedures?
1) To isolate the operative site from the oral cavity
2) To improve visualization and access
3) To reduce the patient's gag reflex
4) To increase patient comfort
A rubber dam is used to create a barrier between the patient's oral
tissues and the rest of the mouth, thereby reducing the risk of
cross-contamination and protecting the patient and the dental team from bacteria
and saliva.
Which of the following antiviral drugs cannot be given orally?
1) Zidovudine
2) Zalcitabine
3) Acyclovir
4) Iodoxuridine
Idoxuridine acts as an antiviral agent against DNA viruses by inhibiting thymidilate phosphorylase and viral DNA polymerases.
The effect of Idoxuridine results in the inability of the virus to reproduce or to infect/destroy tissue.
This product is available in the following dosage forms:Solution and Ointment
Clinically significant drug interaction occurs between pyridoxine and all the following drugs except?
1) Isoniazid
2) Cyclosporine
3) Levodopa
4) Hydralazine
Pyridoxine – drug interactions : INH – induces a pyridoxine deficiency state
Levodopa – pyridoxine promotes peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine – thus it decreases therapeutic action of levodopa in the brain
Oral contraceptive pills – decrease pyridoxine levels in some females
Hydralazine – impairment of pyridoxine utilisation
4-deoxy pyridoxine – pyridoxine antagonist
Cardio stable anaesthetic:
- Etomidate
- Propadanil
- Ketamine
- Thiopental
Etomidate is known for its cardio-stability.
Lignocaine with adrenaline is contra-indicated for ring block of:
1) Penis
2) Toes
3) Pinna
4) All of the above
Xylocaine with adrenaline is contraindicated in ring block of finger, toes, penis, pinna (because these structures have end arteries) and Beta block (intravenous regional anaesthesia).
Least likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with amide or ester local anesthetics.?
1) Tetracaine (pontocaine)
2) Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
3) Dyclonine (Dyclone)
4) Mepivacaine (Carbocaine)
Dyclonine (Dyclone) is the least likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with amide or ester local anesthetics.
What is the most appropriate initial management of a tooth which is sensitive to
percussion but responds normally to electric pulp testing?
1) Pulpectomy.
2) Occlusal assessment.
3) Pulpotomy.
4) Restoration replacement.
Percussion sensitivity may result from occlusal trauma, which can be corrected by adjusting the bite.
Who checks if there is a written protocol for radiation protection in the clinic?
1) The dentist
2) The radiation protection supervisor
3) The clinic manager
4) The health and safety officer
The radiation protection supervisor is responsible for ensuring that protocols are in place and adhered to for the safety of both patients and staff.
What is the primary reason for taking a complete set of diagnostic radiographs for a new patient?
- To establish a baseline for future comparisons
- To screen for cavities
- To assess the patient's overall oral health
- To plan for a specific treatment
Although radiographs are used for various purposes, including detecting cavities and planning treatment, the primary reason for taking a complete set of diagnostic radiographs for a new patient is to assess the patient's overall oral health and identify any underlying conditions that may require attention.
Surface activity and low toxic potential?
1) Cocaine
2) Bupivacaine
3) Benzocaine
4) Procaine
Benzocaine is the correct answer because it has surface activity and low toxic potential.
Lateral canals are commonly found:
1) In the middle third of the root
2) In the apical third of the root
3) Near the crown
4) Throughout the entire root
ADC Test Answer: 2
Lateral canals are typically located in the apical third of the root and provide pathways for communication between the pulp and periodontal structures.
Which antihypertensive agent is an ACE inhibitor?
1) Amlodipine
2) Losartan
3) Ramipril
4) Atenolol
Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor, while Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, Losartan is an ARB, and Atenolol is a beta-blocker.
Which immunoglobulin is pentameric?
1) IgA
2) IgG
3) IgM
4) IgE
IgM is the largest immunoglobulin in terms of size and is structured as a pentamer, facilitating its role in early immune responses.
What is the primary cause of a dry socket?
1) Infection
2) Clot dislodgment
3) Blood vessel damage
4) Bone necrosis
Dry socket occurs when the blood clot in the tooth socket is dislodged, exposing the bone and causing pain.
Which is the most common jaw cyst in the UK?
1) Dentigerous cyst
2) Radicular cyst
3) Odontogenic keratocyst
4) Nasopalatine duct cyst
The radicular cyst is the most prevalent type of jaw cyst, commonly associated with non-vital teeth.
A man who smokes 2 packets of cigarettes a day and drinks would have an increased risk of developing oral cancer of:
1) 11 times
2) 13 times
3) 47 times
4) 25 times
Smoking and alcohol consumption significantly increase the risk of oral cancer, with studies showing a risk increase of up to 47 times for heavy users.
What is the most common pharmacological agent used for conscious sedation in dentistry?
1) Midazolam
2) Diazepam
3) Lorazepam
4) Alprazolam
Midazolam is commonly used for conscious sedation in dentistry due to its rapid onset, short duration of action, and amnesic properties.
What condition is characterized by bilateral swellings not associated with food smell and associated with lymphadenopathy?
1) Sarcoidosis
2) Lymphoma
3) Tuberculosis
4) Infectious mononucleosis
Sarcoidosis can present with bilateral swellings and lymphadenopathy, often without any associated symptoms like food smell.
Which of the following is NOT a common sign of dental anxiety?
1) Excessive sweating
2) Increased heart rate
3) Difficulty in swallowing
4) Fear of needles
While anxiety can affect swallowing reflexes, it is not a universally recognized sign of dental anxiety. Common signs include increased heart rate, sweating, and fear of needles or specific dental procedures.
What oral hygiene aid is often recommended for patients with limited dexterity?
1) Traditional toothbrush
2) Electric toothbrush
3) Floss picks
4) Mouthwash only
Electric toothbrushes can be easier to handle and may provide a more effective cleaning action for patients with limited dexterity.
What defines the etiology of localized alveolar osteitis?
1) Bacterial infection
2) Oestrogen effects from medications
3) Excessive local fibrinolytic activity
4) Poor oral hygiene
Localized alveolar osteitis is often attributed to excessive fibrinolytic activity following trauma to the alveolar bone, rather than solely due to bacterial infections.
What material is LEAST usable for an impression of PFM (Porcelain-Fused-to-Metal)?
A. Alginate
B. Polyvinyl siloxane
C. Polyether
D. Agar
Alginate is primarily used for making preliminary impressions due to its set time and hydrophilic properties but does not provide the necessary detail and stability required for precise impressions needed for PFMs.
Creatine Phosphate is the major source of glucose for the whole body during starvation
Which of the following is a common dental consideration in patients with autism?
1) Hyperactivity
2) Sensitivity to sensory stimuli
3) Aggressive behavior
4) Poor nutritional habits
Patients with autism often experience heightened sensitivity to sensory input, which can affect their comfort during dental procedures.
How is acetylcholine released?
1) Diffusion
2) Exocytosis
3) Active transport
4) Osmosis
Acetylcholine is released from nerve terminals into the synaptic cleft via exocytosis, a process where vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane.
How often should dental records be updated?
- Annually
- With each appointment
- Only when there is a change in treatment plan
- It depends on the patient's dental insurance
Dental records should be updated at every appointment to reflect the most current information regarding the patient's oral health and treatments.
Current evidence indicates that endorphins are 1. endogenous molecules having morphine like properties 2. receptors located in the periaqueductal grey area of the brain Which are sensitive to opiates 3. large polypeptides that regulate renal activity 4. central nervous system transmitters implicated in depressive psychoses
Pharmacology Answer: 1endorphins are endogenous molecules having morphine like properties
Which cells are found in hepatic stomatitis?
1) Lymphocytes
2) Monocytes
3) Neutrophils
4) Macrophages
Neutrophils are typically present in hepatic stomatitis, indicating an acute inflammatory response, while multinucleate giant cells may also be observed in conditions like herpes labialis.
What is the most common complication associated with the extraction of an impacted third molar?
1) Nerve damage
2) Infection
3) Prolonged bleeding
4) Dry socket
Pericoronitis is the most common complication associated with impacted third molars, which can occur before or after extraction if proper care is not taken.
In a patient with thyroid surgery, the block to be given is:
1) Stellate ganglion
2) Upper cervical ganglion
3) Dorsal sympathetic ganglion
4) Any of the above
Local Anesthesia Answer: 2
Upper cervical ganglion Cervical plexus block is most commonly given for carotid endarterectomy but thyroidectomy and tracheostomy can be done under bilateral cervical plexus block.
Which of the following is NOT a key aspect of record keeping according to the GDC guidance?
1) Complete and accurate patient records
2) Documenting discussions with patients
3) Keeping financial information in the dental record
4) Recording consent for treatment
Financial information should not be included in the clinical dental record; it is separate from patient care documentation.
Which cement is more susceptible to failure if contaminated with saliva?
1) Resin cement
2) Glass ionomer cement
3) Zinc phosphate cement
4) Glass ionomer cement (GIC)
GIC is particularly sensitive to contamination with saliva, which can compromise its bonding ability.
What is the typical arrangement for paper dental records in a lateral filing system?
- Files are stored alphabetically on a shelf
- Files are stored in drawers with the patient's name on the spine
- Files are stored in color-coded envelopes
- Files are stored in a cardboard box labeled with the patient's name
Lateral filing cabinets hold files side by side, allowing for easy retrieval when organized alphabetically.
How can a cusp fracture immediate to a Class II inlay be detected?
1) History.
2) Visually.
3) Radiograph.
4) Percussion.
E. Touching the tip of the cusp / Pressure on the cusp.
ADC Test Answer: 3
A cusp fracture may not always be visible on a radiograph due to its location and extent, but it is often the best method to detect such a fracture in a clinical setting.
Which type of oral lesion is often associated with vitamin B deficiency?
1) Aphthous stomatitis
2) Oral lichen planus
3) Herpes simplex virus
4) Mucous membrane pemphigoid
Aphthous stomatitis, or canker sores, can be exacerbated by vitamin B deficiencies, particularly B12 and folate.
Transillumination is primarily used to:
1) Diagnose dental caries
2) Assess intrinsic discoloration of teeth
3) Detect pulp stones
4) Visualize root canal anatomy
ADC Test Answer: 1
Transillumination is utilized to detect carious lesions, as decayed areas allow light to pass differently than healthy tooth structure.
The primary purpose of surgical therapy for the treatment of periodontitis is to
1) apically position the flap.
2) eliminate periodontal pockets.
3) remove the ulcerated epithelium of the periodontal pocket.
4) improve access for removal of local etiologic factors.
Surgical therapy, such as flap surgery, aims to expose root surfaces and deep
periodontal pockets.
This improves visibility and access for scaling, root planning, and debridement,
which are critical for removing the etiologic factors of periodontitis (e.g.,
plaque and calculus.
Eliminating these factors allows tissues to heal and reduces pocket depths.
What is the term for the psychological process in which patients learn to associate the dental environment with a positive experience?
1) Counterconditioning
2) Operant conditioning
3) Classical conditioning
4) Systematic desensitization
Counterconditioning involves replacing the negative association with a positive one, which can help reduce dental anxiety over time.
Presently, the treatment plan for the child going abroad in 6 months should focus on:
1) Extracting teeth and using space maintainers
2) Extracting all affected teeth and referring to an oral surgeon
3) Referring to an oral surgeon and orthodontist for comprehensive treatment
4) Restoring the affected teeth and monitoring
ADC Test Answer: 4
Restoring both affected teeth conservatively allows for continued function and aesthetics while developing a long-term plan that can be managed after moving.
Which of the following does NOT require informed consent?
1) General clinical examination
2) Removal of an impacted third molar
3) Periodontal probing
4) Administering medication with high risks
Informed consent is generally not required for diagnostic
procedures such as general clinical examinations, as they are considered part of
the initial assessment that patients expect when they visit a healthcare
professional.
What happens to the pH of the oral cavity after exposure to sugars and acids,
according to the Stephan Curve?
1) It rapidly increases.
2) It remains constant.
3) It rapidly decreases and then gradually recovers.
4) It decreases and does not recover.
The Stephan Curve shows that the oral pH drops quickly after sugar or acid exposure but gradually recovers to a neutral state within 30 minutes due to salivary buffering.
Activation of a reverse labial bow is done by?
1) Opening the loop
2) Compressing the loop
3) Reversing the loop
4) Bending the loop
Reverse labial bow is so called as activation of the bow is done by opening the U-loop, instead of compressing as is seen in the conventional labial bows.
All of the following statements are true regarding the cephalosporin antibiotics except 1. they are bactericidal 2. they are ineffective against gram negative microorganisms 3. they are potentially cross allergenic with penicillin 4. they are resistant to penicillinase
Pharmacology Answer: 2cephalosporin are bactericidal, are potentially cross allergenic with penicillin, resistant to penicillinase
What is the role of color coding in dental records management?
1) To enhance the aesthetic appeal of records
2) To simplify the organization and retrieval of files
3) To indicate the financial status of patients
4) To differentiate between various dental procedures
Color coding can help in quickly identifying and organizing patient files, making retrieval more efficient.
What is the typical microorganism found in localized aggressive periodontitis?
1) Porphyromonas gingivalis.
2) Fusobacterium nucleatum.
3) Aggregatobacter actinomycetemcomitans.
4) Prevotella intermedia.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Aggregatobacter actinomycetemcomitans is frequently associated with localized aggressive periodontitis, contributing to the rapid destruction of periodontal tissues.
The main excitatory neuro transmitter in CNS is
1) Glycine
2) Acetyl choline
3) Aspartate
4) Glutamate
The chemical compound acetylcholine (ACh) is a neurotransmitter in both the peripheral nervous system (PNS)and central nervous system (CNS) in many organisms including humans.
What suture material is recommended for lip trauma and oroantral fistula?
1) Chromic gut
2) Black silk
3) Vicryl
4) Nylon
Black silk is often used for suturing lip trauma and oroantral fistulas due to its strength and ease of handling.
Ranitidine belongs to the class of medications?
1) Proton pump inhibitor
2) Selective H2 receptor antagonist
3) Antacid
4) Antibiotic
Ranitidine belongs to the class of medications known as H2-receptor antagonists. These drugs work by blocking the action of histamine on the parietal cells in the stomach, which reduces the production of gastric acid. They are commonly used to treat conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), peptic ulcers, and other conditions where a reduction in stomach acid is beneficial.
Strength and hardness of a gypsum model or cast are affected by water-powder ratio and porosity of cast
A 22-year-old woman has acute gingival hypertrophy, spontaneous bleeding from the gingiva, and complains of weakness and anorexia. Her blood analysis was as follows: HB=12gm, Neutrophils=90%, Monocytes=1%, Platelets=250000, WBC=100000, Lymphocytes=9%, Eosinophils=0%. The most likely diagnosis is:
1) Myelogenous leukemia
2) Infectious mononucleosis /glandular fever/
3) Thrombocytopenic purpura
4) Gingivitis of local etiological origin
ADC Test Answer: 1
The elevated white blood cell count (WBC=100000) and neutrophils (90%), along with gingival hypertrophy, suggest myelogenous leukemia, which is characterized by abnormal proliferation of myeloid cells.
Koplik's spots are seen in the oral cavity of patients with
1) chickenpox.
2) mumps.
3) measles.
4) scarlet fever.
E. smallpox.
Koplik's spots are small, white spots found on the mucous
membranes of the cheeks in the early stages of measles. These spots are
pathognomonic for the disease and typically appear before the rash. They are not
associated with the other conditions listed: chickenpox, mumps, or scarlet
fever.
Which of the sugar is least cariogenic:
1) Sucrose
2)
Glucosebr
3)
Xylitol
4)
Lactose
Xylitol is the least cariogenic sugar because it cannot be metabolized by the bacteria in the mouth, unlike glucose, sucrose, and lactose. This means that xylitol does not contribute to tooth decay as much as the other sugars do.
What is the primary function of the palatal cusp of a premolar?
1) Incisal guidance.
2) Lateral support.
3) Anterior guidance.
4) Posterior guidance.
ADC Test Answer: 4
The palatal cusp of a premolar primarily serves as a guide for the opposing molar during lateral excursive movements, providing posterior guidance in the occlusion.
Which of the fibers attached to cementum are most likely to contribute to relapse of tooth rotation:
1) Gingival group of fibers
2) Apical fibers
3) Horizontal fibers
4) Oblique fibers
SOLUTION Gingival group of fibers
Principal fibers of the periodontal ligament rearranges themselves quite rapidly to the position in about 4 weeks.The supra-alveolar gingival fiber take as much as 40 weeks to rearrange around the new position and thus predispose to relapse.
What is the recommended position for a pregnant patient during oral surgery to avoid pressure on the inferior vena cava?
1) Supine position
2) Semi-reclined position
3) Sitting position
4) Left lateral position
The patient should be placed in the left lateral position to reduce pressure on the inferior vena cava and ensure adequate venous return, preventing hypotension.
What is the primary cause of suppuration in periodontal disease?
1) Presence of lymphocytes
2) Collection of neutrophils
3) Necrosis
4) Accumulation of tissue fluid
Suppuration is primarily due to the accumulation of neutrophils at the site of infection, which leads to the formation of pus.
What type of crown is placed after a Nayyar core technique?
1) Porcelain-fused-to-metal crown
2) Amalgam crown
3) All-ceramic crown
4) Gold crown
The Nayyar core technique is often followed by placing an amalgam crown due to its strength and durability.
Shortest duration local anaesthetic is:
1) Chloroprocaine
2) Bupivacaine
3) Lignocaine
4) Procaine
Shortest duration local anaesthetic is chloroprocaine with duration of effect only 15-30 minutes.
In which stages of tooth development does the enamel organ form?
1) Bud stage
2) Cap stage
3) Bell stage
4) All of the above
The enamel organ develops through different stages of tooth development, including the bud, cap, and bell stages, contributing to tooth enamel formation.
What treatment is indicated for severe cases of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)?
1) Increased platelet count
2) Supportive care and treating underlying causes
3) Administration of antibiotics
4) Hormonal therapy
Management of severe cases of DIC involves supportive care and addressing the underlying condition that has triggered the coagulopathy.
The thoracic duct is located in the:
1) Anterior mediastinum
2) Posterior mediastinum
3) Middle mediastinum
4) Lateral mediastinum
The thoracic duct lies in the posterior mediastinum, between the descending thoracic aorta and the azygos vein.
The administration of penicillin G along with probenacid results in 1. increased excretion of probenacid in the feces and perspiration 2. increased excretion of probenacid in urine 3. increased metabolism of penicillin G 4. decreased renal excretion of penicillin G
Pharmacology Answer: 4The administration of penicillin G along with probenacid results in decreased renal excretion of penicillin G
When a dentist suspects elder abuse, what is the first step they should take?
1) Confront the caregiver about the suspicion
2) Report the suspicion to the patient's family
3) Report the suspicion to the local Adult Protective Services (APS) agency
4) Treat the patient's dental issues without further action
The first step in suspected elder abuse is to report the concern to Adult Protective Services.
Approximately 3 hours following a well-balanced meal, blood levels of which of the following are elevated?
1) Fatty acids
2) Glucagon
3) Glycerol
4) Chylomicrons
Following digestion, the products of digestion enter the bloodstream.
These include glucose, amino acids, triacylglycerides packaged into chylomicrons from the intestine, and very low density lipoproteins from the liver.
The hormone of anabolism, insulin, is also elevated because of the signaling of the glucose and amino acids in the blood, which allows release of insulin from the β-cells of the pancreas.
What antibiotic is commonly prescribed for chronic sinusitis?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Doxycycline
3) Azithromycin
4) Ciprofloxacin
Doxycycline is often used to treat chronic sinusitis due to its effectiveness against a range of bacteria that can cause sinus infections.
Which of the following is NOT an indication for sealants?
1) Questionable or confirmed enamel caries
2) Presence of deep pits/fissure
3) Proximal caries
4) Increased risk for caries
Sealants are indicated for questionable or confirmed enamel caries, presence of deep pits/fissure, and increased risk for caries. Proximal caries are not an indication for sealants.
Which of the following is a loop diuretic used to manage hypertension?
1) Amiloride
2) Furosemide
3) Chlorothiazide
4) Spironolactone
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine output, thereby lowering blood pressure.
Which of the following action is ascribed to delta type of opioid receptors?
1) Supraspinal analgesis
2) Respiratory depression
3) Euphoria
4) Reduced intestinal motility
Functions of delta type opioid receptors are: supraspinal analgesia
spinal analgesia
modulation of hormone and neurotransmitter release
What is the most common site for oral cancer within the mouth?
1) Hard palate
2) Lateral borders of the tongue
3) Floor of the mouth
4) Buccal mucosa
The lateral borders of the tongue are the most frequently affected site for oral cancer, particularly in the context of squamous cell carcinoma.
What is the main disadvantage of using nitrous oxide for anxious patients with respiratory issues?
1) It can cause respiratory depression
2) It can increase the risk of infection
3) It is less effective in controlling pain
4) It requires additional monitoring equipment
Nitrous oxide can cause respiratory depression in patients with compromised lung function, making it a less suitable option for those with respiratory issues.
Which of the following is NOT an ethical consideration in the management of a
patient with HIV/AIDS?
1) Confidentiality
2) Duty to treat
3) Patient autonomy
4) Patient's right to know their dentist's HIV status
The ethical considerations in managing patients with HIV/AIDS
include maintaining confidentiality, upholding the duty to treat, and respecting
patient autonomy. It is not an ethical requirement for dentists to disclose
their own HIV status to patients as long as they follow infection control
protocols and do not pose a risk of transmission.
what %age of NaF is used in iontophoresis:
1.1%
2.2%
3.3%
4.4%
2% NaF is used in iontophoresis. This fluoride treatments brings about granular precipitation in dentinal tubules and reduces tubular diameter.
Unilateral numbness of the chin is associated with
1) malignancy.
2) Bell's palsy.
3) apical abscess.
4) trigeminal neuralgia
Numb chin syndrome occurs due to pressure on the mental nerve, often caused by
metastatic malignancies such as breast or lung cancer.
It serves as a potential warning sign of cancer progression.
What is the primary function of an apex elevator?
1) To remove the tooth root apex
2) To luxate the tooth
3) To expand the tooth socket
4) To remove bone around the tooth apex
An apex elevator is used to remove bone or soft tissue obstructing the tooth apex, facilitating extraction.
What is the GDC guideline for recording patient consent?
- Verbal consent is sufficient if witnessed by a dental nurse
- Consent must be recorded in the patient's own words
- Written consent is mandatory for all treatments
- Consent must be obtained before every appointment
The GDC guideline emphasizes that consent should be recorded in the patient's own words to ensure that the patient's understanding and agreement to the treatment plan are clearly documente4) This is a critical aspect of informed consent and patient-centered care.
The canine eminence is 1. associated with the mandibular canine only 2. the labial ridge on the crown of canine 3. an osseous structure surrounding the root of a canine on the facial aspect 4. the prominent ridge on the lingual surface of a maxillary canine
Dental Anatomy Answer: 3The canine eminence is an osseous structure surrounding the root of a canine on the facial aspect
The most significant finding in clinical evaluation of a parotid mass may be accompanying:
1) Lymphadenopathy
2) Nodular consistency
3) Facial paralysis
4) Slow progressive enlargement
ADC Test Answer: 3
Facial paralysis can indicate a serious underlying condition, such as a tumor affecting the facial nerve, making it a significant finding in parotid mass evaluation.
What is the most common way dental unit waterlines become contaminated?
1) By patients' saliva
2) By bacterial growth in waterlines
3) By backflow from the public water supply
4) By cleaning and disinfecting solutions
Dental unit waterlines can become contaminated with bacteria if
they are not regularly maintained and disinfected, leading to potential
infection risks during dental procedures.
Before filling a Class V abrasion cavity with GIC (Glass Ionomer Cement) you should:
1) Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water, and weak acid
2) Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything
3) Acid etch cavity then dry thoroughly
4) Rinse the cavity with saline
ADC Test Answer: 1
The purpose of using pumice and a rubber cup is to clean the cavity without excessively drying it, which is important as GIC is moisture-loving.
What antibiotic is used to manage a superinfected herpetic lip lesion?
1) Ciprofloxacin
2) Metronidazole
3) Cefuroxime
4) Amoxicillin
Metronidazole is effective against anaerobic bacteria and is often used for superinfected lesions, including herpetic lesions.
What is the purpose of a pre-operative visit for an anxious patient?
1) To administer sedatives
2) To discuss and explain the treatment plan in detail
3) To perform a thorough medical evaluation
4) To complete financial paperwork
A pre-operative visit allows the dentist to build trust, answer questions, and prepare the patient mentally for the upcoming procedure, which can significantly reduce anxiety.
A patient experiences pain after an extraction. Which analgesic should be used?
1) Acetaminophen
2) NSAID
3) Opioid
4) Aspirin
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are effective for managing pain and inflammation following dental extractions.
Which immunoglobulin is responsible for providing passive immunity from the mother to the fetus?
1) IgA
2) IgM
3) IgD
4) IgG
IgG is the immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta and provides passive immunity to the fetus, offering protection against infections during the early stages of life.
Baker anchorage utilizes
1) Intermaxillary anchorage with screws
2) Intramaxillary anchorage with screws
3) Intermaxillary anchorage with elastics
4) Intramaxillary anchorage with elastics
SOLUTION Intermaxillary anchorage or Baker's Anchorage.
Intramaxillary anchorage is also used in the form of E-chain, when elastics are used from the back molar teeth to the front teeth in the same jaw to move teeth back of the mouth.
An overjet of 8mm is usually associated with:
1) Angle Class I cuspid relationship.
2) Angle Class II cuspid relationship.
3) Angle Class III cuspid relationship.
4) Angle Class I molar relationship.
Orthodontics Answer: 2Excessive overjet is a hallmark of Angle Class II occlusion due to mandibular retrusion or maxillary protrusion, leading to an increased horizontal distance between the arches.
The oral lesion of warty dsykeratoma is described as a small whitish area of the mucosa with a central depression
Who checks if there is a written protocol for radiation protection in the clinic?
1) The dentist
2) The radiation protection supervisor
3) The clinic manager
4) The health and safety officer
The radiation protection supervisor is responsible for ensuring that protocols are in place and adhered to for the safety of both patients and staff.
How much force is usually used to move a tooth with an orthodontic appliance?
- extremely light force, less than 1 gram
- moderate force, in the range of 50 to 150 grams
- very heavy force, greater than 500 grams
- whatever the patient can tolerate
moderate force, in the range of 50 to 150 grams
What is the primary concern when administering local anesthesia to a patient with a bleeding disorder?
1) Increased pain sensitivity
2) Prolonged bleeding from the injection site
3) Inability to achieve adequate anesthesia
4) Higher risk of infection
Patients with bleeding disorders, such as hemophilia, may have difficulty controlling bleeding, even from minor procedures like local anesthetic injections.
Which condition is often associated with an increased risk for periodontal disease?
1) Down syndrome
2) Asthma
3) Hypertension
4) Diabetes
Individuals with Down syndrome have an increased risk of periodontal disease due to factors like hypotonia, which can complicate oral hygiene practices.
The most mineralized part of the dentin is:
1) Peritubular dentin
2) Intertubular dentin
3) Primary dentin
4) Secondary dentin
ADC Test Answer: 1
Peritubular dentin is highly mineralized and surrounds the dentinal tubules, contributing significantly to the strength of the dentin.
What is the main function of glucosyltransferase (GTF) produced by S. mutans?
1) It breaks down bacterial cell walls.
2) It converts sucrose into polysaccharides.
3) It neutralizes acids in saliva.
4) It promotes remineralization.
GTF converts sucrose into extracellular polysaccharides, aiding bacterial adherence to tooth surfaces.
A dental patient on clonidine therapy for hypertension most often complains of
1) Xerostomia
2) Frequent visit to the bathroom
3) Restlessness
4) Postural hypertension
Clonidine cause significant CNS depression and xerostomia
What is a common consequence of prolonged exposure to loud noises in a dental office? 1) Increased risk of infection 2) Hearing loss 3) Skin irritation 4) Respiratory issues
Occupational Hazards Answer: 2Prolonged exposure to loud noises from dental equipment can lead to noise-induced hearing loss, making it important to use hearing protection when necessary.
The retention pin in an amalgam restoration should be placed:
1) Parallel to the outer wall
2) Parallel to the long axis of the tooth
3) Perpendicular to the occlusal plane
4) Diagonal to the preparation
ADC Test Answer: 1
When placing a retention pin in an amalgam restoration, it should be oriented parallel to the outer walls for optimal retention and to avoid weakening the tooth structure.
What percentage of children suffer from dental trauma?
1) 5% at age 8
2) 11% at age 12
3) 13% at age 15
4) All of the above
The percentages of children suffering from dental trauma increase with age, with 5% at age 8, 11% at age 12, and 13% at age 15.
In concentrations usually applied for sterilization purposes, ethylene oxide is preferable to formaldehyde becuase it is more penetrating
A 16-year-old patient presents with bleeding gums and a bad smell. Which antibiotic should be prescribed?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Metronidazole
3) Clindamycin
4) Tetracycline
Metronidazole is effective against anaerobic bacteria, which are often involved in gingivitis and periodontitis, making it suitable for treating this patient's condition.
What is the primary treatment for syncope during a dental procedure?
1) Administering fluids intravenously
2) Placing the patient in the supine position
3) Inhalation of ammonia salts
4) Giving oxygen
Laying the patient flat with their legs elevated helps increase blood flow to the brain and restore consciousness.
What percentage of older adults in nursing homes exhibit untreated dental
caries?
1) 10-20%
2) 30-40%
3) 50-60%
4) 70-90%
Studies show that a significant proportion of elderly residents in
nursing homes have untreated dental caries, often due to inadequate access to
dental care.
The fibres of Purkinje?
1. Are remains of embryonic cardiac muscle fibres
2. Are placed over the pericardium
3. Arise from the sinu-arterial noded a and b both
4. a and b both
These form specialized fibres of the heart and are supposed to be terminal filaments of bundle of His.
Morphine withdrawal is characterized by all except
1) Miosis
2) Yawning
3) Lacrimation
4) Diarrhea
Withdrawal of morphine is associated with marked drug-seeking behavior.
Physical manifestations of abstinence are - lacrimation, sweating, yawning, anxiety, fear, restlessness, gooseflesh, mydriasis, tremor, insomnia, abdominal colic, diarrhea, dehydration, rise in BP, palpitation and rapid weight loss.
Delirium and convulsions are not a characteristic feature (contrast barbiturates) and are seen only occasionally.
Cardi-ovascular collapse and fatality are rare if supportive measures are instituted.
The manufacturer’s maximum recommended number of 1.8ml cartridges of 3%
mepivacaine that may be safely administered to a 65kg adult is
1) 5.
2) 6.
3) 7.
4) 8.
Based on the maximum dose of 6.6 mg/kg, 7 cartridges are within the safe limit for a 65kg adult.
IN HEALTH EDUCATION PROGRAMME a group of 10 ppl r planning to speak on a topic of common interest. Which is the best ed. Approach
1.panel discussion
2.symposium
3.group discussion
4.workshop
Group discussion because participants get chances to express thier views Idea panel discussion : 4-8 people talk abt a topic in front of large group. symposium:series of speeches on a selected subject, no discussion. group discussion :considered a very effective method of health edu if the group consists of not less than 6 and not more than 20 persons. workshop:usually lasts for few days wher people get together and work in different groups and discuss problem of concern it can be called a problem solving method.
The location and extent of subgingival calculus is most accurately determined clinically by:
1) Radiopaque solution used in conjunction with radiographs.
2) Disclosing solution.
3) Probing with a fine instrument.
4) Visual inspection.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Probing with a fine instrument allows for the direct evaluation of the periodontal pockets and can provide information about the presence and extent of subgingival calculus.
Which component of a partial denture framework provides the best indirect retention?
1) Rest.
2) Circumferential clasp.
3) Lingual strap.
4) Proximal plate.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1Rests prevent rotational forces around the fulcrum line, contributing to effective indirect retention. They stabilize the framework and minimize dislodgement.
Which of the following is a common challenge in providing dental care to patients with Alzheimer's disease?
1) Difficulty in understanding and following instructions
2) Increased tolerance for pain and discomfort
3) Enhanced manual dexterity for oral hygiene
4) Decreased sensitivity to taste and smell
Alzheimer's disease is characterized by cognitive impairment, which can make it challenging for patients to follow complex instructions or remember to perform oral hygiene tasks.
The junction between primary and secondary dentine is:
1) A reversal line
2) Sharp curvature
3) A resting line
4) A reduction in the number of tubules
ADC Test Answer: 2
The relationship between primary and secondary dentine is characterized by a sharp transition in the curvature of dentinal tubules as changes in odontoblast activity occur post-eruption.
What is the role of saliva in the oral cavity?
1) Lubrication of food
2) Protection against bacteria
3) pH buffering
4) All of the above
Saliva plays multiple roles in the oral cavity, including lubrication, antimicrobial action, and buffering of pH, which helps maintain oral health.
The following prevent re-uptake of noradrenaline
1) isoprenaline
2) dopamine
3) clomipramine
4) propranolol
Is a TCA- block neuronal uptake of noradrenaline and serotonin.
The air-water spray used as a coolant in high speed cutting of a cavity will
1. Decrease pulp damage.
2. Reduce frictional heat.
3. Keep the operating site clean.
4. Reduce clogging of cutting instruments.
1) (1) (2) (3)
2) (1) and (3)
33) (2) and (4)
4) All of the above.
The air-water spray serves multiple purposes during dental procedures:
- Decrease pulp damage: By cooling the tooth structure, it helps prevent thermal injury to the pulp.
- Reduce frictional heat: The spray minimizes heat generated by the cutting instrument.
- Keep the operating site clean: The spray helps wash away debris and blood, providing better visibility.
- Reduce clogging of cutting instruments: It helps to clear debris from the cutting surface, maintaining instrument efficiency.
Which of the accompanying is NOT an intermediate acting muscle relaxant?
1) Cisatracurium
2) Rocuronium
3) Mivacurium
4) Vecuronium
Mivacurium is a short-acting muscle relaxant, whereas Cisatracurium, Rocuronium, and Vecuronium are intermediate-acting.
A positive and prolonged reaction to a heat stimulus indicates that the pulp is
1) necrotic
2) in an early hyperemic state.
3) normal.
4) irreversibly damaged
A positive and prolonged reaction to a heat stimulus typically indicates that the pulp is irreversibly damaged. This prolonged response suggests that the nerve fibers are still responding to the stimulus, but the damage is significant enough that the pulp is not capable of healing, indicating a need for endodontic treatment.
What is the primary ethical concern when a dentist has a conflict of interest?
1) Maintaining personal financial gains
2) Preserving professional reputation
3) Ensuring patient's welfare and trust
4) Fulfilling the duty to provide the best possible treatment
Ensuring patient's welfare and trust
Explanation: When a dentist has a conflict of interest, the primary ethical
concern is the potential for the conflict to compromise the patient's welfare
and trust. It is essential to manage conflicts of interest to ensure that the
dentist's decisions are based solely on the patient's best interests.
Endodontic therapy is CONTRAINDICATED in teeth with
1) inadequate periodontal support.
2) pulp stones.
3) constricted root canals.
4) accessory canals.
Endodontic therapy is contraindicated in teeth with inadequate periodontal support because the success of the treatment relies on the health of the surrounding periodontal tissues. If the periodontal support is compromised, the tooth may not be able to withstand the forces of occlusion, leading to failure of the endodontic treatment.
What is the main purpose of using chlorhexidine mouth rinse in dentistry?
1) To promote tooth whitening
2) To reduce plaque and gingivitis
3) To provide pain relief
4) To replace fluoride treatments
Chlorhexidine mouth rinses are primarily used in dentistry for their efficacy in reducing plaque accumulation and gingivitis.
A 58-year-old male presents complaining of sharp pain lasting 30 minutes in his upper left molar region. This pain is elicited by cold stimuli. What is the most likely cause of the pain?
1) Acute/reversible pulpitis
2) Dentin sensitivity
3) Chronic/irreversible pulpitis
4) Periapical periodontitis
The sharp pain triggered by cold that persists post-stimulation indicates that the pulp is most likely irreversibly inflamed.
Which of the following is not an intravenous anaesthetic agent?
- Cyclopropane
- Barbiturates
- Propofol
- Etomidate
Cyclopropane is not an intravenous anaesthetic agent.
Which investigation is most commonly used to rule out aspiration in mandibular fracture patients with missing teeth? 1) Chest X-ray 2) Orthopantomogram 3) PA mandible 4) CT scan
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 1A chest X-ray is commonly performed when missing teeth or denture fragments cannot be accounted for in a mandibular fracture patient. This helps to rule out aspiration of foreign bodies.
The mucosa of the hard palate is?
1) Non-keratinised and lacks submucosa and minor salivary glands.
2) Non-keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posteromedially
3) Keratinised and lacks submucosa and minor salivary glands.
4) Keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posterolaterally
The correct answer is "keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posterolaterally." The hard palate is the bony structure that forms the roof of the mouth.
What factor is most important to reduce dental irradiation risk?
1) Speed of the film
2) Rectangular collimation
3) Type of x-ray machine
4) Patient shielding
Using rectangular collimation significantly reduces the amount of radiation exposure by limiting the x-ray beam to the area of interest.
Can informed consent be obtained from a patient who is under the influence of
sedation?
1) Yes, as long as the patient can still communicate their wishes
2) No, sedation impairs the patient's ability to understand and make decisions
3) Yes, because the patient's consent was obtained before administration of
sedation
4) It depends on the type and level of sedation
Informed consent must be obtained when the patient is fully conscious and has the mental capacity to comprehend the information provide4) If sedation affects the patient's ability to make informed decisions, consent should be obtained before administration.
Which of the following is NOT an indication for a pulpotomy?
1) Primary teeth with carious pulpal exposure.
2) Presence of deep pits/fissure.
3) Extensive loss of tooth structure in primary molars.
4) Questionable or confirmed enamel caries.
A pulpotomy is not indicated for questionable or confirmed enamel caries.
Which items should be disposed of in a sharps container?
1) Used gloves
2) Wedges
3) Cotton rolls
4) Plastic syringes
Items like wedges and silicone syringe tips can puncture typical waste bags and must be disposed of in a sharps container to prevent injury and contamination.
What is the retention period for dental records according to most dental boards?
1) 2 years
2) 5 years
3) 10 years
4) Varies by country/state
The retention period for dental records is typically dictated by each country's or state's dental board.
Glycolysis occurs in: 1. Cytoplasm 2. Mitochondrion 3. Both In cytoplasm and mitochondria 4. Only in presence of O2
Biochemistry Answer: 1Glycolysis occurs in Cytoplasm
In which type of mandibular fracture is there commonly associated bilateral condyle fractures? 1) Coronoid fracture 2) Parasymphysis fracture 3) Guardsman’s fracture 4) Ramus fracture
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 3A Guardsman’s fracture involves a true symphyseal fracture in combination with bilateral condyle fractures, typically resulting from a fall onto the chin, driving the condyles into their fossae.
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors are useful in the management of ?
1) Acute myeloid leukemia
2) Small cell carcinoma of lung
3) Gastrointestinal stromal tumors
4) Neurofibromatosis
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors are used in the treatment of: Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia ( philadelphia chromosome positive cases )
Head and neck malignancies
Non small cell carcinoma lung
Gastrointestinal stromal tumours
Hepatocellular cancer
Renal cell carcinoma
Pancreatic cancer
Colorectal cancer
What fluoride treatment is recommended for a child with a high caries rate?
1) 2,800 ppm toothpaste
2) 5,000 ppm toothpaste
3) Application of 2.2% Duraphat 2 times yearly
4) Application of 2.2% Duraphat 3-4 times yearly
For children with a high caries rate, more frequent applications of fluoride varnish like Duraphat are recommended to provide additional protection.
For a tooth (84) with deeper caries, the recommended treatment would be:
1) Indirect pulp capping and restoration
2) Pulpotomy and restoration
3) Pulpectomy and restoration
4) Extraction
ADC Test Answer: 3
Due to the depth of decay, a pulpectomy is indicated to remove all affected pulp tissue and disinfect the canal.
Drug class causing free water clearance:
a) Diuretic
b) Saluretic
c) Uricosuric
d) Aquaretic
Vasopressin antagonists like tolvaptan are aquaretics
Basal cell carcinoma is characterized by:
1) Rapid growth and metastasis
2) Local cutaneous invasion
3) Inability to invade bone
4) Poor prognosis
ADC Test Answer: 2
Basal cell carcinoma typically exhibits local invasion but rarely metastasizes, making it generally treatable with a good prognosis.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors reduce blood pressure by:
1) Increasing heart rate
2) Blocking calcium channels
3) Inhibiting angiotensin II formation
4) Blocking aldosterone receptors
ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, reducing vasoconstriction and lowering blood pressure.
Apart from a dentigerous cyst, which other lesions are associated with the absence of teeth?
1) Adenomatous odontogenic tumor
2) Keratocyst
3) Ameloblastoma
4) All of the above
All these lesions can be associated with the absence of teeth, either due to their developmental nature or their impact on the surrounding structures.
The Nitrate which does not undergo first pass metabolism is:
1) Isosorbide mononitrate
2) Nitroglycerine
3) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
4) Isosorbide dinitrate
In humans, isosorbide mononitrate is not subject to first pass metabolism in the liver.
This reduces the intra- and interindividual variations in plasma evels and leads to predictable and reproducible clinical effects.
What substance is primarily responsible for the re-mineralization process in teeth?
1) Fluoride
2) Calcium
3) Phosphate
4) All of the above
Fluoride, calcium, and phosphate work together to enhance the re-mineralization process in enamel, helping to repair demineralized areas.
Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of Thrombocytopenia secondary to myelosuppressive cancer chemotherapy?
1) Filgrastim
2) Sargramostim
3) Oprelvekin
4) Erythropoietin
Oprelvekin (Interleukin 11) is the only agent approved by the FDA for treatment of thrombocytopenia secondary to myelosuppressive cancer chemotherapy
Filgrastim (G-CSF) and Sargramostim (GM-SCF) are used in the treatment of neutropenia
Erythropoietin is used in treatment of anemia
Which of the following is NOT a consideration when providing care to a patient with a hearing impairment?
1) Communication preferences (e.g., sign language, lip reading)
2) The use of visual cues
3) The patient's ability to understand dental terminology
4) The patient's favorite brand of toothpaste
While the patient's preference for toothpaste can be important for their oral hygiene compliance, it is not a critical consideration in the communication and care provision for a patient with a hearing impairment.
The orthodontic correction of which of the following is most easily retained
1) Anterior cross bite
2) Crowding
3) Diastema
4) Spacing
SOLUTION The key to success is to use an appliance that is both comfortable, easily retained and predictable such as a simple Hawley retainer with recurve springs or a fixed labial-lingual appliance (including a vertical removable arch for ease of adjustment with a recurve spring to jump the cross-bite). Both of these appliances work by tipping the maxillary teeth forward so they are in a normal dental relationship to the mandibular teeth.
Heparin
1) is a glycosaminoglycan
2) potentiates thrombin
3) has a half life of 3-4 hours
4) is normally given IM
GlycosaminoglycAnswer (GAGs) are heteropolysaccharides.
Which two teeth can only be removed by rotation?
1) Maxillary central incisors and mandibular central incisors
2) Maxillary second premolars and mandibular first molars
3) Maxillary central incisors and mandibular second premolars
4) Maxillary first molars and mandibular central incisors
These teeth have single roots and are not multi-rooted, allowing for removal by rotation only.
Informed consent is particularly important in which of the following
scenarios?
1) When the patient is fully aware of their medical condition
2) When the treatment is routine and low-risk
3) When the procedure is invasive and carries significant risks
4) When the patient has a family member present
Informed consent is crucial for invasive procedures that have significant risks to ensure that patients are fully aware and can make informed decisions about their care.
The mesial and distal walls of a Class I amalgam preparation diverge toward the
occlusal surface in order to
1) resist the forces of mastication.
2) provide resistance and retention form.
3) prevent undermining of the marginal ridges.
4) extend the preparation into areas more readily cleansed
This design feature ensures that the remaining tooth structure is supported and not weakened by the preparation, which is crucial for maintaining the integrity of the tooth.
Brinnel hardness number of a dental gold alloy is directly proportional to its:
1) Tensile strength
2) Elongation
3) Modulus of elasticity
4) Modulus of resiLience
Brinnel and Rockwell tests are cLassified as macrohardness tests and they aie not suitable for brittle materials.
The Knoop and Vickers tests are classified as microhardness tests.
The Shore and the Barcot tests are used for measuring the hardness of rubbers and plastics.
The Bnnnel test is the one of oldest tests used for determining the hardness of materials and is directly related to proportional limit and the ultimate tensile strength of dental gold alloys.
The convenience of the Rockwell test, with direct reading of the depth of the indentation, has lead to its wide usage.
The Knoop hardness test is used to obtain the values for both exceedingly hard and soft materials. The hardness value is independent of the ductility of the material.
The Vickers test is employed for dental costing gold alloys. It is suitable for determining the hardness of brittle materials.
Which of the following is most effective mean of health education:
1) Seminar
2)
Lectures
3)
Individual instruction
4)
Group discussion
Individual instruction is the most effective means of health education because it allows for personalized and tailored information to be delivered to individuals. This method ensures that the specific needs and concerns of each person are addressed, leading to better understanding and retention of the information. It also allows for interactive and one-on-one communication between the instructor and the learner, enabling a more engaging and impactful learning experience. Additionally, individual instruction provides a safe space for individuals to ask questions and seek clarification on health-related topics, promoting a deeper understanding and application of the knowledge gained
Which of the following is not a loop diuretic:
1) Fruesmide
2) Torsemide
3) Ethacrynic acid
4) Chlorthalidone
Pharmacology Answer: 4
Chlorthalidone (Thiazide like diuretic)
Which tooth is most commonly associated with dental impaction?
1) Maxillary canine
2) Mandibular first molar
3) Mandibular third molar
4) Maxillary central incisor
The mandibular third molar (wisdom tooth) is the most frequently impacted tooth due to limited space in the dental arch.
What is the danger zone in dental surgery?
1) The area around the maxilla
2) The region of the face where infections could pass to the cavernous sinus
3) The area around the mandible
4) The region of the neck
The danger zone is a triangular area of the face where infections can spread to the cavernous sinus, posing serious health risks.
Instrument which has a 4 digit formulae;
1) angle former
2) hoe
3) hatchet
4) spoon excavator
Since the cutting edge of the angle former is not at a right angle to the blade axis[its usually 80-85deg for angle former
What describes a secondary or auxiliary rest?
1) Integral to the RPD base
2) Provides aesthetic support
3) Used for indirect retention
4) Only located on occlusal surfaces
Auxiliary rests serve as additional support to aid in indirect retention for the RPD.
What is the recommended protocol for handling a needlestick injury in the
dental office?
1) Immediately notify the supervisor and seek medical attention
2) Apply pressure to the wound and wash thoroughly with soap and water
3) Ignore the injury and continue working
4) Apply an antiseptic to the wound and report the incident later
If a needlestick injury occurs, it is crucial to immediately notify the supervisor and seek medical attention. This allows for timely administration of post-exposure prophylaxis and proper management of the potential risk of bloodborne pathogen transmission.
X-ray films have an emulsion on one or both sides of a support material. The emulsion contains particles of:
1) Silver nitrate crystal
2) Metallic silver in gelatine
3) Silver bromide in gelatine
4) Silver nitrate in gelatine
ADC Test Answer: 3
The emulsion on x-ray films is primarily composed of silver bromide crystals suspended in gelatin, which is sensitive to radiation.
The main stimulation for production of A.D.H. is 1. Increase in plasma potassium. 2. Decrease in blood volume 3. Increase in extracellular fluid 4. Decrease inextracellularosmotic pressure
Physiology Answer: 2The main stimulation for production of A.D.H. is Decrease in blood volume - A.D.H. secretion increases during osmotic diuresis
For which of the following is a written consent form NOT typically required?
1) Routine dental fillings
2) Dental radiographs
3) Surgical extraction of a tooth
4) Dental photography for educational purposes
Although the use of radiographs involves some risk, they are
considered part of the diagnostic process and do not typically require written
consent unless the patient specifically refuses them.
What is the minimum recommended level of surface barrier protection for
dental chair surfaces?
1) High-level disinfection
2) Intermediate-level disinfection
3) Low-level disinfection
4) No specific level is required
Intermediate-level disinfection is recommended for non-critical, semi-critical surfaces like dental chair surfaces, which come into contact with intact skin or mucous membranes but not with blood, body fluids, or other potentially infectious materials.
Which of the following anaesthetic has beta blocker action:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Nitrous oxide
Halothane produces l3-blocker like action ie., direct depression of myocardium and bradycardia (negative inotropic and negative chronotropic effect).
Cardiac or central nervous system toxicity may result when standard lidocaine doses are administrated to patient with circulatory failure. This may be due to the following reason:
1) Lidocaine concentration are initially higher in relatively well perfused tissues such as brain and heart
2) Histamine receptors in brain and heart get suddenly activated in circulatory failure
3) There is sudden outburst of release of adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine in brain and heart
4) Lidocaine is converted into toxic metabolite due to longer stay in liver
Lignocaine (as with other lipid soluble anaesthetic agents) initially reaches to well perfused areas like brain and heart so in circulatory failure blood from non vital structures is diverted to vital structures like brain and heart and patient can develop toxic levels.
What is the normal resting flow rate for saliva?
1) 0.1-0.3 ml/min
2) 0.1-0.6 ml/min
3) 0.5-1.0 ml/min
4) 1.0-2.0 ml/min
The normal resting saliva flow rate ranges from 0.1 to 0.6 ml/min, while stimulated saliva can increase to 1-2 ml/min.
In the extended ecological caries hypothesis, what is the primary
factor that influences microbial adaptation and selection in the dental biofilm?
1) The presence of fermentable carbohydrates.
2) Environmental acidification.
3) The host's immune response.
4) The availability of oxygen.
The extended ecological caries hypothesis posits that acidic environments created by dietary sugars and acids are the main drivers for microbial adaptation and selection in the dental biofilm, particularly favoring the growth of aciduric and acidogenic bacteria like mutans streptococci.
Which functional assessment tool is commonly used to evaluate the dental
treatment needs of geriatric patients?
1) Barthel Index
2) Katz Index of Independence in Activities of Daily Living (ADL)
3) Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
4) Geriatric Depression Scale
The Katz Index assesses a patient's ability to perform daily
activities, influencing their capacity to maintain oral hygiene and attend
dental appointments.
What is the most benign tumor among the following options?
1) Kaposi sarcoma
2) Burkitt's lymphoma
3) Adenolymphoma
4) Acinic cell carcinoma
Adenolymphoma, also known as Warthin’s tumor, is a benign glandular tumor typically found in the parotid gland, characterized by two layers of eosinophilic epithelial cells.
Hyperuricemia in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is due to a defect in which of the following pathways?
1) Purine biosynthesis
2) Pyrimidine biosynthesis
3) Purine salvage
4) Pyrimidine salvage
Uric acid is a purine derivative, increased by purine salvage reactions that convert purines, purine ribonucleosides, and purine deoxyribonucleoside to mononucleotides (incorrect answer 4).
Such salvage reactions require much less energy than de novo synthesis (incorrect answers 1, 2).
A defect in hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase, one of the enzymes of purine salvage, is responsible for purine overproduction and subsequent hyperuricemia observed in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
What is the appropriate management when treating patients on long-term corticosteroids for dental procedures?
1) Increase antibiotics
2) Increase corticosteroid dose
3) Avoid treatment
4) Normal treatment without modifications
Patients on long-term corticosteroids may have adrenal suppression, necessitating an increased dose of corticosteroids prior to dental treatment to prevent adrenal crisis.
On replantation of an avulsed tooth, which type of resorption is most commonly observed
1) Surface resorption / External resorption
2) Internal resorption
3) Inflammatory resorption
4) Replacement resorption
ADC Test Answer: 4
After replantation of an avulsed tooth, the periodontal ligament cells are often damaged. When these cells fail to regenerate properly, the root surface fuses directly with alveolar bone. This leads to replacement resorption (ankylosis), where the tooth structure is gradually substituted by bone.
What is a key responsibility of dental professionals regarding patient records?
1) To alter records as needed
2) To ensure records are legible and accurate
3) To keep records confidential from all staff
4) To share records freely with anyone
Dental professionals must maintain the integrity and accuracy of patient records to ensure quality care and legal compliance.
The function of 2% potassium sulphate in a gypsum product is
1) to regulate the setting expansion.
2) to regulate the setting time.
3) to act as a retarder.
4) none of the above.
Sodium chloride is an accelerator up to about 2% of the hemihydrates, but at a higher concentration, it acts as a retarder. Sodium sulphate has its maximum acceleration effect at approximately 3.4%; at greater concentrations, it becomes a retarder.
The most commonly used accelerator is potassium sulphate.
particles act as nuclei of crystallization.
Citrates. acetates and borates generally retard the reaction.
What is the most frequent site of endocarditis?
1) Aortic valve
2) Mitral valve
3) Tricuspid valve
4) Pulmonary valve
Endocarditis most commonly affects the mitral valve, especially in patients without a history of intravenous drug use.