Dentist Abroad
Common cause of allergy in orthodontics:
1) Composite resin.
2) Vinyl.
3) Nickel.
4) Acrylic.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Nickel is a common allergen found in many orthodontic appliances, particularly in metal brackets or wires.
An increase or decrease in the Y axis is related to:
1) The growth pattern
2) Extrusion of molars
3) Intrusion of molars
4) All of the above
SOLUTION
When a dentist suspects elder abuse, what is the first step they should take?
1) Confront the caregiver about the suspicion
2) Report the suspicion to the patient's family
3) Report the suspicion to the local Adult Protective Services (APS) agency
4) Treat the patient's dental issues without further action
The first step in suspected elder abuse is to report the concern to Adult Protective Services.
Which nerve is affected if a patient is unable to gaze laterally to the left?
1) Right abducent
2) Right trochlear
3) Left abducent
4) Left trochlear
The left abducent nerve (cranial nerve VI) innervates the lateral rectus muscle, which is responsible for lateral eye movement.
In providing treatment to older adults, which ethical principle is most
important?
1) Autonomy
2) Beneficence
3) Non-maleficence
4) Justice
Respecting an elderly patient's autonomy is crucial for ethical treatment, ensuring informed consent and patient-centered care.
What does T2 indicate in the TNM classification?
1) Tumor size less than 2 cm
2) Tumor size between 2-4 cm
3) Tumor size greater than 4 cm
4) Tumor extending to adjacent structures
T2 indicates that the tumor measures between 2 and 4 cm in its greatest dimension, which is important for staging cancer.
Which of the following is NOT a common sign of dental anxiety?
1) Excessive sweating
2) Increased heart rate
3) Difficulty in swallowing
4) Fear of needles
While anxiety can affect swallowing reflexes, it is not a universally recognized sign of dental anxiety. Common signs include increased heart rate, sweating, and fear of needles or specific dental procedures.
Which is the most common jaw cyst in the UK?
1) Dentigerous cyst
2) Radicular cyst
3) Odontogenic keratocyst
4) Nasopalatine duct cyst
The radicular cyst is the most prevalent type of jaw cyst, commonly associated with non-vital teeth.
The most pronounced effect on the oral microflora of a reduction in rate of salivary flow is a 1. significant increase in number of oral bacteria 2. shift towards a more acidogenic microflora 3 significant decrease in number of oral bacteria 4 shift towards a more aerobic micro flora
Microbiology Answer: 2The most pronounced effect on the oral microflora of a reduction in rate of salivary flow is a shift towards a more acidogenic microflora
After crown placement, when should a follow-up radiograph be taken?
1) Within 1 month
2) After 6 months
3) Annually
4) Every 2 years
Annual follow-up radiographs are necessary to monitor the health of the crown and surrounding structures.
A patient presents with a history of using an old diamond bur. What consequence might arise from this?
A. Faster cutting
B. Excessive heat generation
C. Reduced pain during procedures
D. Improved tooth surface finish
Using an old diamond bur can lead to inadequate cutting efficiency, forcing the dentist to apply excessive pressure which generates excessive heat—this can damage the dental pulp.
Losartan is commonly preferred over ACE inhibitors in patients who experience:
1) Dry mouth
2) Cough
3) Hyperkalemia
4) Bradycardia
Patients who develop a cough with ACE inhibitors may be switched to an ARB like Losartan, which does not cause this side effect.
According to the specific plaque hypothesis, which of the following
bacteria is NOT associated with a specific type of dental caries?
1) Streptococcus mutans - enamel caries
2) Lactobacillus - dentinal caries
3) Actinomyces - root caries
4) Escherichia coli - enamel caries
The specific plaque hypothesis links Streptococcus mutans to enamel caries, Lactobacillus to dentinal caries, and Actinomyces to root caries. Escherichia coli is not mentioned as a main cause of dental caries in this context.
What is the correct order for removing PPE after treating a patient?
1) Gloves, mask, gown
2) Gown, gloves, mask
3) Mask, gown, gloves
4) Gloves, gown, mask
The correct order for removing PPE is to first remove and dispose
of the gloves, then the gown, and finally the mask to prevent contact with
potentially contaminated surfaces.
The drug currently in wide use for treating opioid dependent individuals 1. methadone 2. pentazocine 3. alphaprodine 4. meperidine
Pharmacology Answer: 1The drug currently in wide use for treating opioid dependent individuals is metahdone
Clinically significant drug interaction occurs between pyridoxine and all the following drugs except?
1) Isoniazid
2) Cyclosporine
3) Levodopa
4) Hydralazine
Pyridoxine – drug interactions : INH – induces a pyridoxine deficiency state
Levodopa – pyridoxine promotes peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine – thus it decreases therapeutic action of levodopa in the brain
Oral contraceptive pills – decrease pyridoxine levels in some females
Hydralazine – impairment of pyridoxine utilisation
4-deoxy pyridoxine – pyridoxine antagonist
What is the legal obligation of a dentist when they suspect a patient is a victim of abuse or neglect?
1) To report the suspicion to the authorities immediately
2) To advise the patient to report the abuse themselves
3) To maintain confidentiality and not take any action
4) To conduct a thorough investigation before reporting
Dentists are mandated reporters and must report any suspicion of abuse or neglect to the appropriate authorities immediately.
Who checks if there is a written protocol for radiation protection in the clinic?
1) The dentist
2) The radiation protection supervisor
3) The clinic manager
4) The health and safety officer
The radiation protection supervisor is responsible for ensuring that protocols are in place and adhered to for the safety of both patients and staff.
What is the best way to communicate with a patient who has an intellectual disability?
1) Using medical jargon to assert authority
2) Using simple language and visual aids
3) Ignoring the patient and speaking only to their caregiver
4) Relying on nonverbal cues from the patient
Communicating with a patient with an intellectual disability requires patience and clarity.
What is least important for the success of a post?
1) Diameter
2) Material
3) Luting agent
4) Length
While the luting agent is important, the diameter, material, and length of the post are more critical factors influencing the success of the post in retaining the restoration.
The primary mandibular central incisors usually erupt at 1. 6-8 months 2. 2 years 3. 10 - 13 months 4. 52 - 72 weeks
Dental Anatomy Answer: 1The primary mandibular central incisors usually erupt at 6-8 months
What is the purpose of Formocresol in pulpotomy?
1) Remove bacteria from the pulp chamber.
2) Prevent further decay of the tooth.
3) Promote the formation of dentin.
4) Seal the pulp chamber after amputation.
Formocresol is used to sterilize the pulp chamber after amputation, reducing the risk of infection.
Not true regarding sevoflurane:
1) MAC is higher than isoflurane
2) Blood gas coefficient is higher than desflurane
3) Potency more than isoflurane
4) Sevoflurane is less cardio depressant than isoflurane
Sevoflurane is less cardio depressant than isoflurane.
Most potent inhaled anaesthetic is:
- Halothane
- Isoflurane
- Sevoflurane
- Desflurane
Among the inhalational agents used commonly, halothane is most potent (MAC 0.74%) while isoflurane and sevoflurane have moderate potency (1.15% and 2.0% respectively) and desflurane has low potency (MAC 6.0%).
While combining NaOCH and H2O2 as irrigants
1) H2O2 should be used last
2) NaOCH should be used last
3) First irrigation should be done by normal saline
4) NaOCH and H2O2 should never be used simultaneously
Because residual H2O2 might react with debris and produce gas that can cause continuous pain.
Which of the following acids is commonly used for etching enamel surfaces? 1. Citric acid 2. Hydrochloric acid 3. Phosphoric acid 4. Picric acid
Dental Material Answer: 3Phosphoric acid is used for etching enamel
Which of the following is the first drug to be prescribed in status asthmaticus?
1) Salbutamol
2) Humidified oxygen inhalation
3) Hydrocortisone hemisuccinate
4) Sodium bicarbonate infusion
Pharmacology Answer: 3
Status asthmaticus/Refractory asthma Any patient of asthma is susceptible to develop acute severe asthma which may be life-threatening.
(i) Hydrocortisone hemisuccinate 100 mg (or equivalent dose of another glucocorticoid) i.v. stat, followed by 100-200 mg 4-8 hourly infusion; may take upto 6 hours to act.
(ii) Nebulized salbutamol (2.5-5 mg) + ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg) intermittent inhalations driven by O2 .
(iii) High flow humidified oxygen inhalation
(iv) Salbutamol/terbutaline 0.4 mg i.m./s.c. may be added since inhaled drug might not get to smaller bronchi owing to severe narrowing/plugging with secretions
(v) Intubation and mechanical ventilation if needed
(vi) intensive antibiotic therapy to be used for treating chest infection
(vii) Treat dehydration and acidosis with saline + sod. Bicarbonate/lactate infusion.
Drug implicated for prolonging QT interval in a premature baby is :
1) Domperidone
2) Metoclopramide
3) Cisapride
4) Omeprazole
Cisapride can cause QT prolongation when administered along with drugs like ketoconazole which inhibit hepatic cytochrome p-450 CYP 3A4 enzyme.
Tongue is protruded by Genioglossus
The transfer of stress by tensile action in bone promotes:
1) Bone loss
2) Bone growth and maintenance
3) Bone weakness
4) No effect on bone health
ADC Test Answer: 2
The tensile action stimulates bone growth and helps maintain bone structure within physiological limits.
There are some enzymes that cause protein to coagulate rather than to produce simpler compund These are known as 1. lab enzymes 2. coagulase 3. proteolytic enzymes 4. enmycin
Microbiology Answer: 1There are some enzymes that cause protein to coagulate rather than to produce simpler compund These are known as lab enzymes
The sounds "S," "Z," and "che" are produced when:
1) The teeth are widely apart
2) The teeth barely touch
3) The lips are tightly closed
4) The tongue is elevated
The sounds "S," "Z," and "che" are sibilant sounds, which are produced by forcing air through a narrow space between the tongue and the teeth. The teeth do not completely occlude (touch) during the articulation of these sounds. Instead, they are positioned in a way that allows a thin stream of air to flow, creating the characteristic hissing sound. This requires precise coordination between the tongue and the teeth, particularly the tongue and the alveolar ridge (the bony ridge behind the upper incisors).
If the edgewise bracket is not pressed completely on to a tooth on the mesial side while bonding, the side effect would be
1. intrusion
2. extrusion
3. rotation
4. breakage of bracket
we are applying force distally only..force vector will rotate the tooth distally
Nonselective beta blocker possessing quinidine-like membrane stabilizing effects.
1) pindolol
2) acebutolol
3) sotalol
4) esmolol
Beta-blockers, such as propranolol, labetalol, and pindolol, can have membrane stabilizing effects (eg, quinidinelike effects, Vaughan-Williams class I antiarrhythmic effects).
What is the primary mechanism by which fluoride helps prevent dental caries?
1) It acts as an antibiotic.
2) It increases the pH of saliva.
3) It inhibits the demineralization of enamel.
4) It promotes remineralization of enamel.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Fluoride forms a protective layer on the tooth enamel that inhibits the activity of bacterial enzymes responsible for demineralization, thereby preventing dental caries.
Which of the following is used for the treatment of chlamydia infection in pregnancy?
1) Tetracycline
2) Erythromycin
3) Azithromycin
4) Doxycycline
Azithromycin Preferred agent for treatment of chlamydia infection in pregnancy in azithromycin.
It is given as a single dose of 1g leading to high compliance rate.
Which antihypertensive class includes drugs that may cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect?
1) Beta-blockers
2) ACE inhibitors
3) Calcium channel blockers
4) ARBs
Calcium channel blockers, such as Amlodipine, are associated with gingival hyperplasia.
The essential ingredient of dental inlay investment are :
1) Quartz, cristobalite
2) β hemihydrate
3) α hemihydrate
4) Ammonium phosphate
The essential ingredients of the dental inlay investment employed with the conventional gold casting alloys are a-hemihydrate of gypsum, quartz, or cristobalite, which are allotropic forms of silica.
To give inferior alveolar nerve block, the nerve is approached lateral to pterygomandibular raphe between the buccinator and:
1) Temporalis
2) Superior constrictor
3) Middle constrictor
4) Medial pterygoid
Local Anesthesia Answer: 2
Superior constrictor Mandibular nerve (and hence inferior alveolar, All auriculotemporal, lingual and buccal) is blocked posterior o lateral pterygoid plate.
What is the difference between fluorapatite and carbonate substituted
hydroxyapatite?
1) Fluorapatite is less soluble than carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite
2) Fluorapatite is more soluble than carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite
3) They have the same solubility
4) Fluorapatite does not occur in tooth structure
Fluorapatite is a form of hydroxyapatite that has incorporated fluoride ions, which makes it more resistant to acid attacks and thus less soluble compared to carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite.
What is the primary feature of the double-blind method in clinical trials?
1) Both the patient and the researcher know the treatment being administered.
2) Only the patient knows the treatment being administered.
3) Neither the patient nor the researcher knows the treatment being administered.
4) The researcher knows the treatment, but the patient does not.
The double-blind method is designed to eliminate bias by ensuring that neither the participants nor the researchers know which treatment is being given, thus maintaining the integrity of the study.
Unilateral numbness of the chin is associated with
1) malignancy.
2) Bell's palsy.
3) apical abscess.
4) trigeminal neuralgia
Numb chin syndrome occurs due to pressure on the mental nerve, often caused by
metastatic malignancies such as breast or lung cancer.
It serves as a potential warning sign of cancer progression.
Diffusion hypoxia is caused by:
1) Ether
2) Halothane
3) N2O
4) Trielene
Nitrous oxide (N2O) can cause diffusion hypoxia when its delivery is stopped, as it displaces oxygen in the alveoli.
What is the minimum platelet level at which dental extractions can be safely performed?
1) 50 x 109/L
2) 75 x 109/L
3) 100 x 109/L
4) 150 x 109/L
Surgical procedures can be performed if platelet levels are above 50 x 109/L.
Heparin
1) is a glycosaminoglycan
2) potentiates thrombin
3) has a half life of 3-4 hours
4) is normally given IM
GlycosaminoglycAnswer (GAGs) are heteropolysaccharides.
What is the recommended fluoride treatment for a geriatric patient with high
caries risk?
1) Fluoride toothpaste only
2) Fluoride varnish
3) Systemic fluoride supplements
4) No fluoride treatment
Fluoride varnish is effective in reducing caries risk and is
particularly useful for geriatric patients due to its ease of application and
retention on teeth.
What type of discharge is typically associated with vesiculobullous lesions?
1) Purulent
2) Bloody
3) Serous
4) Foul-smelling
Vesiculobullous lesions often present with a serous discharge, which is a clear, yellowish fluid resulting from the inflammatory response.
A dentist is using a Sof-Lex disc on an upper molar and lacks finger support. What is most likely to occur?
1) Gingival trauma
2) Mucosal burn
3) Mucosal trauma
4) Trauma to adjacent tooth
5) Gingival laceration
Lack of finger support while using a Sof-Lex disc can lead to improper control, resulting in potential trauma to the gingiva.
The first heart sound relates to 1. Closure of the A-V valves 2. Opening of the A-V valves 3. Excitation of the auricles 4. Closure of the aortic valve
Physiology Answer: 2The first heart sound relates to Opening of the A-V valves
What is the maximum safe dose of lidocaine for a 70 kg patient?
1) 308 mg
2) 220 mg
3) 440 mg
4) 154 mg
The maximum dose of lidocaine is 4.4 mg/kg.
A child presents with multiple bruises in various stages of healing. What should the healthcare provider do first?
1) Ask the child how they got the bruises
2) Report the findings to child protective services
3) Document the injuries and schedule a follow-up
4) Contact the parents for an explanation
When a child presents with signs of potential abuse, the healthcare provider should report the findings to child protective services immediately.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) Trigger zones
2) Night pain
3) Sudden onset of pain
4) Pain during chewing
Trigeminal neuralgia typically presents with sudden, severe facial pain triggered by specific stimuli, but it is not characterized by night pain.
What is the primary purpose of maintaining accurate dental records?
1) To fulfill insurance requirements
2) To support patient care and legal compliance
3) To reduce administrative costs
4) To improve marketing strategies
Accurate dental records are essential for providing quality patient care and ensuring compliance with legal and regulatory requirements.
Which cement is more susceptible to failure if contaminated with saliva?
1) Resin cement
2) Glass ionomer cement
3) Zinc phosphate cement
4) Glass ionomer cement (GIC)
GIC is particularly sensitive to contamination with saliva, which can compromise its bonding ability.
A successful inferior alveolar nerve block will produce anesthesia of the?
1) Lower lip and mandibular teeth.
2) Lower lip.
3) Lower lip, mandibular teeth and labial gingivae of the anterior mandibular teeth
4) Lower lip, mandibular teeth and labial gingivae of the anterior and buccal gingivae of the posterior mandibular teeth.
A successful inferior alveolar nerve block will produce anesthesia of the lower lip, mandibular teeth, and labial gingivae of the anterior mandibular teeth.
What does the presence of Rushton bodies indicate in histological examinations?
1) Bacterial infection
2) Non-odontogenic cyst
3) Odontogenic origin of a cyst
4) Immune response
The identification of Rushton bodies, which are often found in radicular cysts, signifies that the cyst has an odontogenic origin.
What does muscle resistance to insulin in obesity and genetic profile usually
lead to?
1) Type I diabetes
2) Type 2 diabetes
3) Hyperpigmentation
4) Depression
Muscle resistance to insulin in obesity and genetic profile usually leads to type 2 diabetes. This is because insulin resistance occurs when the muscle cells do not respond properly to insulin, resulting in elevated blood sugar levels. Obesity and genetic factors can contribute to the development of insulin resistance, leading to the progression of type 2 diabetes. Hyperpigmentation and depression are not directly related to muscle resistance to insulin in obesity and genetic profile.
The pterygomaxillary fissure is formed by the union of:
1) Sphenoid and maxilla
2) Sphenoid and zygoma
3) Maxilla and palatine
4) Inferior nasal concha and nasal septum
The pterygomaxillary fissure is located between the sphenoid and maxilla bones and serves as a passageway for various structures including blood vessels and nerves.
What is the minimum requirement for the retention of dental records according to the GDC?
- 5 years for adults, 8 years for children
- 8 years for adults, 10 years for children
- 10 years for adults, indefinitely for children
- Different retention periods for each type of treatment
The GDC advises that dental records should be retained for at least 8 years after the last treatment for adults and 10 years for children until the patient reaches 25 years of age or 8 years after the last treatment, whichever is longer.
What hormone increases blood glucose and decreases serum potassium?
1) Insulin
2) Cortisol
3) Glucagon
4) Adrenaline
Cortisol increases blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreases serum potassium levels by enhancing renal excretion.
The auriculotemporal nerve carries some fibers which are . 1. motor to masseter muscle 2. secretory to parotid gland 3. afferent from the carotid body 4. sensory to lining of tympanic cavity
Anatomy Answer: 4The auriculotemporal nerve carries some fibers which are sensory to lining of tympanic cavity
Premature exfoliation of primary mandibular canine is most often the sequelae of:
1) Caries
2) Trauma
3) Serial tooth extraction
4) Arch length inadequacy
SOLUTION The two major symptoms of severe crowding in the early mixed dentition are severe irregularity of the erupting permanent incisors and early loss of primary canines caused by eruption of the permanent lateral incisors.
After a definitive analysis of the profile and incisor position, these patients face the same decision as those with moderate crowding; whether to expand the arches or extract permanent teeth. In the presence of severe crowding, limited treatment of the problem will not be sufficient and permanent tooth extraction is most likely the best alternative.
The nerve damaged if injured at the stylomastoid foramen is:
1) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9)
2) Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN 8)
3) Facial nerve (CN 7)
4) Accessory nerve (CN 11)
The facial nerve exits the cranium through the stylomastoid foramen and is therefore at risk of damage at this location.
What is the suitable restoration approach for a Class III jaw relationship with limited coronal height?
1) Provide a gold onlay
2) Provide a full crown
3) Increase vertical dimension
4) Crown lengthening
An adhesively retained gold onlay is ideal for teeth with limited coronal height due to its ability to conserve tooth structure while providing durability.
A 64-year-old patient with a history of metastatic breast cancer presents with loose teeth, dental pain, and swollen gums. What is the most likely causative agent?
1) Osteonecrosis of the left mandible
2) Long-term use of bisphosphonates
3) Osteomyelitis
4) Periodontal disease
Patients on long-term bisphosphonates for metastatic cancer are at risk for osteonecrosis of the jaw, which can present with loose teeth and swelling.
Which of the following analyses is most appropriate for use in an adult patient?
1) Moyers.
2) Bolton.
3) Tanaka-Johnston.
4) all of the above.
The Bolton analysis is most appropriate for use in adult
patients to determine the fit and proportion of teeth. It is a method of
measuring the mesiodistal and buccolingual dimensions of teeth to ensure that
the upper and lower teeth are in harmony. The other options, such as Moyers and
Tanaka-Johnston, are more commonly used for children and adolescents to assess
tooth size and arch dimensions.
What is the importance of maintaining confidentiality in dental records?
- It is not important as long as the records are accurate
- It encourages patient honesty and trust in the dentist-patient relationship
- It is only important for insurance purposes
- It is only relevant for HIPAA compliance
Confidentiality is crucial for fostering a relationship of trust and respect between the patient and the dental team.
Acute or subacute suppurative osteomyelitis occurs most frequently in the
1) anterior maxilla
2) posterior mandible.
3) posterior maxilla
4) anterior mandible.
The posterior mandible is more susceptible due to its dense cortical bone and
reduced blood supply, which hinder immune responses.
Which of the following is a key component of informed consent?
1) The
healthcare provider's opinion on the treatment
2) The patient's medical history
3) The risks and benefits of the proposed treatment
4) The cost of the treatment
A key component of informed consent is providing the patient with information about the risks and benefits associated with the proposed treatment.
How many grams of high-density noble metal alloy is required for casting of a molar?
1) 3 gms
2) 6 gms
3) 9 gms
4) 12 gms
With high-density noble metal alloy 6 grams is adequate for premolar and anterior castings, 9 grams is adequate for molar casting and 12 grams is adequate for pontics.
The diagnosis for a patient having a sinus tract associated with a nonvital pulp
who presents with no symptoms is
1) acute apical abscess (acute periradicular abscess).
2) asymptomatic apical periodontitis (chronic periradicular periodontitis).
3) periodontal abscess.
4) chronic apical abcess (chronic periradicular abscess).
Chronic apical abscesses typically present with sinus tracts and minimal symptoms
Which antibiotic is contraindicated in lactating mothers?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Tetracyclines
3) Penicillin
4) Clindamycin
Tetracyclines are contraindicated in lactating mothers due to the risk of affecting the infant's teeth and bone development.
If a 4th root canal is present in a maxillary 1st molar, it will likely be located in which of the following roots?
1) Mesiolingual
2) Mesiobuccal
3) Distolingual
4) Distofacial
Well over 50% of maxillary 1st molars have two canals in the mesiobuccal root.
There are usually 3 roots and 4 canals in a maxillary 1st molar.
The fourth canal, the mesiolingual canal, is also referred to as: the accessory mesiobuccal canal, mesiocentric, mesiopalatal canal or MB2.
It is usually tough to find MB2 through clinical inspection and it is not obvious on a radiograph. A dentist should expect it is present before beginning a root canal on the first maxillary molar.
What is the most effective way to manage dental anxiety in patients?
1) Sedation dentistry
2) Distraction techniques
3) Open communication
4) All of the above
Managing dental anxiety can be effectively achieved through a combination of sedation dentistry, distraction techniques, and open communication between the dentist and the patient to address concerns and fears.
Which antihypertensive medication type may cause gingival hyperplasia? 1) ACE inhibitors 2) Beta-blockers 3) Calcium channel blockers 4) Diuretics
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 3Calcium channel blockers, like Amlodipine, are known to cause gingival hyperplasia.
What neurotransmitter is responsible for closing pre-capillary sphincters?
1) Acetylcholine
2) Serotonin
3) Nor-adrenaline
4) Substance P
Nor-adrenaline is responsible for vasoconstriction and can close pre-capillary sphincters, regulating blood flow.
Laminar flow is mainly dependent on:
1) Density
2) Viscosity
3) Solubility
4) Molecular weight
Laminar flow mainly depends on viscosity of gas while turbulent flow is more dependent on density.
The advantage of the lingual split technique for the extraction of impacted
mandibular third molar teeth is/are:
1) Bone loss is minimal
2) Easy and quick method
3) Tissue trauma is minimal
4) All of the above
The lingual split technique, introduced by Sir William Kelsey Fry, is advantageous because it minimizes bone loss and tissue trauma during the extraction of impacted mandibular third molars. This technique allows for a more conservative approach, preserving surrounding structures while facilitating the removal of the tooth, making it a preferred method in many cases.
Lip cancer survival rates are generally:
1) Higher in black males
2) Higher in white females
3) Higher in Hispanic males
4) Higher in Asian females
Lip cancer survival rates are influenced by various factors, including the stage of the cancer at diagnosis, the individual's health, and the effectiveness of treatment. Although the question implies that white females have the highest survival rates, it's essential to note that survival rates can be different across different populations. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in lip cancer, regardless of ethnicity.
Methemoglobinemia caused by?
1) Procaine
2) Prilocaine
3) Etidocaine
4) Ropivacaine
Methemoglobinemia is mainly caused by prilocaine but can also be caused by benzocaine and rarely reported with lignocaine.
What should be included in a patient's medical history in dental records?
1) Patient's favorite food
2) List of systemic diseases and medications
3) Patient's hobbies
4) Financial status
A thorough medical history should include relevant health information that can impact dental treatment.
What is the purpose of a biosafety cabinet in a dental laboratory?
1) To provide a sterile work environment
2) To protect the technician from inhaling dust
3) To prevent cross-contamination
4) To store sterile materials
A biosafety cabinet provides a controlled environment with laminar
airflow to protect the technician and the materials from cross-contamination
during procedures involving infectious materials.
For composite resin preparations, cavosurface enamel margins are bevelled because
1. A bevelled margin produces a more favorable surface for etching.
2. A bevelled margin improves the edge strength of the composite resin.
3. After etching, the bonding agent reduces microleakage.
4. The procedure eliminates the need to polish the restoration.
1) (1) (2) (3)
2) (1) and (3)
3) (2) and (4)
4) (4) only
Beveling the margins of a cavity preparation for composite resin has specific benefits:
- Favorable surface for etching: A bevelled margin increases the surface area for bonding and improves the etching process.
- Reduces microleakage: Proper bonding after etching can help seal the margins and reduce the risk of microleakage.
- Edge strength: While beveling can improve aesthetics and bonding, the primary reasons are related to etching and sealing.
What hormone increases blood glucose and decreases potassium?
1) Insulin
2) Cortisol
3) Glucagon
4) Adrenaline
Cortisol increases blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreases serum potassium levels by enhancing renal excretion.
An unstable membrane potential that will spontaneously depolarize is a property of which type of muscle? 1. Cardiac only 2. Cardiac and smooth 3. Skeletal and smooth 4. Skeletal and cardiac
Physiology Answer: 2An unstable membrane potential that will spontaneously depolarize is a property of Cardiac and smooth muscles
Lignocaine can be used in all, except:
1) Ventricular fibrillation
2) Spinal anaesthesia
3) Epidural
4) Convulsions
Lignocaine rather in toxic doses can produce convulsion.
What is the recommended method for storing dental records?
- In a cardboard box in the office
- In a secure, climate-controlled room
- With the patient's financial records
- In an unlocked drawer
Dental records should be kept in a secure and controlled environment to prevent damage or unauthorized access.
What is the primary method of preventing the spread of infectious diseases in the dental office?
1) Use of antimicrobial mouth rinses
2) Environmental cleaning and disinfection
3) Immunization of dental personnel
4) Use of hand sanitizers
While all the options listed are important in infection control, environmental cleaning and disinfection is the primary method of preventing the spread of infectious diseases in the dental office.
After completion of root canal therapy on a maxillary first premolar with
moderate mesial and distal lesions and intact buccal and lingual surfaces, the
restoration of choice is a/an
1) MOD composite resin.
2) MOD onlay.
3) MOD pin retained amalgam.
4) MOD bonded amalgam.
An onlay provides superior protection and strength for teeth with compromised structure, especially on premolars.
Lactobacillus is an acidogenic genus found in deep dental caries, that often increases significantly in the saliva during periods of caries activity
Which is harder?
1) Amalgam.
2) Composite.
3) Type IV gold.
4) Glass ionomer.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Type IV gold is the hardest material compared to amalgam, composite, or glass ionomer.
A patient reveals to the dental hygienist that they are being physically abused at home. What should the hygienist do first?
1) Encourage the patient to confront the abuser
2) Report the abuse to the authorities
3) Offer to provide the patient with resources for help
4) Keep the information confidential
The hygienist is a mandated reporter and must report any disclosures of abuse to ensure the patient's safety.
What is a key benefit of using electronic dental records (EDR) over traditional paper records?
1) Increased storage space
2) Improved access and easy retrieval
3) More paperwork
4) Higher costs
EDR systems enhance the ability to access and retrieve patient information quickly and efficiently compared to paper records.
Whom to contact if there is a 20% increase in radiation dose?
1) The clinic manager
2) The radiation protection advisor
3) The health and safety officer
4) The dental board
The radiation protection advisor should be contacted to assess and address any significant increases in radiation exposure.
Which ion acts as a second messenger?
1) Sodium
2) Potassium
3) Calcium
4) Magnesium
Calcium ions serve as important second messengers in various cellular signaling pathways, facilitating communication within and between cells.
What is the minimum recommended level of surface barrier protection for
dental chair surfaces?
1) High-level disinfection
2) Intermediate-level disinfection
3) Low-level disinfection
4) No specific level is required
Intermediate-level disinfection is recommended for non-critical, semi-critical surfaces like dental chair surfaces, which come into contact with intact skin or mucous membranes but not with blood, body fluids, or other potentially infectious materials.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an ideal abutment tooth?
1) Equal or more than half alveolar bone support
2) Strong connectors
3) Compromised periodontal health
4) Good crown to root ratio
Compromised periodontal health is typically a reason to avoid using a tooth as an abutment.
Which soft palate muscle is not affected by a laceration of the mucosa
1 cm lingual to the 2nd maxillary molar?
1) Tensor veli palatini
2) Palatoglossus
3) Palatopharyngeus
4) Levator veli palatini
A laceration of the mucosa 1 cm lingual to the 2nd maxillary molar is unlikely to damage the levator veli palatini as it is located above the palatoglossal fold.
What is the primary purpose of informed consent in dentistry?
1) To protect the dentist from legal liability
2) To ensure the patient understands and voluntarily agrees to the proposed
treatment
3) To provide the patient with financial information about the treatment
4) To obtain the patient's signature for insurance purposes
Informed consent is a process where the dentist communicates with the patient about the diagnosis, the risks and benefits of the proposed treatment, alternative treatment options, and the patient's right to refuse or withdraw consent. The primary goal is to empower the patient to make an informed decision regarding their dental care.
All of the following drugs cross the placenta except?
1) Phenytoin
2) Diazepam
3) Morphine
4) Heparin
Heparin Heparin does not the cross the placenta. Hence its safe for use in pregnant patients who need anticoagulation.
Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage expected from tissue that is:
1) Fibroedematous
2) Edematous
3) Fibrotic
4) Formed within an infrabony pocket
Edematous tissue contains excess fluid, which can lead to greater shrinkage after curettage compared to fibrotic tissue, which is denser and less likely to shrink significantly.
Hyperthermia can be seen with:
1) Lithium toxicity
2) Opium withdrawal
3) Malignant neuroleptic syndrome
4) Eclampsia
Malignant neuroleptic syndrome (caused by phenothiazine) is one of the usual causes of hyperthermia in anaesthesia.
Which material is more hydrophilic: PVS or polyether?
1) PVS
2) Polyether
3) Both are equally hydrophilic
4) Neither is hydrophilic
Polyether is generally considered more hydrophilic compared to PVS (polyvinyl siloxane). Hydrophilic materials, like polyether, readily absorb water or are soluble in water, which can be advantageous in certain dental applications, such as improving the quality of impressions in moist environments or enhancing the bond between the material and the oral tissues. PVS, on the other hand, is a type of elastomeric impression material that is less hydrophilic but more accurate and easier to handle.
Before restoring a tooth with composite, the area is etched. Accidental contamination occurs with saliva, Therefore
1) the area is re-etched before restoration
2) the area is air-dried using an air spray and continue with restoring
3) wipe the saliva with cotton and continue to restore.
4) add excess composie material and cure it
Etching of tooth surface with 37% phosphoric acid creates microporosities in the enamel and dentin.
After etching the surface energy of the enamel will increase. This will make it very sticky to any kind of contaminants. If salivary contamination will occur, the salivary proteins will precipitate in the microporosities. This will prevent the adequate penetration of the bonding agent, therby reducing the micotag formation. Hence, complete isolation is essential.
Which of the following is an example of implied consent?
1) A patient signing
a consent form for surgery
2) A patient verbally agreeing to a dental cleaning
3) A patient nodding in agreement when asked if they understand the procedure
4) A patient refusing to undergo a procedure
Implied consent occurs when a patient’s actions suggest agreement without formal documentation.
Which of the following is a physical sign that a dental patient may be a victim
of abuse?
1) A history of poor oral hygiene
2) Multiple missing teeth
3) Evidence of previous dental restorations
4) Inconsistent explanations of dental injuries
Explanation: While poor oral hygiene and missing teeth can be indicators of
neglect, they are not exclusively signs of abuse. However, if a patient provides
inconsistent explanations for their injuries, it may raise suspicion of abuse. Dentists should be attentive to the patient's history and any inconsistencies
that could suggest intentional harm.
What is the first step in managing trismus?
1) Prescribing muscle relaxants
2) Applying heat to the affected area
3) Administering corticosteroids
4) Performing surgical intervention
Initial treatment for trismus includes applying heat and administering anti-inflammatory medications to reduce muscle spasm.
Typical features of Down’s syndrome (Mongolism) do not include:
1) Multiple immunodeficiencies
2) Severe caries but minimal periodontal disease
3) Susceptibility to infections
4) Multiple missing teeth and malocclusion
ADC Test Answer: 2
Individuals with Down syndrome often exhibit a higher incidence of periodontal disease rather than minimal periodontal issues.
After performing an apicoectomy, which of the following should be placed in the
bony defect prior to suturing the flap?
1) Corticosteroids.
2) Nothing.
3) Oxidized cellulose.
4) Bone wax.
In most cases, after an apicoectomy, it is standard practice to leave the bony defect empty (nothing placed) to allow for natural healing and bone regeneration. The area is typically sutured closed without the addition of materials, as this can promote better healing and reduce the risk of complications.
A retrograde filling is indicated
1) when the apical foramen cannot be sealed by conventional endodontics.
2) when a root perforation needs to be sealed
3) when conventional endodontics is impractical.
4) All of the above.
Retrograde filling is a procedure used in endodontics to seal the root canal system from the apex when conventional methods are not feasible. This can occur in various situations:
- Apical foramen sealing issues: If the conventional approach fails to adequately seal the apex, a retrograde filling can provide an alternative solution.
- Root perforation: In cases where there is a perforation in the root, retrograde filling can help seal the area and prevent contamination.
- Impracticality of conventional methods: Situations such as complex anatomy or previous failed treatments may necessitate a retrograde approach to ensure proper sealing and treatment success.
Morphine can be used in all the following conditions except:
1) Head injury
2) Asthma
3) Hypothyroidism
4) Diabetes
Morphine is contraindicated in head injury for the following reasons: Causes carbondioxide retention – this in turn increases intracranial tension
Therapeutic doses can cause respiratory depression in head injury patients Vomiting, miosis and altered mentation caused by morphine can interfere with assessment of neurological status
Morphine should be avoided in those with bronchial asthma as it can precipitate an attack of asthma.
A non-synovial joint with dense connective tissue between two bony surfaces is called?
1) Synchondrosis
2) Syndesmosis
3) Symphysis
4) Suture
Sutures are fibrous joints in the skull that are immovable and connected by dense connective tissue, whereas syndesmoses can allow slight movement.
Ability of an orthodontic wire to spring back to Its original shape is evaluated by
1) Brittleness
2) Resilience
3) Tensile strength
4) Toughness
Resilience is the amount of energy absorbed by a structure when it is stressed to proportional Limit.
The elastic area of the stress-strain graph gives resilience; entire area up to breaking point is a measure of toughness.
The slope of straight Line gives Young’s modulus.
What is the purpose of color coding in dental records management?
- To indicate payment status
- To highlight allergies and medical conditions
- To indicate the type of treatment provided
- For aesthetic purposes
Color coding is often used to draw attention to important medical information such as allergies or medical conditions for quick reference.
What is the most common occupational health problem among dentists?
1) Tinnitus
2) Musculoskeletal pain
3) Hypertension
4) Hearing loss
According to the study conducted among dentists in southern Thailand, musculoskeletal pain was the most common occupational health problem, with 78% of the dentists reporting it.
What is the best description of the morphology of periodontal ligament fibers?
1) Elastic
2) Striated
3) Non-striated
4) Wavy
The fibers of the periodontal ligament exhibit a wavy morphology, which allows for flexibility and resilience to the stresses placed on them by occlusion.
The characteristic translucency of the incisal portion of natural teeth, is achieved in porcelain restorations by the addition of 1.body porcelain 2: enamel porcelain 3. aluminous porcelain 4. opaque porcelain
Dental Material Answer: 2The characteristic translucency of the incisal portion of natural teeth, is achieved in porcelain restorations by the addition of enamel porcelain
Trichloroacetic acid, a strong acid, has been used by dentists for chemical cautery of hypertrophic tissue and aphthous ulcers; its mechanism of action is:
1) Thermodynamic action
2) Activation of tissue enzymes
3) Osmotic pressure
4) Protein precipitation
ADC Test Answer: 4
Trichloroacetic acid works by precipitating proteins, which helps in cauterizing tissues and managing lesions.
In a dental practice with multiple practitioners, what must be clearly noted in the patient record?
1) The patient's insurance information
2) The identity of the practitioners rendering treatment
3) The patient's payment history
4) The patient's family medical history
It is important to document which practitioner provided care to ensure accountability and continuity of care.
Cardio stable anaesthetic:
1) Etomidate
2) Propadanil
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopental
Etomidate is considered a cardio-stable anaesthetic.
What is the primary purpose of taking dental impressions?
1) To diagnose dental conditions
2) To create a mold for restorations or orthodontic appliances
3) To monitor teeth movement over time
4) To educate patients about oral hygiene
Dental impressions are taken to create a precise mold of a patient's teeth and surrounding structures. These molds are then used by dental laboratories to fabricate restorations like crowns, bridges, dentures, and orthodontic appliances that fit accurately in the patient's mouth. While impressions can indirectly help in diagnosis, their primary purpose is for the creation of these appliances.
Bone tissue grows by
1) Apposition
2) Interstitial growth
3) Osteoclastic growth
4) Mesenchymal tissue growth
SOLUTION Interstitial growth, simply means that it occurs at all points within the tissue.
For a young adult with tooth surface loss, which treatment option is best?
1) Restorative dentistry
2) Behavioral modification
3) Removal of iatrogenic causes
4) Surgery
Identifying and removing any causes of tooth surface loss, especially those related to dental treatments, is critical in addressing and preventing further damage.
Which of the following is NOT a type of informed consent?
1) Implied consent
2) Verbal consent
3) Written consent
4) Digital consent
The recognized types of informed consent are implied, verbal, and written. Digital consent is not formally recognized as a distinct type.<
What does "informed refusal" refer to in the context of medical and dental
care?
1) When a patient refuses to sign an informed consent form
2) When a patient refuses to proceed with a recommended treatment after being
informed of its benefits and risks
3) When a patient refuses to provide personal health information
4) When a patient refuses to pay for the treatment
When a patient refuses to proceed with a recommended
treatment after being informed of its benefits and risks
Explanation: Informed refusal occurs when a patient has the capacity to make a
decision and has been provided with all necessary information but chooses not to
undergo the treatment.
Fins or spines may be produced on a casting because of 1.cracks in the investment 2. too rapid heating of the mold 3. steam production which causes the walls of the mold to flake off 4. all of the above
Dental Material Answer: 4Fins or spines may be produced on a casting because of 1.cracks in the investment 2. too rapid heating of the mold 3. steam production which causes the walls of the mold to flake off
The following prevent re-uptake of noradrenaline
1) isoprenaline
2) dopamine
3) clomipramine
4) propranolol
Is a TCA- block neuronal uptake of noradrenaline and serotonin.
The location and extent of subgingival calculus is most accurately determined clinically by:
1) Radiopaque solution used in conjunction with radiographs.
2) Disclosing solution.
3) Probing with a fine instrument.
4) Visual inspection.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Probing with a fine instrument allows for the direct evaluation of the periodontal pockets and can provide information about the presence and extent of subgingival calculus.
What is the role of the auditory tube?
1) To equalize pressure in the middle ear
2) To drain fluid from the inner ear
3) To transmit sound waves
4) To protect the ear from infection
The auditory tube (Eustachian tube) connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx, allowing for pressure equalization and drainage of secretions.
Protamine sulphate reverses the effect of
1) Meperidine
2) Atropine
3) Hepartn
4) Strychnine.
Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be associated with irreversible aggregation of platelets and treating venous thromboembolism.
What is the purpose of a personalized consent form in a dental practice?
1) To provide legal protection to the dentist
2) To ensure the patient is fully informed about the procedure
3) To standardize the consent process
4) To limit the patient's options for treatment
A personalized consent form helps tailor the information provided
to the patient's specific treatment, ensuring they are aware of the risks,
benefits, and alternatives before making a decision.
Dens in dente is thought to arise as a result of 1. a normal tooth but enclaved within an other tooth, during formation 2. proliferation and evagination of an area of the inner enamel epithelium 3. extensive growth of mesenchymal cells of pulp tissue 4. an invagination of the enamel organ during tooth formation
Oral Pathology Answer: 4Dens in dente is an invagination of the enamel organ during tooth formation
Thymol is preservative used for:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Desflurane
4) Enflurane
Halothane is stored in amber-colored bottles and contains thymol 0.01% as a preservative to prevent decomposition by light.
What is the first step in the "Tell-Show-Do" technique for explaining a dental procedure to an anxious patient?
1) Show the patient what will happen
2) Describe the sensation the patient might feel
3) Tell the patient what you are going to do
4) Perform the procedure
The Tell-Show-Do technique involves explaining the procedure in simple terms, demonstrating it with a model or the patient's hand, and then performing the actual procedure.
The manufacturer’s maximum recommended number of 1.8ml cartridges of 3%
mepivacaine that may be safely administered to a 65kg adult is
1) 5.
2) 6.
3) 7.
4) 8.
Based on the maximum dose of 6.6 mg/kg, 7 cartridges are within the safe limit for a 65kg adult.
What cement is used to temporarily cement a crown?
1) Glass ionomer cement
2) Resin cement
3) Zinc oxide eugenol (ZOE)
4) Composite resin
ZOE is commonly used for the temporary cementation of crowns due to its ease of use and sedative properties.
Which muscle protrudes the hyoid?
1) Suprahyoids
2) Infrahyoids
3) Geniohyoid
4) Stylohyoid
The hyoid bone is a U-shaped bone located in the neck, just above the larynx.
Brief explanation of the other muscles:
1) Suprahyoids: The suprahyoid muscles are a group of muscles that are situated
superior to the hyoid bone. Their primary function is to elevate the hyoid
during activities like swallowing. They include the digastric, stylohyoid, and
mylohyoid muscles. However, they do not directly protrude the hyoid.
2) Infrahyoids: The infrahyoid muscles are a group of muscles that are situated
inferior to the hyoid bone. They function to depress the hyoid bone during
activities like swallowing and speech. They include the sternohyoid, omohyoid,
thyrohyoid, and geniohyoid muscles.
4) Stylohyoid: The stylohyoid muscle is one of the infrahyoid muscles and it
originates from the styloid process of the temporal bone and inserts into the
lesser cornu and the body of the hyoid bone. Its main function is to elevate and
draw the hyoid bone backward and laterally. It does not directly protrude the
hyoid.
The geniohyoid muscle is the most specific in its action to protrude the hyoid
bone .
Why is it important to conduct a medication review for geriatric patients
before dental treatment?
1) To identify affordable treatment options
2) To assess for drug interactions
3) To increase the number of visits
4) To speed up the treatment process
A medication review is essential to identify potential drug
interactions that could affect treatment outcomes and management strategies.
What is the recommended technique for removing bone during an extraction to prevent bone necrosis?
1) High-speed handpiece with continuous coolant irrigation
2) Chisel and mallet with manual pressure
3) Surgical bone saw
4) Laser bone removal
Using a high-speed handpiece with continuous coolant irrigation allows for precise bone removal and minimizes thermal necrosis of the bone.
The development of lateral canals can be attributed to:
1) Faulty restoration technique
2) Cracks in Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath
3) Genetic anomalies
4) External dental trauma
ADC Test Answer: 2
Lateral canals form due to disruptions in the Hertwig's epithelial root sheath during tooth root development, creating additional channels in the root structure.
What type of respiratory protection is recommended for dental personnel
during aerosol-producing procedures?
1) N95 mask
2) Surgical mask
3) Powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR)
4) Full-face respirator
N95 masks are recommended for dental personnel during
aerosol-producing procedures as they provide a higher level of protection
against airborne particles compared to surgical masks. PAPRs and full-face
respirators may be used in certain situations, but N95 masks are sufficient for
most dental procedures.
What is the most frequent site of endocarditis?
1) Aortic valve
2) Mitral valve
3) Tricuspid valve
4) Pulmonary valve
Endocarditis most commonly affects the mitral valve, especially in patients without a history of intravenous drug use.
What is the primary function of salivary IgA?
1) To neutralize bacterial toxins
2) To prevent bacterial adhesion to tooth surfaces
3) To initiate the immune response against caries-causing bacteria
4) To provide a source of calcium for remineralization
Salivary IgA is an antibody that specifically targets bacteria in the mouth, helping to prevent their colonization and the initiation of the caries process.
Elgiloy arch wire is a 1. Cobalt chromium nickel alloy 2. Gold alloy 3. Optical fiber arch wire 4. Beta titanium arch wire
Dental Material Answer: 1Elgiloy arch wire is a Cobalt chromium nickel alloy
What suture material is used on lips?
1) Prolene
2) Nylon
3) Vicryl
4) Both 1 and 2
Prolene and nylon are both commonly used suture materials for lip closures due to their strength and minimal tissue reaction.
A zinc-containing amalgam that has been contaminated by moisture will manifest A. higher setting expansion B. a gross delayed expansion C. reduced compressive strength D. an increase in the amount of gamma phase 1. A and B 2. B and C 3. C 4. C and D
Dental Material Answer: 2A zinc-containing amalgam that has been contaminated by moisture will result in delayed expansion and reduced compressive strength
During which stage of caries can a lesion be detected using transillumination?
1) White spot lesion
2) Dentinal caries
3) Enamel caries
4) Advanced cavitation
Transillumination is most effective in detecting interproximal caries, particularly enamel lesions, as the light can penetrate and highlight changes in the tooth structure at these early stages.
For carious lesions, which diagnostic method is appropriate?
1) Carious halfway through enamel on proximal surface – Bitewing
2) Carious halfway through enamel on occlusal surface – Visual exam
3) Carious halfway through dentine not cavitated – Wet surface
4) Stained fissure – Bitewing and visual exam
Each diagnostic method is appropriate for the specific type of carious lesion described.
Defluoridation of water can be done by:
1)
Lime and alum
2)
Bleaching powders
3)
Potassium permanganate
4)
Sodium chloride
One of the most effective methods for defluoridation is the Nalgonda
technique, which involves the use of lime, alum, and bleaching powder.
When treating a special needs patient, what is the most important initial step?
1) Begin treatment immediately
2) Obtain a detailed medical history
3) Discuss treatment costs
4) Schedule a follow-up appointment
A detailed medical history helps identify any special considerations, medication interactions, and the patient's specific needs before treatment.
Shortest duration local anaesthetic is:
1) Chloroprocaine
2) Bupivacaine
3) Lignocaine
4) Procaine
Shortest duration local anaesthetic is chloroprocaine with duration of effect only 15-30 minutes.
Tourniquet cannot be released before ....... minutes after Beir's block
1) 5 minutes
2) 10 minutes
3) 30 minutes
4) 60 minutes
Local Anesthesia Answer: 3
30 minutes Tourniquet once inflated and drug given, it cannot be released before half an hour as it is assumed that it takes this much time for drug to be completely out of vascular compartment.
A picture of the gingiva of a black person with melanin pigmentation and a white line across the central incisors. What is the cause of the white line?
1) Amelogenesis imperfecta
2) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
3) Hypo-mineralization
4) Fluorosis
The white line is likely due to hypo-mineralization, which can occur due to various factors, including nutritional deficiencies or environmental influences.
The drug of choice for the treatment of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy is?
1 Carbimazole
2 Iodine therapy
3 Propylthiouracil
4 Metimazole
Thyroid inhibitors b) Inhibit iodine trapping (ionic inhibitors): Thiocyanates, Perchlorates, Nitrates. c) Inhibit hormone release: Iodine, NaI, Kl
a) Inhibit hormone synthesis (anti thyroid drugs): Propylthiouracil, Methimazole, Carbimazole
d) Destroy thyroid tissue: Radioactive iodine
What is more likely to happen to an interproximal composite filling rather than amalgam?
1) Fracture
2) Polymerization shrinkage
3) Marginal leakage
4) Discoloration
Composite materials are more prone to polymerization shrinkage, which can lead to gaps and sensitivity compared to amalgam.
At what gestational week does the development of the parotid gland begin?
1) 6 weeks
2) 12 weeks
3) 20 weeks
4) 24 weeks
The parotid gland begins to develop in utero around the 6th week, making it the first of the major salivary glands to form.
What is the primary concern when using templates for dental records?
- Lack of flexibility
- High cost of implementation
- Limited accessibility for patients
- Requires advanced IT skills
While templates can help organize information, the primary concern is that they may not capture all individual aspects of a patient's case or allow for the nuances of personalized care.
Least alteration of cardiovascular status is seen with:
1) Enflurane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Halothane
Isoflurane has a greater margin of cardiovascular safety compared to other inhalational agents.
Regarding hand washing, which of the following is true?
1) Alcohol is the only effective agent
2) Chlorhexidine gel is used for surgical hand washing
3) Povidone iodine is not effective
4) Hand washing is not necessary before procedures
Chlorhexidine gel is an effective antiseptic used in surgical hand washing, along with alcohol and povidone iodine.
What is the primary mode of transmission for hepatitis B in a dental
setting?
1) Respiratory droplets
2) Bloodborne pathogens
3) Fomites
4) Airborne particles
Hepatitis B is mainly transmitted through blood and other bodily
fluids. In a dental setting, the risk of transmission is highest through
exposure to contaminated sharp instruments, needlesticks, and mucosal contact
with infectious materials.
What is the primary factor that influences the ease of removing an impacted third molar?
1) The depth of impaction
2) The age of the patient
3) The angulation of the tooth
4) The patient's pain tolerance
The angulation of the tooth significantly affects the difficulty of extraction, with certain angles (like mesinangular impaction) being easier to manage compared to others (like distoangular impaction).
Which type of tumor is characterized by having a "cribriform" or "Swiss cheese" pattern?
1) Acinic cell carcinoma
2) Adenocystic carcinoma
3) Burkitt's lymphoma
4) Pleomorphic adenoma
Adenocystic carcinoma is known for its cribriform pattern and often invades surrounding tissues, including nerve sheaths.
Drug of choice for ventricular arrhythmias induced by bupivacaine:
1) Bretylium tosylate
2) Lignocaine
3) Nifedipine
4) Verapamil
Bupivacaine has got high cardiotoxic potential.
What happens to the solubility of hydroxyapatite when it undergoes carbonate
substitution?
1) It increases
2) It decreases
3) It remains the same
4) It becomes insoluble
Carbonate substitution in hydroxyapatite increases its solubility, making it more susceptible to decay.
Which two teeth can only be removed by rotation?
1) Maxillary central incisors and mandibular central incisors
2) Maxillary second premolars and mandibular first molars
3) Maxillary central incisors and mandibular second premolars
4) Maxillary first molars and mandibular central incisors
These teeth have single roots and are not multi-rooted, allowing for removal by rotation only.
What artery provides nourishment to the TMJ?
1) Superficial temporal artery
2) Maxillary artery
3) Facial artery
4) Inferior alveolar artery
The superficial temporal artery, a branch of the maxillary artery, provides blood supply to the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).
What is the ideal angle for subgingival curettage with universal curettes?
1) 45 degrees
2) 60 degrees
3) 70 degrees
4) 90 degrees
A 45-degree angle is optimal for subgingival curettage, allowing effective scaling while preserving soft tissue.
What type of consent is required for a simple buccal pit restoration?
1) Implied consent
2) Verbal consent
3) Written consent
4) Informed refusal
Implied consent is sufficient for routine and non-invasive
procedures, such as a simple buccal pit restoration, as it is assumed the
patient agrees to the treatment based on their cooperation during the process.
Least likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with amide or ester local anesthetics.?
1) Tetracaine (pontocaine)
2) Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
3) Dyclonine (Dyclone)
4) Mepivacaine (Carbocaine)
Dyclonine (Dyclone) is the least likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with amide or ester local anesthetics.
When adjusting the occlusal plane of natural teeth opposed by a complete or partial denture, it should be completed:
1) After the teeth have been set on the trial denture.
2) Immediately after making the final casts.
3) Upon delivery of the denture.
4) After the diagnosis and treatment plan has been established.
FPD and RPD Answer: 4Adjusting the occlusal plane is a foundational step that impacts all subsequent processes in prosthetic rehabilitation. This adjustment should be based on a comprehensive diagnosis and treatment plan to ensure compatibility with the patient’s anatomy and function.
Which of the following have a tendency to recur if not treated?
1) Giant cell granuloma
2) Lipoma
3) Fibrous epulis
4) Hematoma
ADC Test Answer: 1
Giant cell granulomas have a recurrence rate of 15-20% if not adequately treated.
What are fibrin degradation products (FDPs) indicative of in the context of DIC?
1) Normal coagulation
2) Active fibrinolysis
3) Increased platelets
4) Stable hemostasis
Elevated levels of fibrin degradation products suggest that fibrinolysis is happening in response to excessive clotting activity typical of DIC.
Which of the following is common to all forms of hemorrhagic shock?
1) Sepsis.
2) Hypovolemia
3) Impaired tissue perfusion.
4) Vasoconstriction.
Hemorrhagic shock results in inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues due to reduced blood volume.
A patient telephones and tells you he has just knocked out his front tooth but
that it is still intact. Your instructions should be to
1) put the tooth in water and come to your office at the end of the day.
2) place the tooth in milk and come to your office immediately. .
3) put the tooth in alcohol and come to your office immediately.
4) place tooth under the tongue and come to your office immediately.
Placing an avulsed tooth in milk is recommended because it helps preserve the vitality of the periodontal ligament cells. Milk has a similar osmolality to that of human cells, which can help keep the cells alive until the patient can receive professional dental care. Immediate treatment is crucial for the best chance of successful re-implantation.
Which of the following series of cements have anticariogenic properties? 1. zinc phosphate, silicate, and polycarboxylate cements 2. silicophosphate, glass ionomer, and silicate cements 3. zinc oxide eugenol, ethoxybenzoic, and zinc oxide eugenol polymer reinforced cements 4. calcium hydroxide and ethoxybenzoic cements
Dental Material Answer: 2Cements with anticariogenic properties are silicophosphate, glass ionomer, and silicate cements
Water on the surface of enamel has the following effect on polycarboxylate cements. 1. increases the setting time 2. decreases the opacity of the set cement 3. interferes with chemical adhesion of the cement to enamel 4. increases the acidity of the cement
Dental Material Answer: 3Water interferes with chemical adhesion of the polycarboxylate cement to enamel
The first ossification center of the mandible in six weeks old human embryo is found in which of the following locations
1) Future coronoid process
2) Future condylar process
3) Future mental foramen
4) Future mandibular foramen
SOLUTION The mandible is ossified in the fibrous membrane covering the outer surfaces of Meckel’s cartilages. These cartilages form the cartilaginous bar of the mandibular arch, and are two in number, a right and a left. Ossification takes place in the membrane covering the outer surface of the ventral end of Meckel’s cartilage , and each half of the bone is formed from a single center which appears, near the mental foramen, about the sixth week of fetal life. By the tenth week the portion of Meckel’s cartilage which lies below and behind the incisor teeth is surrounded and invaded by the membrane bone
When were the RIDDOR regulations established?
1) 1990
2) 1995
3) 2000
4) 2005
The Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR) were enacted in 1995 to ensure that employers report specific workplace incidents to improve safety.
What percentage of people in the UK drink excessively?
1) 20%
2) 30%
3) 40%
4) 50%
Approximately 50% of men and 30% of women in the UK exceed the recommended weekly alcohol guidelines.
Which of the following clinical conditions is the most serious?
1) Acute apical abscess of a mandibular central incisor.
2) Mid facial cellulitis.
3) Chronic apical abscess of a mandibular third molar.
4) Infected dentigerous cyst.
Mid-facial cellulitis can rapidly progress to life-threatening complications
like cavernous sinus thrombosis or airway obstruction.
Which of the following is a characteristic of affected dentin?
1) Bacteria-loaded and mushy
2) Requires complete removal
3) Completely cavitated
4) Dry and leathery
Affected dentin is dry and leathery, not invaded by bacteria, and does not need to be removed during restoration.
The position of the cusps of the maxillary first premolar is:
1) Distally positioned
2) Mesially positioned
3) Centrally positioned
4) Lingually positioned
ADC Test Answer: 2
In occlusion, the cusp tips of the maxillary first premolar are slightly mesially positioned, which affects alignment and functional performance.
The function of cobalt in a cast chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy is to 1. increase resistance to shear and tensile stresses 2. provide tarnish resistance 3. increase tendency for higher ductility and decrease casting shrinkage 4. contribute strength, rigidity, and hardness
Dental Material Answer: 4Cobalt in a cast chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy contribute to strength, rigidity, and hardness
Glycine is a Glycogenic amino acid, only
Which nerve is affected if the patient is unable to gaze laterally to the left?
1) Right abducens
2) Left abducens
3) Oculomotor
4) Trochlear
The left abducens nerve controls lateral eye movement; its dysfunction results in the inability to gaze laterally to the left.
In a patient shot in the back of the head with the bullet passing through the forehead, which bones are least likely to be damaged? 1) Maxilla and temporal 2) Frontal and parietal 3) Occipital and sphenoid 4) Zygoma and ethmoid
Anatomy Answer: 1The trajectory of the bullet from the back of the head to the forehead is less likely to involve the maxilla and temporal bones compared to the others.
What is the recommended protocol for handling a needlestick injury in the
dental office?
1) Immediately notify the supervisor and seek medical attention
2) Apply pressure to the wound and wash thoroughly with soap and water
3) Ignore the injury and continue working
4) Apply an antiseptic to the wound and report the incident later
If a needlestick injury occurs, it is crucial to immediately notify the supervisor and seek medical attention. This allows for timely administration of post-exposure prophylaxis and proper management of the potential risk of bloodborne pathogen transmission.
Which of the following is a common challenge in providing dental care to patients with Alzheimer's disease?
1) Difficulty in understanding and following instructions
2) Increased tolerance for pain and discomfort
3) Enhanced manual dexterity for oral hygiene
4) Decreased sensitivity to taste and smell
Alzheimer's disease is characterized by cognitive impairment, which can make it challenging for patients to follow complex instructions or remember to perform oral hygiene tasks.
What is the most appropriate first-line investigation for suspected mandibular fractures? 1) MRI 2) Orthopantomogram 3) CT scan 4) Lateral cephalogram
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 2The orthopantomogram (OPG) is the first-line radiographic investigation for suspected mandibular fractures. It provides a panoramic view of the mandible, making it ideal for fracture assessment.
What is the purpose of the principle of nonmaleficence in dental practice?
1) To ensure dentists do not cause harm to patients
2) To justify the use of painful procedures for therapeutic purposes
3) To require dentists to provide only the most expensive treatments
4) To prioritize the dentist's financial success
Nonmaleficence is the principle that guides healthcare professionals, including dentists, to avoid causing harm to patients. It is often paired with beneficence and requires that treatments and care are provided with the intent to do no harm.
Loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by:
1) Bell’s palsy
2) Traumatic bone cyst
3) Trigeminal neuralgia
4) Fracture in the mandible first molar region
ADC Test Answer: 4
A fracture in this region can damage the inferior alveolar nerve, leading to loss of sensation in the lower lip and chin area.
In a visual examination for caries, what change in the tooth surface texture
or color is a reversible sign of early enamel demineralization?
1) White spot
2) Brown spot
3) Black spot
4) Red spot
A white spot on the tooth surface indicates incipient caries, which is a reversible form of enamel demineralization. Brown or black spots are typically associated with more advanced stages of caries, while red spots are not a common sign of dental caries.
What is the most common type of dental radiograph used in a routine dental
check-up?
1) Panoramic x-ray
2) Bitewing x-ray
3) Periapical x-ray
4) Dental CT scan
Bitewing x-rays are the most commonly used radiographs in a routine dental check-up. They show the crowns of the upper and lower teeth and help dentists detect decay between the teeth and changes in bone density caused by gum disease. While panoramic x-rays and periapical x-rays provide valuable information, they are typically used for more specific diagnostic purposes. Dental CT scans are more advanced and not typically used in routine exams due to their higher radiation exposure and cost.
Informed consent is primarily based on which ethical principle?
1) Justice
2) Autonomy
3) Beneficence
4) Veracity
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 2Autonomy refers to the right of patients to make informed decisions about their own healthcare. Informed consent ensures that patients have the necessary information to exercise this right.
A dentist observes that an elderly patient has poor oral hygiene and appears to be wearing the same clothes for several days. What is the most appropriate action?
1) Offer to clean the patient’s teeth for free
2) Discuss the situation with the patient’s family
3) Report suspected neglect to adult protective services
4) Ignore the signs if the patient is independent
The dentist should report any signs of neglect to ensure the patient receives the necessary care and assistance.
Which of the following anaesthetic agent can be given by both intravenous and intramuscular routes:
1) Thiopentone
2) Propanidid
3) Ketamine
4) Fentanyl-droperidol
Ketamine can be given by iv, im, oral and intrathecal (spinal) routes.
The most common cause of failure in root canal treatment is:
1) Over-filling the canal
2) Under-filling the canal
3) Instrument breakage
4) Infection during treatment
ADC Test Answer: 2
Inadequate filling of the root canal system allows for persistent infection, making it the leading cause of failure in root canal procedures.
Can informed consent be obtained from a patient who is under the influence of
sedation?
1) Yes, as long as the patient can still communicate their wishes
2) No, sedation impairs the patient's ability to understand and make decisions
3) Yes, because the patient's consent was obtained before administration of
sedation
4) It depends on the type and level of sedation
Informed consent must be obtained when the patient is fully conscious and has the mental capacity to comprehend the information provide4) If sedation affects the patient's ability to make informed decisions, consent should be obtained before administration.
Ketamine is contraindicated in:
1) Hypertension
2) Raised intracranial tension
3) Raised intraocular tension
4) All of the above
Rapid induction of anaesthesia occurs with which of the following anaesthetic:
1) Isoflurane
2) Halothane
3) esflurane
4) Sevoflurane
Ketamine raises both systolic and diastolic blood pressures and is thus contraindicated in hypertension.
The estimated percentage of the population with herpes simplex virus
type 1 (HSV-1) infection is:
1) 30%
2) 50%
3) 80%
4) 90%
Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) is a highly prevalent virus that causes oral herpes, commonly known as cold sores. The World Health Organization (WHO) estimates that approximately 67% of the global population under the age of 50 has an HSV-1 infection. This percentage varies by region, but in some developed countries, it can be as high as 80-90%. Most individuals are infected during childhood or early adulthood, and the virus remains dormant in the body, reactivating periodically to cause recurrent symptoms.