Dentist Abroad
Which of the following is a crucial step in the pulpotomy procedure?
1) Directly place IRM after pulpal amputation.
2) Amputation of the coronal pulp with a bur.
3) Use a rubber dam to isolate the tooth.
4) Immediate placement of a stainless steel crown.
A rubber dam is essential for isolating the tooth during pulpotomy, ensuring a clean and sterile field.
What must a healthcare provider ensure about a patient before obtaining
informed consent?
1) The patient is of legal age
2) The patient has a high level of education
3) The patient is capable of understanding the information provided
4) The patient has a family member present
It is crucial that the patient has the capacity to understand the information related to their treatment to give valid consent.
What is the primary cause of enamel hypoplasia?
1) Genetic factors
2) Nutritional deficiencies
3) Environmental factors
4) All of the above
Enamel hypoplasia can result from a combination of genetic, nutritional, and environmental factors affecting tooth development.
You wish to purchase a dental X-ray machine and have the choice between 60kVp and 70kVp machines. With a single change from 60kVp to 70kVp, what would the approximate effect on exposure time be?
1) No effect
2) Half the time
3) Double
4) Quarter
ADC Test Answer: 2
Increasing the kilovoltage (kVp) increases the energy of the x-rays, which increases the penetrating power and film blackening.
What hormone increases blood glucose and decreases potassium?
1) Insulin
2) Cortisol
3) Glucagon
4) Adrenaline
Cortisol increases blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreases serum potassium levels by enhancing renal excretion.
Diffusion hypoxia is caused by:
1) Ether
2) Halothane
3) N2O
4) Trielene
Nitrous oxide (N2O) can cause diffusion hypoxia when its delivery is stopped, as it displaces oxygen in the alveoli.
What legislation gives patients the right to access their dental records?
- General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
- Data Protection Act 2018
- Access to Health Records Act 1990
- All of the above
The Access to Health Records Act 1990 gives patients, or their representatives in the case of a deceased patient, the right to access their healthcare records, including dental records.
What is the most common occupational health problem among dentists?
1) Tinnitus
2) Musculoskeletal pain
3) Hypertension
4) Hearing loss
According to the study conducted among dentists in southern Thailand, musculoskeletal pain was the most common occupational health problem, with 78% of the dentists reporting it.
Which clinical sign might indicate the need for a referral to a physician
or specialist when treating a geriatric patient?
1) Mild tooth sensitivity
2) History of hypertension
3) Postural issues
4) Uncontrolled diabetes
Uncontrolled diabetes can lead to complications that affect
dental treatment, making it essential to refer the patient for medical
management.
The biochemical defect in Osteogenesis Imperfecta, type II is: 1. a mutation in the alpha 1 chain of Type I collagen. 2. a deficiency in collagenase. 3. a deficiency in lysyl oxidase. 4. a deficiency in lysyl hydroxylase.
Biochemistry Answer: 4The biochemical defect in Osteogenesis Imperfecta, type II is a deficiency in lysyl hydroxylase.
Ante’s Law states that:
1) The pericemental area of the abutment teeth must exceed that of the replaced tooth
2) The abutments must be anatomically similar to the replaced tooth
3) The root length of abutments should be equal to the replaced tooth
4) There should be no mobility in abutment teeth
ADC Test Answer: 1
Ante's Law asserts that the combined periodontal support of the abutment teeth must be greater than that of the teeth being replaced to ensure stability.
What is the best way to ensure that dental records are legible and permanent?
- Use pencil to write notes
- Use erasable ink for charting
- Use a computer with password-protected access
- Write notes on sticky pads and attach them to the patient's file
Electronic records are typically more legible and permanent than handwritten notes, especially when access is controlled and regular backups are performed.
What is the effect on local anesthetic when used with sodium
bicarbonate ?
1 Increases speed and quality of anaestheisa
2 Decreases diffusion of the anaesthetic drug
3 Causes rapid elimination of the local anaesthetic
4 Decreases speed and quality of anaesthesia
The speed of onset of Anaesthesia is raised by Sodium bicarbonate and further
enhances its quality by elevating the intensity and duration of block.
Tongue is protruded by Genioglossus
The permanent anterior tooth most often missing congenitally is the 1. maxillary central incisor 2. mandibular central incisors 3. mandibular lateral incisors 4. maxillary lateral incisors
Dental Anatomy Answer: 4lateral incisor is most often missing congenitally
The principle of justice in healthcare ethics refers to:
1) The obligation to tell the truth
2) Fair distribution of healthcare resources
3) The duty to act in the best interest of the patient
4) Respecting the patient's wishes
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 2Justice involves ensuring that patients receive fair and equitable access to healthcare resources and services, regardless of their background.
What is the danger zone in dental surgery?
1) The area around the maxilla
2) The region of the face where infections could pass to the cavernous sinus
3) The area around the mandible
4) The region of the neck
The danger zone is a triangular area of the face where infections can spread to the cavernous sinus, posing serious health risks.
You are interested in finding out what the risk indicators are for a rare form of oral cancer. What type of study would be the most appropriate for addressing this issue?
1) Cohort
2) Prevalence study
3) Clinical trial
4) Case-control study
A case-control study is ideal for investigating risk factors for rare diseases, as it compares individuals with the disease to those without.
What neurotransmitter is responsible for closing pre-capillary sphincters?
1) Acetylcholine
2) Serotonin
3) Nor-adrenaline
4) Substance P
Nor-adrenaline is responsible for vasoconstriction and can close pre-capillary sphincters, regulating blood flow.
What does Stephan's curve primarily represent?
1) Change in pH of saliva over time
2) Change in pH of plaque over time
3) Change in pH of saliva with sugar intake
4) Change in pH of blood with exercise
Stephan's curve illustrates how the pH of dental plaque changes over time following sugar intake.
In an Angle Class I occlusion, the:
1) Distal inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the mesial inclined plane of the mandibular canine.
2) Mesial inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the distal inclined plane of the mandibular canine.
3) The primary canines are end-to-end.
4) The permanent canines are end-to-end.
This articulation pattern reflects the normal occlusal relationship in Angle Class I, ensuring proper alignment and functional harmony of the dentition.
Supracrestal fibrotomy is done after correction of:
1) Crowding
2) Proclined incisors
3) Severely rotated teeth
4) Space closure
Solution Circumferential supracrestal fibrotomy (CSF) eliminates the pull of the stretched supracrestal gingival fibres which are the major cause of orthodontic relapse.
Which of the following anaesthetic has beta blocker action:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Nitrous oxide
Halothane produces l3-blocker like action ie., direct depression of myocardium and bradycardia (negative inotropic and negative chronotropic effect).
The air-water spray used as a coolant in high speed cutting of a cavity will
1. Decrease pulp damage.
2. Reduce frictional heat.
3. Keep the operating site clean.
4. Reduce clogging of cutting instruments.
1) (1) (2) (3)
2) (1) and (3)
33) (2) and (4)
4) All of the above.
The air-water spray serves multiple purposes during dental procedures:
- Decrease pulp damage: By cooling the tooth structure, it helps prevent thermal injury to the pulp.
- Reduce frictional heat: The spray minimizes heat generated by the cutting instrument.
- Keep the operating site clean: The spray helps wash away debris and blood, providing better visibility.
- Reduce clogging of cutting instruments: It helps to clear debris from the cutting surface, maintaining instrument efficiency.
Who checks if there is a written protocol for radiation protection in the clinic?
1) The dentist
2) The radiation protection supervisor
3) The clinic manager
4) The health and safety officer
The radiation protection supervisor is responsible for ensuring that protocols are in place and adhered to for the safety of both patients and staff.
Beta-blockers reduce blood pressure primarily by:
1) Blocking angiotensin II receptors
2) Reducing heart rate and cardiac output
3) Increasing diuresis
4) Vasodilation
Beta-blockers lower blood pressure by decreasing heart rate and the force of contraction, which reduces cardiac output.
What is the depth of topical anesthesia?
1) 1 mm
2) 2 mm
3) 3 mm
4) 4 mm
Topical anesthesia typically penetrates to a depth of about 2 mm, providing localized pain relief for procedures involving the mucosa.
What is the effect of saliva containing fluoride, calcium, and
phosphate on enamel solubility?
1) It increases enamel solubility and promotes demineralization.
2) It varies depending on the concentration of each component.
3) It has no effect on enamel solubility.
4) It decreases enamel solubility and prevents demineralization.
Fluoride, calcium, and phosphate work together in saliva to remineralize enamel, making it more resistant to acid attacks by forming fluorapatite, which is less soluble than hydroxyapatite.
For lower premolars, the purpose of inclining the handpiece lingually is to:
1) Avoid buccal pulp horn
2) Avoid lingual pulp horn
3) Remove unsupported enamel
4) Conserve lingual dentine
ADC Test Answer: 1
Inclining the handpiece lingually helps in avoiding the buccal pulp horn while preparing the cavity.
The action of Furosemide in acute pulmonary edema due acute left ventricular failure is by:
1) Pulmonary venodilation
2) Increasing urine formation
3) Decreases blood volume
4) All of the above
The most common malignant lesion found in the oral cavity is:
1) Ameloblastoma
2) Squamous cell carcinoma
3) Osteosarcoma
4) Adenocarcinoma
ADC Test Answer: 2
Squamous cell carcinoma constitutes approximately 90% of oral malignancies and is often seen as ulcers or lumps in the oral tissues.
Fat Embolism is diagnosed by - 1. Fluffy Exudates in Retina 2. Fat Droplets in Sputum 3. Fat droplets in Urine
What is the main purpose of using chlorhexidine mouth rinse in dentistry?
1) To promote tooth whitening
2) To reduce plaque and gingivitis
3) To provide pain relief
4) To replace fluoride treatments
Chlorhexidine mouth rinses are primarily used in dentistry for their efficacy in reducing plaque accumulation and gingivitis.
The primary purpose of surgical therapy for the treatment of periodontitis is to
1) apically position the flap.
2) eliminate periodontal pockets.
3) remove the ulcerated epithelium of the periodontal pocket.
4) improve access for removal of local etiologic factors.
Surgical therapy, such as flap surgery, aims to expose root surfaces and deep
periodontal pockets.
This improves visibility and access for scaling, root planning, and debridement,
which are critical for removing the etiologic factors of periodontitis (e.g.,
plaque and calculus.
Eliminating these factors allows tissues to heal and reduces pocket depths.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the size of the face at birth?
1) The face forms 2/3rd the bulk of head whereas in the adult it forms 1/3rd of the bulk.
2) The face forms the bulk of the head through life
3) The face forms 1/3rd the bulk of the head, whereas in the adult it forms 1/8th of the bulk
4) The face forms only 1/8th of the bulk of head whereas in the adult it forms 1/3rd to of the bulk.
Due to the advanced state of the growth of brain this size at birth of the head of the infant is relatively large .
In patients with cerebral palsy, which position is often recommended for dental procedures?
1) Supine
2) Prone
3) Elevated semi-upright
4) Lateral recumbent
An elevated semi-upright position can enhance comfort and respiratory efficiency for patients with cerebral palsy during dental treatments.
Which of the following antihypertensive agents is classified as a beta-blocker?
1) Amlodipine
2) Losartan
3) Captopril
4) Atenolol
Atenolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker, whereas Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), and Captopril is an ACE inhibitor.
In a maxillofacial fracture, if intracranial pressure increases:
1) It is normal
2) Typically associated with tachycardia
3) Associated with blood pressure
4) Usually subsides spontaneously
ADC Test Answer: 3
Increased intracranial pressure can lead to alterations in cerebral blood flow and may cause changes in blood pressure.
Which area should be checked for lacerations in patients with suspected mandibular fractures, particularly those with facial hair? 1) Submental area 2) Nasal septum 3) Buccal mucosa 4) Frontal sinus
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 1Lacerations in the submental area (under the chin) can be missed in patients with significant facial hair. This area should be carefully examined for any signs of trauma, especially in patients with mandibular fractures.
What should a dentist do if a patient changes their mind about a treatment
after informed consent has been given?
1) Proceed with the treatment regardless of the patient's change of heart
2) Discuss the patient's concerns and possibly modify the treatment plan
3) Require the patient to obtain consent from a second dentist
4) Document the patient's withdrawal of consent and stop the treatment
Patients have the right to withdraw consent at any time. The dentist must respect this decision and stop the treatment. It is important to document the patient's wishes to avoid any misunderstandings or legal issues.
A periapical radiograph can be used to locate the buccal bone level.
1) (1) (2) (3)
2) (1) and (3)
3) (2) and (4)
4) (4) only
Which antihypertensive class includes drugs that are specifically cardioselective or non-cardioselective?
1) ARBs
2) Beta-blockers
3) Calcium channel blockers
4) Diuretics
Beta-blockers can be cardioselective (e.g., Atenolol) or non-cardioselective (e.g., Propranolol), affecting their selectivity on heart rate.
Kiwi is known to potentially cause which types of hypersensitivity reactions?
1) Type II
2) Type III
3) Type I
4) Type IV
Kiwi can trigger type I hypersensitivity reactions, such as anaphylaxis and urticaria, due to IgE-mediated responses to specific proteins in the fruit.
Transillumination is primarily used to:
1) Diagnose dental caries
2) Assess intrinsic discoloration of teeth
3) Detect pulp stones
4) Visualize root canal anatomy
ADC Test Answer: 1
Transillumination is utilized to detect carious lesions, as decayed areas allow light to pass differently than healthy tooth structure.
Which of the following is NOT a key component of the principle of justice in
dental ethics?
1) Fair treatment of all patients
2) Equitable distribution of dental resources
3) Provision of the best possible care regardless of cost
4) Recognition of the patient's right to refuse treatment
Justice in dental ethics involves fair treatment and equitable distribution of resources, but it does not require dentists to provide the most expensive or advanced care if it is not warranted or if it would unfairly consume resources needed by others.
What is the legal status of informed consent in an emergency situation?
1) It is not required
2) It is always required
3) It is required unless the patient is unconscious
4) It is required unless the treatment is lifesaving
In an emergency where immediate treatment is necessary to save a patient's life or prevent serious harm, informed consent is not required due to the urgent nature of the situation.
A medication that reduces the rate of aqueous humor formation in acute glaucoma
1) phenothiazines
2) amphotericin B
3) Isoniazid
4) carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Carbonic anhydrase is found in erythrocytes, kidney, gut, ciliary body, choroid plexus, and glial cells.
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used primarily as probes for studying renal transport mechanisms and in the treatment of glaucoma
When used to treat glaucoma, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors diminish the transport of HCO3 - and Na+ by the ciliary process, which limits intraocular pressure.
This reduces the formation of aqueous humor by up to 50%, thereby reducing the intraocular pressure.
When injecting local solution in the maxilla on the buccal side, the technique is?
1) Intra osseous
2) Supra periosteal
3) Sup mucosal
4) Intra septal
The correct technique for injecting local solution in the maxilla on the buccal side is the supra periosteal technique.
What common oral health problem is characterized by an imbalance between the oral microbiome and oral health?
1) Dental caries
2) Periodontal disease
3) Halitosis
4) Oral thrush
Periodontal disease arises from an imbalance in the oral microbiome, leading to inflammation and destruction of periodontal tissues.
First sign of complication of anaesthesia:
1) Tachycardia
2) Bradycardia
3) Hypertension
4) Convulsions
Tachycardia is the first sign of many complications seen in anaesthesia.
What is the primary function of the palatal cusp of a premolar?
1) Incisal guidance.
2) Lateral support.
3) Anterior guidance.
4) Posterior guidance.
ADC Test Answer: 4
The palatal cusp of a premolar primarily serves as a guide for the opposing molar during lateral excursive movements, providing posterior guidance in the occlusion.
Epoxy resins are compatible with which of the following impression material :
1) Polysulphide impression material
2) Polyether impression material
3) Agar
4) Alginate
Epoxy resins
· Abrasion resistance is many times greater than gypsum
· More expensive
· Undergoes 0.1 – 0.2% shrinkage, thus their shrinkage is approximately equal to gypsum.
· Their detail reproduction is better.
· Hydrocolloids, polysulfides are not compatible with them.
The thoracic duct is located in the:
1) Anterior mediastinum
2) Posterior mediastinum
3) Middle mediastinum
4) Lateral mediastinum
The thoracic duct lies in the posterior mediastinum, between the descending thoracic aorta and the azygos vein.
What is the most abundant immunoglobulin in saliva during infections?
1) IgA
2) IgM
3) IgG
4) IgE
IgA is the most abundant immunoglobulin in saliva and plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity, especially during infections.
According to Pell & Gregory classification, if the occlusal plane of the
impacted tooth is between the occlusal plane and the cervical line of the second
molar, the type of impaction is:
1) Class A
2) Class B
3) Class C
4) Class D
Pell & Gregory classification categorizes impactions based on the relationship of the impacted tooth to the second molar and the occlusal plane. Class B impaction indicates that the occlusal surface of the impacted tooth is located between the occlusal plane and the cervical line of the adjacent second molar, suggesting a moderate level of difficulty in extraction.
What type of respiratory protection is recommended for dental personnel during aerosol-producing procedures?
1) N95 mask
2) Surgical mask
3) Powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR)
4) Full-face respirator
N95 masks are recommended for dental personnel during aerosol-producing procedures as they provide a higher level of protection against airborne particles compared to surgical masks.
What is the most likely cause for the failure of a long-standing post-crown?
1) The post was too narrow
2) The post was too short
3) Failing root canal treatment
4) Presence of a vertical root fracture
Vertical root fractures often lead to the failure of a post-crown, especially if there are no other evident issues like caries or post malposition.
During the extraction of a lower impacted right molar, bone is removed:
1) To expose maximum dimension of the tooth
2) Up to CE junction
3) Up to furcation area
4) Up to half of roots
The primary goal of bone removal during the extraction of an impacted molar is to expose the maximum dimensions of the tooth, allowing for easier access and removal. Adequate bone removal is essential to visualize the tooth and its roots fully, facilitating a successful extraction. Techniques such as high-speed handpiece and bur or chisel and mallet may be employed, with continuous irrigation to minimize bone necrosis.
How should a dentist ensure that a patient fully understands the
information provided during the informed consent process?
1) Use complex medical terminology
2) Ask if the patient has any questions and encourage discussion
3) Provide the information in writing only
4) Assume the patient understands based on their age
Explanation: Engaging the patient in discussion and encouraging questions helps
ensure they understand the information provided, which is crucial for informed
consent.
The sprue former should be attached to the wax pattern 1. on a flat surface 2. in an area where the anatomy is not critical 3. at the thinnest point 4. at the point of greatest bulk
Dental Material Answer: 4The sprue former should be attached to the wax pattern at the area of more bulk
Protamine sulphate reverses the effect of
1) Meperidine
2) Atropine
3) Hepartn
4) Strychnine.
Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be associated with irreversible aggregation of platelets and treating venous thromboembolism.
An increase of the pressure within one of the carotid sinuses would result in an increase in 1) Mean arterial pressure 2) Cardiac output 3) The activity of the pressor center 4) The activity of cardiac vagal fibers
Physiology Answer: 4An increase of the pressure within one of the carotid sinuses would result in an increase in The activity of cardiac vagal fibers
Bitewing radiography is the main special test used to help in the diagnosis of proximal caries. What is a reasonable summary of the diagnostic accuracy of bitewing radiography for proximal caries diagnosis?
1) Moderate sensitivity and low specificity
2) Moderate sensitivity and moderate specificity
3) High sensitivity and high specificity
4) High sensitivity and moderate specificity
Bitewing radiography is known for its high sensitivity and specificity in detecting proximal caries, making it a valuable diagnostic tool.
Can informed consent be obtained from a patient who is under the influence of
sedation?
1) Yes, as long as the patient can still communicate their wishes
2) No, sedation impairs the patient's ability to understand and make decisions
3) Yes, because the patient's consent was obtained before administration of
sedation
4) It depends on the type and level of sedation
Informed consent must be obtained when the patient is fully conscious and has the mental capacity to comprehend the information provide4) If sedation affects the patient's ability to make informed decisions, consent should be obtained before administration.
What is the strength of adrenaline used in dental anesthesia?
1) 1:100
2) 1:1000
3) 1:2000
4) 1:5000
The standard concentration of adrenaline used in dental procedures is 1:1000, which helps to control bleeding and prolong the effect of local anesthetics.
Which antibiotic can be safely prescribed to a patient who is on warfarin and is not allergic to penicillin?
1) Clindamycin
2) Erythromycin
3) Penicillin
4) Metronidazole
Penicillin is an appropriate choice for patients who are on warfarin and not allergic to penicillin.
The secretory product of odontoblasts is:
1) Topocollagen.
2) Calcium salts.
3) Mantle dentin.
4) Hydroxyapatite
Dentinogenesis is the formation of dentin by odontoblasts of mesenchymal origin
located at the periphery of the dental pulp
Dentinogenesis is initiated by the inductive influence of the enamel organ
involving molecular signaling pathways, such as Wnt, Runx-2, and TGF-?. In the
molar tooth, dentinogenesis starts at the late bell stage, and occurs in the
crown as well as root regions.
Predentin, the first organic matrix secreted by odontoblasts, is composed by
proteoglycans, glycoproteins, and collagens.
What is the purpose of a progress note in a dental record?
- To document the patient's current condition and the treatment provided
- To outline the patient's future treatment needs
- To communicate with the patient's other healthcare providers
- To justify the fees charged for services
A progress note is used to record the patient's current condition, any changes observed since the last visit, the treatment provided during the appointment, and the dentist's observations and findings.
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) The pain usually lasts for a few seconds up to a minute in the early stages of the disease
2) The pain is usually unilateral
3) Patients characteristically have sites on the skin that, when stimulated, precipitate an attack of pain
4) An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the forehead
ADC Test Answer: 4
While trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by paroxysmal pain, it is not typically associated with sweating in the forehead region.
What is the primary function of a rest in a removable partial denture (RPD)?
1) Aesthetic enhancement
2) Provide resistance against occlusal load
3) Act as a connector
4) Support the denture base
The primary function of a rest is to provide resistance against occlusal load, ensuring stability in the RPD.
The following statement about bupivacaine are true, except:
1) Must never be injected into vein
2) More cardiotoxic than lignocaine
3) 0.25 % is effective for sensory block
4) Produces methemoglobinemia
Bupivacaine is long acting local anaesthetic with high cardiotoxicity so it should not be injected in vein i.e.
Which of the following Antimicrobials has Antipseudomonal action:
1) Cefopodoxime proxetil
2) Ceforanide
3) Cefotetan
4) Cefoperazone
Cephalosporins with antipseudomonal action:
Cefoperazone Ceftazidime
In a 4 year old the most appropriate treatment for a chronically infected,
non-restorable primary first molar is to
1) extract it and place a space maintainer.
2) observe it until it exfoliates.
3) extract it only.
4) observe it until it becomes symptomatic
Extraction and space maintenance prevent space loss for the permanent successors, ensuring proper arch alignment.
What’s the percentage of individuals over 25 years old with periodontitis in the UK?
1) 30%
2) 50%
3) 64%
4) 75%
Approximately 64% of individuals over 25 years old in the UK are affected by periodontitis, highlighting the prevalence of periodontal disease.
Which of the following is NOT a component of a comprehensive dental record?
1) Patient medical and dental history
2) Clinical examination findings
3) Treatment plans and consent forms
4) Social security number of the patient's next of kin
E. Financial information
While it's essential to have emergency contact information, including the next of kin, a social security number is not typically considered a necessary part of a comprehensive dental record. The primary components of a comprehensive dental record include the patient's personal and medical/dental history, clinical examination findings, diagnoses, treatment plans, consent forms, and radiographs/images.
What is the purpose of the amber line in Winter's classification?
1) It shows the depth of the tooth below the alveolar crest
2) It indicates the amount of bone covering the tooth
3) It shows the path of eruption
4) It identifies the position of the tooth in the jaw
The amber line is drawn from the crest of interdental bone between the 1st and 2nd molars and extends posteriorly, showing how much bone covers the impacted tooth.
What is the predominant microorganism in deep dentinal caries?
1) Streptococcus mutans.
2) Lactobacillus species.
ADC Test Answer: 2
Lactobacilli are typically the predominant bacteria found in deep dentinal caries due to their ability to produce high levels of acid in the absence of oxygen.
What is the primary legal obligation related to dental records?
- To store them for a minimum of five years
- To provide them to the patient upon request
- To destroy them after treatment is completed
- To never disclose them without the patient's consent
Dentists are legally required to provide patients with a copy of their dental records when requested.
What is the most appropriate first-line investigation for suspected mandibular fractures? 1) MRI 2) Orthopantomogram 3) CT scan 4) Lateral cephalogram
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 2The orthopantomogram (OPG) is the first-line radiographic investigation for suspected mandibular fractures. It provides a panoramic view of the mandible, making it ideal for fracture assessment.
Least likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with amide or ester local anesthetics.?
1) Tetracaine (pontocaine)
2) Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
3) Dyclonine (Dyclone)
4) Mepivacaine (Carbocaine)
Dyclonine (Dyclone) is the least likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with amide or ester local anesthetics.
What is the best way to communicate with an anxious patient during a dental procedure?
1) Speak in a loud, firm voice
2) Use technical dental terms
3) Speak in a calm, gentle, and reassuring manner
4) Avoid eye contact
Communicating with a calm and gentle tone helps to reduce the patient's anxiety and maintains trust in the dental professional.
For which of the following is a written consent form NOT typically required?
1) Routine dental fillings
2) Dental radiographs
3) Surgical extraction of a tooth
4) Dental photography for educational purposes
Although the use of radiographs involves some risk, they are
considered part of the diagnostic process and do not typically require written
consent unless the patient specifically refuses them.
The bull's eye type of appearance in IOPA (Intraoral Periapical radiograph) is
seen in:
1) Lingually placed mandibular third molar
2) Buccally placed mandibular third molar
3) Inverted mandibular third molar
4) Distoangular impaction
The bull's eye appearance on an IOPA radiograph is typically
associated with a lingually positioned mandibular third molar. This appearance
is due to the radiographic projection of the tooth and surrounding structures,
which can create a characteristic circular pattern that resembles a bull's eye.
Which is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation?
1) Patients commonly complain of postoperative headache
2) An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour preoperatively
3) There is a profound amnesic action and no side effects
4) Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours postoperatively
5) As a benzodiazepine, the action can be reversed with Flumazenil
Diazepam can cause side effects, including sedation and impaired motor function, and is not free from adverse reactions.
Which of the following is a common oral manifestation of diabetes
mellitus?
1) Oral lichen planus
4) Gingival overgrowth
3) Geographic tongue
4) Oral candidiasis
Diabetes can lead to a compromised immune system and increased
susceptibility to infections, making oral candidiasis a common manifestation.
What is the minimum platelet level at which dental extractions can be safely performed?
1) 50 x 109/L
2) 75 x 109/L
3) 100 x 109/L
4) 150 x 109/L
Surgical procedures can be performed if platelet levels are above 50 x 109/L.
What is the retention period for dental records according to most dental boards?
1) 2 years
2) 5 years
3) 10 years
4) Varies by country/state
The retention period for dental records is typically dictated by each country's or state's dental board.
A picture of the tongue with an ulcer on the lateral border. What drug causes it?
1) ACE inhibitors
2) Calcium channel blockers
3) Potassium-sparing drugs
4) NSAIDs
ACE inhibitors can cause oral side effects, including ulcers on the tongue and other mucosal surfaces.
In which of the following situations is it most crucial to obtain informed
consent from a patient?
1) Routine dental cleaning
2) Filling a cavity with local anesthesia
3) Extracting a wisdom tooth
4) Performing oral surgery under general anesthesia
Informed consent is crucial for any treatment with significant risks or potential complications. Oral surgery under general anesthesia involves greater risks than routine procedures and thus requires thorough discussion and consent.
Which type of cells is seen in the late stage of chronic periodontitis?
1) Basophils
2) Eosinophils
3) Lymphocytes
4) Neutrophils
5) Macrophages
In the late stages of chronic periodontitis, macrophages are more prevalent, reflecting ongoing inflammation and tissue destruction.
When treating a patient with an intellectual disability, which of the following is NOT a component of informed consent?
1) Ensuring the patient understands the risks and benefits of the proposed treatment
2) Having a legal guardian present to sign the consent form
3) Allowing the patient to ask questions about the treatment
4) Providing the patient with written information at their comprehension level
Informed consent requires that the patient themselves understands and consents to the treatment, not necessarily that a legal guardian must be present to sign.
Ultrashort acting blocker most commonly used in anaesthesia is:
1) Esmolol
2) Nadolol
3) Propranolol
4) Atenolol
Esmolol is metabolized by RBC esterase, making it very short-acting with a half-life of only 8-10 minutes.
When is the best time to schedule an appointment for an asthmatic patient?
1) Morning
2) Afternoon
3) Evening
4) Anytime
Asthma attacks are known to be more frequent in the morning and evening due to various physiological factors.
During setting, a gypsum-bonded investment material will undergo an additional expansion if it occurs:
1) Under water.
2) Under vacuum.
3) In a cold environment.
4) In a dry environment.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1
During setting, a gypsum-bonded investment
material will undergo an additional expansion if
it occurs:
What suture material is recommended for lip trauma and oroantral fistula?
1) Chromic gut
2) Black silk
3) Vicryl
4) Nylon
For lip trauma and oroantral fistula repair, Vicryl (polyglactin 910) is the recommended suture material.
What is the recommended time frame for administering nitrous oxide sedation to achieve its anxiolytic effect?
1) 5-10 minutes
2) 2-3 minutes
3) 30-60 minutes
4) 1-2 minutes
Nitrous oxide typically takes 5-10 minutes to reach its full effect, allowing patients to feel relaxed and less anxious about their dental treatment.
A patient expresses extreme anxiety about getting needles. What is the most appropriate response?
1) Tell them not to worry
2) Avoid discussing needles altogether
3) Explain the procedure and show the needle in a non-threatening way
4) Schedule their appointment without discussing their fears
Providing clear information and familiarizing the patient with the process can help reduce anxiety associated with needles.
Which of the following is the first drug to be prescribed in status asthmaticus?
1) Salbutamol
2) Humidified oxygen inhalation
3) Hydrocortisone hemisuccinate
4) Sodium bicarbonate infusion
Pharmacology Answer: 3
Status asthmaticus/Refractory asthma Any patient of asthma is susceptible to develop acute severe asthma which may be life-threatening.
(i) Hydrocortisone hemisuccinate 100 mg (or equivalent dose of another glucocorticoid) i.v. stat, followed by 100-200 mg 4-8 hourly infusion; may take upto 6 hours to act.
(ii) Nebulized salbutamol (2.5-5 mg) + ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg) intermittent inhalations driven by O2 .
(iii) High flow humidified oxygen inhalation
(iv) Salbutamol/terbutaline 0.4 mg i.m./s.c. may be added since inhaled drug might not get to smaller bronchi owing to severe narrowing/plugging with secretions
(v) Intubation and mechanical ventilation if needed
(vi) intensive antibiotic therapy to be used for treating chest infection
(vii) Treat dehydration and acidosis with saline + sod. Bicarbonate/lactate infusion.
What should a healthcare provider do if a patient refuses a recommended
treatment?
1) Ignore the refusal and proceed with treatment
2) Document the refusal and provide information on the consequences
3) Force the patient to comply
4) Refer the patient to another provider
It is important to document the patient's informed refusal and ensure they understand the potential consequences of not proceeding with the treatment.
For a tooth (84) with deeper caries, the recommended treatment would be:
1) Indirect pulp capping and restoration
2) Pulpotomy and restoration
3) Pulpectomy and restoration
4) Extraction
ADC Test Answer: 3
Due to the depth of decay, a pulpectomy is indicated to remove all affected pulp tissue and disinfect the canal.
Which of the following is not one of the consequences of using Herbst appliance in treatment of Class II malocclusion?
1) Increase in mandibular growth
2) Over corrected Class I molar relation
3) Increase in SNB angle
4) Increase in overjet
Solution The following are the effects when Herbst appliance used for treatment of Class II malocclusion:
1.
2. Increased mandibular growth
3. Distal driving of maxillary molars which helps to achieve molar relation.
4. Reduction of overjet by increasing mandibular length and proclination of mandibular incisors.
5. Inhibitory effect on sagittal maxillary growth
6. Weislander suggested double contour of glenoid fossa which indicates anterior transformation of glenoid fossa
7. Increased SNB angle and decreased SNA angle.
What is the primary reason for taking a complete set of diagnostic radiographs for a new patient? 1) To establish a baseline for future comparisons 2) To screen for cavities 3) To assess the patient's overall oral health 4) To plan for a specific treatment
Dental Records Answer: 3Although radiographs are used for various purposes, including detecting cavities and planning treatment, the primary reason for taking a complete set of diagnostic radiographs for a new patient is to assess the patient's overall oral health and identify any underlying conditions that may require attention.
Acute or subacute suppurative osteomyelitis occurs most frequently in the
1) anterior maxilla
2) posterior mandible.
3) posterior maxilla
4) anterior mandible.
The posterior mandible is more susceptible due to its dense cortical bone and
reduced blood supply, which hinder immune responses.
Which type of defect is most prevalent?
1) 1-wall defect
2) 2-wall defect
3) 3-wall defect
4) None of the above
One-wall defects, also known as infrabony defects, are indeed the most common type of osseous defects found in periodontal disease. These defects are characterized by the loss of alveolar bone on one side of the tooth root, leaving a bony depression or "cup" that can harbor plaque and bacteria, contributing to the progression of periodontal disease.
What is the main cause of patient collapse with congestive heart failure in the dental clinic?
1) Allergic reaction to local anesthetics
2) Stress from surgical procedures
3) Use of certain antibiotics
4) Lack of hydration
Patients with congestive heart failure may collapse during dental procedures due to the increased cardiac workload and stress involved, which can exceed their heart's functional ability.
What describes a secondary or auxiliary rest?
1) Integral to the RPD base
2) Provides aesthetic support
3) Used for indirect retention
4) Only located on occlusal surfaces
Auxiliary rests serve as additional support to aid in indirect retention for the RPD.
Which of the following is a key component of informed consent?
1) The
healthcare provider's opinion on the treatment
2) The patient's medical history
3) The risks and benefits of the proposed treatment
4) The cost of the treatment
A key component of informed consent is providing the patient with information about the risks and benefits associated with the proposed treatment.
Morphine withdrawal is characterized by all except
1) Miosis
2) Yawning
3) Lacrimation
4) Diarrhea
Withdrawal of morphine is associated with marked drug-seeking behavior.
Physical manifestations of abstinence are - lacrimation, sweating, yawning, anxiety, fear, restlessness, gooseflesh, mydriasis, tremor, insomnia, abdominal colic, diarrhea, dehydration, rise in BP, palpitation and rapid weight loss.
Delirium and convulsions are not a characteristic feature (contrast barbiturates) and are seen only occasionally.
Cardi-ovascular collapse and fatality are rare if supportive measures are instituted.
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for informed consent in dental treatment?
- The patient must be competent to make decisions
- The treatment options must be fully explained to the patient
- The patient must be informed of the risks and benefits of each option
- The patient must sign the consent form in triplicate
Informed consent requires that the patient is competent to make decisions, the treatment options are fully explained, the risks and benefits are communicated, and the patient understands the nature and purpose of the proposed treatment.
The concentration of ketones is increased in body due to: 1. Starvation 2. High fat diet 3. Diabetes mellitus
The obturating material of choice for primary teeth following complete pulpectomy is:
1) Zn phosphate cement and formocresol combination paste
2) Quick setting hydroxide cement
3) Zinc oxide and eugenol cement
4) Gutta-percha
ADC Test Answer: 3
Zinc oxide eugenol cement (ZOE) is preferred for obturation in primary teeth due to its good sealing properties and resorbability, which is important for the eventual eruption of the succedaneous permanent tooth.
What is the age of majority for giving informed consent?
1) 16 years
2) 18 years
3) 21 years
4) Varies by country
In most jurisdictions, the age of majority is 18 years, which means
individuals below this age are considered minors and typically require parental
or guardian consent for medical or dental treatment, except in cases of
emergency.
Rapid induction of anaesthesia occurs with which of the following anaesthetic:
1) Isoflurane
2) Halothane
3) esflurane
4) Sevoflurane
Desflurane has the lowest blood gas partition coefficient of 0.42, so has fastest induction and recovery.
Ketamine is contraindicated in:
1) Hypertension
2) Raised intracranial tension
3) Raised intraocular tension
4) All of the above
Ketamine raises both systolic and diastolic blood pressures and is thus contraindicated in hypertension. It increases cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure and is thus contraindicated in raised intracranial tension. Ketamine raises intraocular tension and is thus contraindicated in glaucoma.
What is the recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner?
1) 150F for 2 hours.
2) 180F for 30 minutes.
3) 160F for 30 minutes.
4) 160F for 30 minutes, then boil for 2 hours.
The recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner is to first bring the temperature of the water to 160F (71C) and maintain it for 30 minutes.
What is the purpose of a pulp vitality test before a restorative procedure?
1) To determine the presence of pulp infection.
2) To assess the depth of the cavity preparation.
3) To evaluate the need for endodontic treatment.
4) To ensure that the patient is not allergic to the restorative material.
ADC Test Answer: 1
Pulp vitality tests are conducted to assess the health of the tooth's pulp and identify any signs of infection before proceeding with a restorative treatment.
What is the primary use of nitrous oxide in dentistry?
1) To strengthen teeth
2) To relieve anxiety and create mild sedation
3) To enhance local anesthesia
4) To improve the taste of dental materials
Nitrous oxide is commonly used for its anxiolytic properties and ability to induce a relaxed state without deep sedation.
Which of the following actions is NOT a responsibility of a dental professional when they suspect abuse or neglect?
1) Reporting the suspicion to the appropriate authorities
2) Investigating the situation personally
3) Documenting observations in the patient’s record
4) Providing support to the patient
Dental professionals should report their suspicions rather than investigate, as this is outside their scope of practice.
What is the primary histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Acanthosis
2) Acantholysis
3) Hyperkeratosis
4) Dysplasia
Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by the loss of intercellular adherence of suprabasal spinous cells, leading to acantholysis and the formation of vesicles.
Can a patient withdraw their informed consent at any time?
1) No, once given, consent cannot be withdrawn
2) Yes, but only if the treatment has not yet started
3) Yes, at any point during the treatment
4) Only if the patient has not signed a consent form
A patient has the right to withdraw informed consent at any time
during the treatment process, regardless of whether they have signed a consent
form or not.
What should a dentist do if a patient presents with a dental emergency that appears to be the result of abuse or neglect?
1) Treat the emergency and report the incident to the authorities
2) Refuse treatment until the patient provides a satisfactory explanation for the injury
3) Treat the emergency without reporting the incident
4) Report the incident to the authorities and delay treatment until they arrive
In the case of a dental emergency, the dentist should provide immediate care and report the suspicion of abuse or neglect to the authorities.
Which component of amalgam gives strength?
1) Copper
2) Silver
3) Tin
4) Zinc
Copper enhances the strength and hardness of dental amalgam, making it a critical component in its formulation.
Immediately following the closure of the A-V valves is the period of 1. Isotonic contraction 2. Isometric contraction 3. Isometric relaxation 4. Isotonic relaxation
Anatomy Answer: 3Immediately following the closure of the A-V valves is the period of Isometric relaxation
What type of hemorrhage occurs within 24 hours post-operatively due to increased blood pressure or ligature slippage?
1) Primary hemorrhage
2) Intermediate or reactionary hemorrhage
3) Secondary hemorrhage
4) Tertiary hemorrhage
This type of hemorrhage happens when blood pressure rises or the ligature slips, causing bleeding from the surgical site.
What is the role of lactoferrin in the prevention of dental caries?
1) It produces fluoride
2) It binds to iron, inhibiting bacterial enzymes
3) It forms a protective layer on the tooth surface
4) It produces bicarbonate
Lactoferrin is a protein in saliva that binds to iron, making it unavailable for bacterial enzymes that require iron to function, thus inhibiting their growth and acid production.
According to Angle, the key to normal occlusion in adults is the anteroposterior relationship. His description of teeth relationships in normal occlusion remains a fundamental observation. Angles observations are based on which teeth that are most reliable to understand occlusion
1) First molars and canines
2) First molars and first Premolars
3) Canines and first Premolars
4) First molars and central incisors
SOLUTION The mesial incline of the upper canine occludes with the distal incline of the lower [canine]; the distal incline of the upper canine occludes with the mesial incline of the buccal cusp of the lower first premolar.
Informed consent for children typically requires consent from:
1) The child
only
2) The healthcare provider
3) The child's guardian or parent
4) The child's teacher
The child's guardian or parent
Explanation: Parents or guardians are responsible for providing
consent for medical treatment for minors.
When calcospherites fail to fuse during calcification of dentin matrix then
1 Interglobular dentin is formed
2 Dead tracts are found in formed dentin
3 Irregular dentin results
4 None
Interglobular Dentin:
Sometimes, mineralization of dentin begins in small globular areas that fail to coalesce into a homogenous mass.
These zones are known as globular dentin or interglobular spaces. Thus, demonstrating defect of mineralization and not of matrix formation, the dentinal tubules pass uninterruptedly through interglobular dentin.
Which of the following is a key step in preparing a tooth for a stainless steel crown?
1) Reducing the occlusal surface.
2) Placing a rubber dam.
3) Applying a sealant.
4) Using a diamond bur to prepare the crown.
Before placing a stainless steel crown, the occlusal surface needs to be reduced to ensure proper fit and prevent interference with opposing teeth.
What is the primary advantage of using digital radiography in dentistry?
1) Lower radiation exposure
2) Immediate image availability
3) Enhanced image quality
4) All of the above
Digital radiography offers lower radiation exposure, immediate image availability, and enhanced image quality compared to traditional film radiography.
Untrue about desflurane is:
1) Rapid induction and recovery
2) High vapour pressure
3) Induction is very smooth
4) Does not produce fluoride
Desflurane is isoflurane product so has pungent odour, rapid induction and recovery, very high vapour pressure.
Koplik's spots are seen in the oral cavity of patients with
1) chickenpox.
2) mumps.
3) measles.
4) scarlet fever.
E. smallpox.
Koplik's spots are small, white spots found on the mucous
membranes of the cheeks in the early stages of measles. These spots are
pathognomonic for the disease and typically appear before the rash. They are not
associated with the other conditions listed: chickenpox, mumps, or scarlet
fever.
A mandibular primate space is usually found in the primary dentition between 1. first and second molars 2. central and lateral incisors 3. lateral incisor and canine 4. canine and first molar
Dental Anatomy Answer: 4A mandibular primate space is usually found in the primary dentition between canine and first molar
In cases of anorexia nervosa with high caries rates, what management options should be prioritized?
1) Dietary advice
2) Tooth brushing
3) Referral to a GP
4) All of the above
Comprehensive management should include dietary advice, oral hygiene practices, and medical evaluation while working closely with healthcare providers.
Bonding of GIC to tooth structure is brought about by
1) metal ions
2) hydroxyl bond
3) carboxyl bond
4) ionic bond
one ot the main adanhtges of GIC as a restoratie material was its ability to form chemical bonds with the tooth structure. Bonding in GIC primarily invokes chelation of carboxyl groups of the polyacids sith the calcium in the apatite of enamel and dentin.
The most efficient method of sterilization in dental practice is 1. ultraviolet radiation 2. moist heat at 121°C for 20 min 3. boiling for 20 mm 4. dry heat at 40° C for 2 hours
Microbiology Answer: 2The most efficient method of sterilization in dental practice is moist heat at 121°C for 20 min
A dentist is carrying out electrosurgery on a patient, and the patient sneezes with his head moving forward. What is most likely to occur?
1) Gingival trauma
2) Mucosal burn
3) Mucosal trauma
4) Trauma to adjacent tooth
The sudden movement during electrosurgery can lead to mucosal trauma, especially if the surgical site is not stable.
What is the primary concern with a mesinangular impaction?
1) It is highly susceptible to infection
2) It is the most difficult to remove
3) It has the highest risk of damaging the adjacent teeth
4) It is associated with the lowest incidence of pericoronitis
Mesinangular impaction is the most common and least difficult type of impaction but is often associated with pericoronitis due to its position and difficulty in maintaining oral hygiene.
What percentage of the UK population receives fluoridated water?
1) 5%
2) 10%
3) 15%
4) 20%
Approximately 10% of the UK population has access to fluoridated water, which helps in reducing dental caries.
Jugular venous pressure is best described as:
1) Pulse pressure
2) 10 mmHg more than ventricular pressure
3) 10 mmHg less than ventricular pressure
4) 20 mmHg more than ventricular pressure
Jugular venous pressure reflects the pressure within the right atrium and is generally about 10 mmHg less than the pressure in the ventricles.
The best way to clean a cavity before the placement of GIC is:
1) H2O2
2) Phosphoric Acid
3) Polyacrylic acid
4) Saline
ADC Test Answer: 3
Polyacrylic acid is recommended for cleaning a cavity before using GIC as it helps create an effective bond while preserving the integrity of dentin moisture.
What is the best approach regarding sedation for pregnant women?
1) Mandatory sedation
2) Always use benzodiazepines
3) Best to avoid sedation
4) Only use nitrous oxide
The use of sedation, particularly benzodiazepines, during pregnancy carries risks that could harm the fetus.
What is the primary cause of non-carious cervical lesions?
1) Dental decay
2) Abfraction
3) Erosion
4) Both B and C
Non-carious cervical lesions can be caused by abfraction (stress-related loss of tooth structure) and erosion (chemical dissolution), both of which do not involve cariogenic bacteria.
What is the purpose of a chisel in oral surgery?
1) To split teeth
2) To remove bone
3) To elevate soft tissue
4) To luxate teeth
A chisel is used in oral surgery to cut or remove bone, often during procedures such as apicoectomy or osteotomy.
The major growth sites in mandible are:
1.Anterior surface of ramus
2.Condylar process
3.Anterior part of chin
4. Posterior surface of ramus:
1) 1,2,3
2) 2,4
3) 2,3,4
4) 2,3
•In two ways the overall pattern of growth of the mandible can be represented .It will depend on the frame of reference if both are correct.
On the other hand, it becomes apparent that the principal sites of growth of the mandible are the posterior surface of the ramus and the condylar and coronoid processes if data from vital staining experiments are examined. Along the anterior part of the mandible there is little change
• The chin is almost inactive as a growth site. As the actual growth occurs at the mandibular condyle and along the posterior surface of the ramus it is translated downward and forward. By periosteal apposition of bone on its posterior surface the body of the mandible grows longer , at the condyle accompanied by surface remodeling while the ramus grows higher by endochondral replacement
• Conceptually,wiht is correct to view the mandible as being translated downward and forward,though at the same time it increases in size by growing upward and backward. As the bone moves downward the translation occurs largely. As the bone moves downward and forward along with the soft tissues in which it is embedded the translation occurs largely
Which of the following is NOT a consideration for endodontic treatment in
the elderly?
1) Diminished pulp vitality
2) Reduced healing capacity
3) Systemic health conditions
4) All of the above are considerations.
While systemic health conditions are a consideration, endodontic
treatment can still be successful in the elderly with careful management and
patient selection.
Spironolactone, an antihypertensive agent, belongs to which class of drugs?
1) Potassium-sparing diuretics
2) ACE inhibitors
3) Calcium channel blockers
4) Beta-blockers
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks aldosterone, helping to reduce blood pressure without causing potassium loss.
Heat hardening is done in which orthodontic wire
1) Elgiloy
2) Stainless steel
3) TMA
4) NiTi
SOLUTION Elgiloy (Cobalt-Chromium) alloy is supplied in a softer state and can be heat hardened.
After hardening heat treatment, the softest elgiloy becomes equivalent to regular stainless steel.
What is the term for an irrational fear of dental procedures?
1) Odontophobia
2) Gag reflex
3) Hypochondria
4) Agoraphobia
Odontophobia is a specific phobia characterized by fear of dental procedures or the dental environment.
Ability of an orthodontic wire to spring back to Its original shape is evaluated by
1) Brittleness
2) Resilience
3) Tensile strength
4) Toughness
Resilience is the amount of energy absorbed by a structure when it is stressed to proportional Limit.
The elastic area of the stress-strain graph gives resilience; entire area up to breaking point is a measure of toughness.
The slope of straight Line gives Young’s modulus.
What is the recommended fluoride treatment for a geriatric patient with high
caries risk?
1) Fluoride toothpaste only
2) Fluoride varnish
3) Systemic fluoride supplements
4) No fluoride treatment
Fluoride varnish is effective in reducing caries risk and is
particularly useful for geriatric patients due to its ease of application and
retention on teeth.
Cardio stable anaesthetic:
1) Etomidate
2) Propadanil
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopental
Etomidate is known for its cardio stability, making it a preferred choice in patients with cardiovascular issues.
After the age of 6 years, where does the greatest increase in the size of the mandible occur?
1) At the symphysis
2) Between canines
3) Distal to the first molar
4) Ramus
After the age of 6, especially during growth spurts, the mandible increases significantly in height and width, particularly in the ramus region, including the area distal to the first molar.
Which class of antihypertensive drugs includes drugs like Captopril and Enalapril?
1) Beta-blockers
2) ACE inhibitors
3) ARBs
4) Diuretics
ACE inhibitors like Captopril and Enalapril work by blocking the angiotensin-converting enzyme, reducing blood pressure.
Ideally, Orthodontic traction to pull an impacted tooth to line of arch should begin at
1) 2-3 months post surgically
2) As soon as possible after surgery
3) After a waiting period of at least1.5 months
4) Only the method of traction is critical, not the time
SOLUTION Mechanical approaches for aligning unerupted teeth.
Ideally a fixed orthodontic appliance should already be in place before the unerupted tooth is exposed, so that orthodontic force can be applied immediately.
If this is not practical, active orthodontic movement should being no later than 2 or 3 weeks post-surgically.
Where are occlusal rests typically located?
1) On the incisal edge of teeth
2) On the lingual surface of teeth
3) On the occlusal surface of posterior teeth
4) On the mesial surface of teeth
Occlusal rests are seated on the occlusal surfaces of posterior teeth to provide stability.
Which of the following is a thiazide diuretic commonly used to manage hypertension?
1) Furosemide
2) Amiloride
3) Chlorothiazide
4) Spironolactone
Chlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic commonly used in hypertension, while Furosemide is a loop diuretic, Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist.
Which is harder?
1) Amalgam.
2) Composite.
3) Type IV gold.
4) Glass ionomer.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Type IV gold is the hardest material compared to amalgam, composite, or glass ionomer.
The rough surface of porcelain (porosity) is mainly the result of:
1) Sudden high temperature
2) Lack of compression
3) Inadequate cooling
4) Improper mixing
ADC Test Answer: 2
A rough surface can occur due to insufficient compression during the fabrication of porcelain, leading to porosity and a less smooth finish.
To prolong the setting time of glass ionomer cement (GIC), one can:
1) Cool down the mixing slab
2) Increase the amount of powder
3) Add more water
4) Decrease mixing time
ADC Test Answer: 1
Cooling the slab on which GIC is mixed can extend the setting time; however, this might negatively affect the cement's strength.
'Programme Operation' in Community health care is same as:
1) Treatment
2) Approval
3) Treatment Planning
4) Diagnosis
In community health care, "Programme Operation" refers to the implementation and
execution of various health programs and interventions. This includes providing
treatment to individuals, ensuring that approved protocols and guidelines are
followed, planning and organizing treatment strategies, and diagnosing health
conditions. Therefore, "Programme Operation" can be equated to the concept of
treatment in community health care.
The gingival aspect of a pontic which touches the alveolar ridge should be:
1) Convex only in the mesiodistal direction.
2) Concave faciolingually and convex mesiodistally.
3) Small and convex in all directions.
4) Fabricated to produce slight tissue compression.
FPD and RPD Answer: 3A small and convex gingival surface facilitates hygiene maintenance and minimizes irritation to the underlying soft tissues.
The most common cause of failure in root canal treatment is:
1) Over-filling the canal
2) Under-filling the canal
3) Instrument breakage
4) Infection during treatment
ADC Test Answer: 2
Inadequate filling of the root canal system allows for persistent infection, making it the leading cause of failure in root canal procedures.
The main excitatory neuro transmitter in CNS is
1) Glycine
2) Acetyl choline
3) Aspartate
4) Glutamate
The chemical compound acetylcholine (ACh) is a neurotransmitter in both the peripheral nervous system (PNS)and central nervous system (CNS) in many organisms including humans.
Which group of medications is primarily used to manage pain and inflammation in dental procedures?
1) Opioids
2) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
3) Antibiotics
4) Anxiolytics
NSAIDs are commonly prescribed for pain and inflammation control in dental procedures due to their efficacy and relatively low side-effect profile compared to opioids.
PPE, such as gloves, masks, and eyewear, is essential for safeguarding dental professionals from exposure to blood and other potentially infectious materials.
The manufacturer’s maximum recommended number of 1.8ml cartridges of 3%
mepivacaine that may be safely administered to a 65kg adult is
1) 5.
2) 6.
3) 7.
4) 8.
Based on the maximum dose of 6.6 mg/kg, 7 cartridges are within the safe limit for a 65kg adult.
Ferrite and austenite are soft and ductile
Vasoconstrictor in local anesthetic solution is?
1) Increase toxic effects of LA
2) Reduce toxic effects of LA solution
3) Increase bleeding
4) Has no effect on efficacy LA solution
The vasoconstrictor in a local anesthetic solution is used to reduce the toxic effects of the solution.
Which of the following is the drug of choice in bupivacaine induced VT:
1) Lidocaine
2) Phenytoin
3) Digoxin
4) Quinidine
The drug of choice is bretylium but in its absence lignocaine can be used.
A 22-year-old woman presents with acute gingival hypertrophy and spontaneous bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1) Myelogenous leukaemia
2) Infectious mononucleosis
3) Thrombocytopenic purpura
4) Gingivitis of local aetiological origin
The symptoms and blood analysis suggest a hematological disorder, with myelogenous leukaemia being a strong possibility.
Which of the following should NOT be included in a dental record?
1) Patient's medical history
2) Treatment plan
3) Financial information
4) Clinical examination notes
Financial information, such as insurance claims and payment vouchers, should not be included in the clinical dental record.
Which anomaly occurs during the initiation stage of tooth development?
1) Amelogenesis imperfecta
2) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
3) Enamel hypoplasia
4) Oligodontia
Oligodontia refers to the absence of one or more teeth and occurs during the initiation stage of tooth development, where the tooth buds fail to form.
Which type of caries is characterized by a brown or black appearance and is
resistant to caries?
1) Acute caries
2) Chronic caries
3) Arrested caries
4) Incipient caries
Arrested caries are brown or black and become caries-resistant, especially when exposed to fluoride.
If a 4th root canal is present in a maxillary 1st molar, it will likely be located in which of the following roots?
1) Mesiolingual
2) Mesiobuccal
3) Distolingual
4) Distofacial
Well over 50% of maxillary 1st molars have two canals in the mesiobuccal root.
There are usually 3 roots and 4 canals in a maxillary 1st molar.
The fourth canal, the mesiolingual canal, is also referred to as: the accessory mesiobuccal canal, mesiocentric, mesiopalatal canal or MB2.
It is usually tough to find MB2 through clinical inspection and it is not obvious on a radiograph. A dentist should expect it is present before beginning a root canal on the first maxillary molar.
A woman aged 48 years visits a dermatologist to have a mole removed. The patient tells her physician that she got allergic reaction to a local anaesthetic the last time she had undergone dental work. Investigation of the lady's dental records by her dentist discloses that the patient received procaine for a tooth extraction. Among the following alternatives, which drug would be suitable for the present procedure?
- Benzocaine
- Chloroprocaine
- Tetracaine
- Mepivacaine
Two classes of local anaesthetics exist namely: Esters and Amides.
What is the Angle classification of occlusion based upon?
Orthodontics Answer: 31. The position of the maxillary incisors relative to the mandibular incisors
2. The position of the maxillary incisors relative to the mandibular incisors
3. The position of the maxillary canines and first permanent molars relative to the mandibular canines and first permanent molars.
4. The position of the upper lip relative to the lower lip
The position of the maxillary canines and first permanent molars relative to the mandibular canines and first permanent molars
Dens in dente is thought to arise as a result of 1. a normal tooth but enclaved within an other tooth, during formation 2. proliferation and evagination of an area of the inner enamel epithelium 3. extensive growth of mesenchymal cells of pulp tissue 4. an invagination of the enamel organ during tooth formation
Oral Pathology Answer: 4Dens in dente is an invagination of the enamel organ during tooth formation
Consent is needed from a patient to share information. Which of the following requires explicit consent?
1) To share information with an insurance company
2) To share information with other doctors in the practice
3) To share information with the therapist treating the patient
4) To share information with the patient's General Medical Practitioner (GMP)
Sharing patient information with an insurance company typically requires explicit consent due to the sensitive nature of the information and privacy regulations.
The function of cobalt in a cast chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy is to 1. increase resistance to shear and tensile stresses 2. provide tarnish resistance 3. increase tendency for higher ductility and decrease casting shrinkage 4. contribute strength, rigidity, and hardness
Dental Material Answer: 4Cobalt in a cast chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy contribute to strength, rigidity, and hardness
A single force applied at which point of a tooth will allow complete translation of the tooth.
1) At the apex
2) At the incisal edge
3) At the center of resistance
4) At the center of rotation
SOLUTION Center of resistance- Point analogous to the centers of gravity.
Generally it is constant.In single root it lies between one third and one half of the root apical to alveolar crest.
In multi rooted tooth it lies 1-2 mm apical to furcation
What is the correct sequence of events in tooth development?
1) Differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium, dentine formation then enamel formation
2) Differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation, elongation of enamel epithelium
3) Elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation
4) None of the above
ADC Test Answer: 3
The processes in tooth development unfold with the elongation of the enamel epithelium followed by odontoblast differentiation and the sequential formation of dentine and enamel.
Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of Thrombocytopenia secondary to myelosuppressive cancer chemotherapy?
1) Filgrastim
2) Sargramostim
3) Oprelvekin
4) Erythropoietin
Oprelvekin (Interleukin 11) is the only agent approved by the FDA for treatment of thrombocytopenia secondary to myelosuppressive cancer chemotherapy
Filgrastim (G-CSF) and Sargramostim (GM-SCF) are used in the treatment of neutropenia
Erythropoietin is used in treatment of anemia
What is the most benign tumor among the following options?
1) Kaposi sarcoma
2) Burkitt's lymphoma
3) Adenolymphoma
4) Acinic cell carcinoma
Adenolymphoma, also known as Warthin’s tumor, is a benign glandular tumor typically found in the parotid gland, characterized by two layers of eosinophilic epithelial cells.
Which of the following statements is not true regarding sulfonamides:
1) Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT
2) Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide administration
3) Sulfonamide administration to Newborn may cause Kernicterus
4) Sulfonamides are of value in treatment of infections due to Norcardia species
Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT Sulfasalazine is poorly absorbed (10-20%) from the GIT .
What is the GDC's requirement for the storage of patient records?
- They must be kept in a secure, locked cabinet
- They must be kept in a fireproof safe
- They must be kept in a format that is easily accessible and understandable
- They must be kept in a location that is accessible only to the dentist
The GDC requires that patient records be kept in a format that is easily accessible and understandable to ensure that dental professionals can provide effective care based on accurate and up-to-date information.
Before filling a Class V abrasion cavity with GIC (Glass Ionomer Cement) you should:
1) Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water, and weak acid
2) Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything
3) Acid etch cavity then dry thoroughly
4) Rinse the cavity with saline
ADC Test Answer: 1
The purpose of using pumice and a rubber cup is to clean the cavity without excessively drying it, which is important as GIC is moisture-loving.
Disto buccal root of upper first molar is supplied by:
1) Buccal nerve
2) Middle superior alveolar nerve
3) Posterior superior alveolar nerve
4) Infra orbital nerve
The disto buccal root of the upper first molar is supplied by the posterior superior alveolar nerve.
Glutamate-pyruvate trans-aminase is predominantly present In: 1. Skeletal muscle 2. Cardiac muscle 3. Brain 4. Liver
Biochemistry Answer: 4Glutamate-pyruvate trans-aminase is predominantly present In Liver
The most constant and valuable trait to differentiate among maxillary first second and third molars is the depth of central fossae
What should be avoided when documenting patient records?
1) Using clear language
2) Omitting relevant information
3) Keeping records up to date
4) Documenting consent
It is crucial to provide a complete picture of the patient's dental health to ensure proper care and treatment planning.
What is the most effective way to manage a patient with dental anxiety?
1) Sedation
2) General anesthesia
3) Cognitive behavioral therapy
4) All of the above
Managing dental anxiety can involve sedation, general anesthesia, and psychological approaches like cognitive behavioral therapy, depending on the severity of the anxiety.
What is the primary risk of chisel and mallet technique for bone removal?
1) Damage to the adjacent teeth
2) Increased risk of infection
3) Increased risk of bone fracture
4) Increased risk of bleeding
The chisel and mallet technique requires careful execution as it can lead to fractures in the jaw bone if not performed correctly.
Apart from a dentigerous cyst, which other lesions are associated with the absence of teeth?
1) Adenomatous odontogenic tumor
2) Keratocyst
3) Ameloblastoma
4) Calcifying odontogenic tumor
5) All of the above
All these lesions can be associated with the absence of teeth, either due to their developmental nature or their impact on the surrounding structures.
Fusion Temperature of Impression Compound should occur: 1. Before mouth temperature 2.. At skin temperature 3. Ahove mouth temperature 4. At room temperature
Dental Material Answer: 3Fusion Temperature of Impression Compound should occur above mouth temperature
What is the primary cause of a dry socket?
1) Infection
2) Clot dislodgment
3) Blood vessel damage
4) Bone necrosis
Dry socket occurs when the blood clot in the tooth socket is dislodged, exposing the bone and causing pain.
Which of the following is NOT a standard precaution recommended to prevent the spread of infection in the dental setting?
1) Hand hygiene
2) Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)
3) Sterilization of reusable instruments
4) Sharing of patient-care items
Standard precautions in the dental setting include hand hygiene, use of PPE, and sterilization of reusable instruments.
Which class of drugs has been implicated in the development of thrombotic and bleeding complications in patients with disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)?
1) NSAIDs
2) Vitamin K antagonists
3) ACE inhibitors
4) Statins
NSAIDs can exacerbate bleeding complications by affecting platelet function and are linked to increasing the risk of angioedema.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors reduce blood pressure by:
1) Increasing heart rate
2) Blocking calcium channels
3) Inhibiting angiotensin II formation
4) Blocking aldosterone receptors
ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, reducing vasoconstriction and lowering blood pressure.
Which of the following is not recommended in the technique for curing light cured composites?
1) Holding the light tip 1 cm from the tooth
2) Wearing speacial glasses with orange filters
3) Using an exposure duration of 40 to 60 seconds
4) Placing the composite in increments of 1 to 2 mm
The distance between the tip of the curing light and the tooth is important, as the intensity of the light source is important.
The intensity of light is inverselyproportional to the distance from the source. As a general rule each increment should be at most 1.5 to 2 mm thick. This will ensure complete penetration of the light and maximum curing of thecomposite at the bottom most portion of the cavity preparation.