Dentist Abroad
First sign of complication of anaesthesia:
1) Tachycardia
2) Bradycardia
3) Hypertension
4) Convulsions
Tachycardia is often the first sign of many complications seen in anaesthesia.
What is a potential use of dental records in forensic dentistry?
1) To determine the patient's insurance coverage
2) To identify a dead or missing person
3) To track treatment costs
4) To evaluate staff performance
Dental records can provide antemortem information that assists forensic odontologists in identifying deceased individuals.
Analysis which is similar to Pont’s analysis is_______?
1) Linder Harth index
2) Korkhaus analysis
3) Bolton’s analysis
4) (A) and (B)
SOLUTION
· Pont’s in 1905 presented a system whereby the measurement of the four maxillary incisors automatically established the width of the arch in the premolar and molar region.
· Linder Harth index: This analysis is very similar to Pont’s analysis except that a new formula has been proposed to determine the calculated premolar and molar value.
· Korkhaus analysis: This analysis is also very similar to Pont’s analysis it makes use of Linder Harth’s formula to determine the ideal arch width in the premolar and molar region.
In addition this analysis utilizes a measurement made from the midpoint of the inter-premolar line to a point in between the two maxillary incisors.
· Bolton’s analysis: The Bolton’s analysis helps in determining disproportion in size between maxillary and mandibular teeth.
What does "informed refusal" refer to in the context of medical and dental
care?
1) When a patient refuses to sign an informed consent form
2) When a patient refuses to proceed with a recommended treatment after being
informed of its benefits and risks
3) When a patient refuses to provide personal health information
4) When a patient refuses to pay for the treatment
When a patient refuses to proceed with a recommended
treatment after being informed of its benefits and risks
Explanation: Informed refusal occurs when a patient has the capacity to make a
decision and has been provided with all necessary information but chooses not to
undergo the treatment.
Which anesthetic is known to penetrate the bone better?
1) Lidocaine
2) Articaine
3) Bupivacaine
4) Mepivacaine
Articaine has a unique chemical structure that facilitates better penetration of bone, making it very effective in dental anesthesia, especially for inferior alveolar nerve blocks.
Patients with which condition may require premedication with antibiotics before dental procedures?
1) Asthma
2) Congenital heart defects
3) Alzheimer’s disease
4) Hypertension
Patients with certain congenital heart defects are at an increased risk of bacterial endocarditis and may require prophylactic antibiotics before dental treatment.
What is the primary concern during the first trimester of pregnancy?
1) Organogenesis of the fetus
2) The risk of preterm labor
3) Fetal movement
4) The development of the baby's teeth
The first trimester is a critical period for fetal development, and the fetus is highly susceptible to malformations if the mother experiences stress or other adverse conditions.
Following the injection of 1.8ml of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine, a
nervous 22 year old male with well
controlled insulin dependent diabetes states that he feels dizzy and weak. Beads
of sweat have accumulated on
his forehead and upper lip. He is quite pale. The initial management of this
patient is to
1) administer glucagon 1.0mg.
2) administer epinephrine 0.5mg.
3) administer diphenhydramine 50mg.
4) elevate the patient's legs and administer 100% oxygen.
These symptoms suggest vasovagal syncope or hypoglycemia; elevating legs improves circulation, and oxygen supports recovery.
Can informed consent be given over the phone or through email?
1) Yes, as long as the patient signs and returns the form
2) No, it must always be obtained in person
3) It is preferred in person, but alternatives can be used in some cases
4) Only for emergency treatments
Informed consent is typically a face-to-face interaction where the
dentist can assess the patient's understanding and answer questions. However,
some jurisdictions may allow for alternative methods under certain
circumstances, such as telemedicine or in emergencies.
What is required to increase efficiency and reduce fatigue of universal curettes?
1) Increased handle diameter
2) Ergonomic design
3) Sharpness of the blade
4) Length of the blade
The efficiency and comfort in use of universal curettes can be greatly enhanced with an ergonomic design that minimizes strain on the hand and wrist during procedures.
Local anaesthetic agent which has antimuscarinic action on heart muscle receptors is:
1) Procaine
2) Cocaine
3) Chloroprocaine
4) None of the above
Cocaine is a sympathomimetic (and thus antimuscarinic) local anaesthetic and thus adrenaline should not be added to it.
Which of the following is used for the treatment of chlamydia infection in pregnancy?
1) Tetracycline
2) Erythromycin
3) Azithromycin
4) Doxycycline
Azithromycin Preferred agent for treatment of chlamydia infection in pregnancy in azithromycin.
It is given as a single dose of 1g leading to high compliance rate.
Koplik's spots are seen in the oral cavity of patients with
1) chickenpox.
2) mumps.
3) measles.
4) scarlet fever.
E. smallpox.
Koplik's spots are small, white spots found on the mucous
membranes of the cheeks in the early stages of measles. These spots are
pathognomonic for the disease and typically appear before the rash. They are not
associated with the other conditions listed: chickenpox, mumps, or scarlet
fever.
Which of the following actions is NOT a responsibility of a dental professional when they suspect abuse or neglect?
1) Reporting the suspicion to the appropriate authorities
2) Investigating the situation personally
3) Documenting observations in the patient’s record
4) Providing support to the patient
Dental professionals should report their suspicions rather than investigate, as this is outside their scope of practice.
When no radiation shield is available, the operator should stand out of the primary x-ray beam and a distance from the patient’s head of at least:
1) 0.5 metres
2) 1 metre
3) 1.5 metres
4) 2 metres
ADC Test Answer: 4
To minimize exposure to ionizing radiation, operators should maintain a distance of at least 2 meters (6 feet) from the x-ray source/patient, as dictated by the inverse square law and safety protocols.
What drug is commonly associated with causing angioedema?
1) Prednisone
2) Ibuprofen
3) Ramipril
4) Metformin
Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is well known for causing angioedema as a side effect.
For a tooth (84) with deeper caries, the recommended treatment would be:
1) Indirect pulp capping and restoration
2) Pulpotomy and restoration
3) Pulpectomy and restoration
4) Extraction
ADC Test Answer: 3
Due to the depth of decay, a pulpectomy is indicated to remove all affected pulp tissue and disinfect the canal.
Clinical use(s) of EMLA applications:?
1) Myringotomy
2) Arterial cannulation
3) Venipuncture
4) Lumbar puncture
EMLA applications are used in clinical settings for various procedures.
Which of the following restorations is the most appropriate for the replacement
of a maxillary permanent lateral incisor where there is 4.5mm of mesial-distal
space and an intact central incisor?
1) Implant supported restoration.
2) Cantilever pontic FPD using canine abutment.
3) Removable partial denture.
4) Three-unit metal-ceramic full coverage fixed dental prosthesis.
Cantilevered fixed partial dentures can be more successful in anterior quadrant than posterior because the forces are less in anterior region than posterior one. The cantilevered FPD requires at least two abutment teeth.
What type of study model is commonly used in research that leads to
a common answer?
1) Longitudinal study
2) Cross-sectional study
3) Case-control study
4) Cohort study
Cross-sectional studies are observational studies that analyze data from a population at a specific point in time to determine the prevalence of a particular outcome or disease. They are often used to provide a snapshot of a population's health and can lead to common answers regarding the prevalence of certain conditions or exposures. They are different from longitudinal studies, which follow the same individuals over time to observe changes; case-control studies, which compare individuals with and without a disease to identify risk factors; and cohort studies, which follow a group of individuals with a common characteristic to observe the development of a disease or outcome.
What is the recommended maximum safe dosage of epinephrine for geriatric
patients with cardiovascular diseases?
1) 0.04 mg
2) 0.2 mg
3) 0.1 mg
4) 0.5 mg
It's typically recommended to limit the total dose of
epinephrine to 0.04 mg due to the risk of cardiovascular events in older
patients.
The most appropriate drug for treatment of generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) is:
1) valproate
2) methylphenidate
3) ethosuximide
4) diazepam
For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, phenytoin, carbamazepine, or valproate is the drug of choice.
The average overall length of the permanent maxillary central incisor is 22.5 mm
Rapid induction of anaesthesia occurs with which of the following anaesthetic:
1) Isoflurane
2) Halothane
3) esflurane
4) Sevoflurane
Desflurane has the lowest blood gas partition coefficient of 0.42, so has fastest induction and recovery.
Cardiac or central nervous system toxicity may result when standard lidocaine doses are administrated to patient with circulatory failure. This may be due to the following reason:
1) Lidocaine concentration are initially higher in relatively well perfused tissues such as brain and heart
2) Histamine receptors in brain and heart get suddenly activated in circulatory failure
3) There is sudden outburst of release of adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine in brain and heart
4) Lidocaine is converted into toxic metabolite due to longer stay in liver
Lignocaine (as with other lipid soluble anaesthetic agents) initially reaches to well perfused areas like brain and heart so in circulatory failure blood from non vital structures is diverted to vital structures like brain and heart and patient can develop toxic levels.
Ranitidine belongs to the class of medications?
1) Proton pump inhibitor
2) Selective H2 receptor antagonist
3) Antacid
4) Antibiotic
Ranitidine belongs to the class of medications known as H2-receptor antagonists. These drugs work by blocking the action of histamine on the parietal cells in the stomach, which reduces the production of gastric acid. They are commonly used to treat conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), peptic ulcers, and other conditions where a reduction in stomach acid is beneficial.
Which of the following is an indicator of potential physical abuse in a patient?
1) A patient with good oral hygiene
2) Frequent dental visits
3) Unexplained injuries or bruises in various stages of healing
4) A patient who is shy and quiet
Unexplained injuries, particularly in various stages of healing, can be a strong indicator of physical abuse.
What substance is primarily responsible for the re-mineralization process in teeth?
1) Fluoride
2) Calcium
3) Phosphate
4) All of the above
Fluoride, calcium, and phosphate work together to enhance the re-mineralization process in enamel, helping to repair demineralized areas.
What is the primary purpose of documenting suspected abuse or neglect in a dental practice?
1) To confront the abuser
2) To provide evidence for legal proceedings
3) To avoid liability
4) To inform other dental professionals
Documentation serves as a crucial record of observations and actions taken, which can be important in legal contexts.
Which of the following Antimicrobials has Antipseudomonal action:
1) Cefopodoxime proxetil
2) Ceforanide
3) Cefotetan
4) Cefoperazone
Cephalosporins with antipseudomonal action:
Cefoperazone Ceftazidime
What immunoglobulin is predominantly associated with mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)?
1) IgG
2) IgA
3) IgM
4) IgE
IgA is the predominant immunoglobulin associated with mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT).
The principal role of Vitamin E in the prevention of oxidative damage is to potentiate the action of superoxide dismutase
What is the recommended approach to treating an acute dental infection in an
elderly patient?
1) Antibiotic therapy
2) Drainage of the abscess
3) Extraction of the infected tooth
4) Immediate root canal therapy
Initially, the primary goal is to drain the infection and alleviate pain before considering further treatment options like antibiotics or tooth preservation procedures
The development of lateral canals can be attributed to:
1) Faulty restoration technique
2) Cracks in Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath
3) Genetic anomalies
4) External dental trauma
ADC Test Answer: 2
Lateral canals form due to disruptions in the Hertwig's epithelial root sheath during tooth root development, creating additional channels in the root structure.
Rapid induction of anaesthesia occurs with which of the following anaesthetic:
1) Isoflurane
2) Halothane
3) Desflurane
4) Sevoflurane
Desflurane has the lowest blood gas partition coefficient of 0.42, so it has the fastest induction and recovery. Second fastest induction and recovery is with cyclopropane with blood gas partition coefficient of 0.44.
Zinc phosphate cement powder contains zinc oxide, magnesium oxide, bismuth oxide
In orthodontic treatment, the forces applied should not exceed the ________________ in order to avoid injuries to the tissues.
1) Arterial blood pressure
2) Muscular forces of facial muscles
3) Masticatory retrusion
4) Capillary blood pressure
SOLUTION Optimum orthodontic force is one, which moves teeth most rapidly in the desired direction, with the least possible damage to tissue and with minimum patient discomfort. Oppenheim and Schwarz following extensive studies stated that the optimum force is equivalent to the capillary pulse pressure, which is 20-26 gm/sq.
From a clinical point of view, optimum orthodontic force has the following characteristics:
1) Products rapid tooth movement
2) Minimal patient discomfort
3) The lag phase of tooth movement is minimal
4) No marked mobility of the teeth being moved
From a histologic point of view the use of optimum orthodontic force has the following characteristics:
1) The vitality of the tooth and supporting periodontal ligament is maintained
2) Initiates maximum cellular response
3) Produces direct or frontal resorption
Which of the following are included in the Orthodontic camouflage methods for treating class II malocclusion?
1) Retraction of upper teeth and forward movement of lower teeth
2) Retraction of maxillary incisors into pre-molar extraction space
3) Distal movement of maxillary molars
4) All of the above
SOLUTION The following three patterns of tooth movement can be used to correct a Class II malocclusion: · A combination of retraction of the upper teeth and forward movement of the lower teeth, without tooth extractions · Retraction of maxillary incisors into a premolar extraction space · Distal movement of maxillary molars and eventually the entire upper dental arch
Why is it important to conduct a medication review for geriatric patients
before dental treatment?
1) To identify affordable treatment options
2) To assess for drug interactions
3) To increase the number of visits
4) To speed up the treatment process
A medication review is essential to identify potential drug
interactions that could affect treatment outcomes and management strategies.
What is the correct order for removing PPE after treating a patient?
1) Gloves, mask, gown
2) Gown, gloves, mask
3) Mask, gown, gloves
4) Gloves, gown, mask
The correct order for removing PPE is to first remove and dispose
of the gloves, then the gown, and finally the mask to prevent contact with
potentially contaminated surfaces.
The most common cause of failure of the IDN (Inferior Dental Nerve) block is:
1) Injecting too low
2) Injecting too high
3) Injecting into the parotid gland
4) Incorrect anatomical landmarks
ADC Test Answer: 1
If the needle is injected too low, the anesthetic may not reach the nerve effectively, leading to failure of the block and insufficient anesthesia during dental procedures.
What is the primary purpose of using a rubber dam in dentistry?
1) To improve visibility
2) To isolate the tooth
3) To prevent contamination
4) All of the above
A rubber dam is used to improve visibility, isolate the tooth from saliva, and prevent contamination during procedures.
What is more likely to happen to an interproximal composite filling rather than amalgam?
1) Fracture
2) Polymerization shrinkage
3) Marginal leakage
4) Discoloration
Composite materials are more prone to polymerization shrinkage, which can lead to gaps and sensitivity compared to amalgam.
Which clinical sign might indicate the need for a referral to a physician
or specialist when treating a geriatric patient?
1) Mild tooth sensitivity
2) History of hypertension
3) Postural issues
4) Uncontrolled diabetes
Uncontrolled diabetes can lead to complications that affect
dental treatment, making it essential to refer the patient for medical
management.
Which management technique is typically used for displaced mandibular fractures in the tooth-bearing region? 1) Conservative treatment 2) Intermaxillary fixation 3) Open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) 4) Extraction of the fractured teeth
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 3Displaced or mobile fractures in the tooth-bearing region of the mandible usually require surgical intervention through open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) to properly realign and stabilize the fracture.
Penicillins:
1) Are the antibiotic of choice for anaerobic infections
2) Are bacteriostatic
3) Are protagonistic to tetracycline
4) Interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesis
The penicillins all act by interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis, by inhibiting cross-linking of the mucopeptides in the cell wall and as such are bacteriocidal.
What is the advantage of using electronic patient records over paper records?
- They take up less physical space
- They are more easily accessible and less prone to loss
- They are more difficult to alter
- They are less expensive
Electronic records can be accessed and retrieved more quickly and are less likely to be misplaced or damaged than paper records.
What is the primary risk factor for developing periodontitis?
1) Smoking
2) Poor oral hygiene
3) Genetics
4) All of the above
Smoking, poor oral hygiene, and genetic predisposition are all significant risk factors in the development of periodontitis.
Which of these is the ideal appliance for correction of posterior cross bite due to digit sucking habit?
1) Tongue spikes
2) Hay rakes
3) Maxillary lingual arch with palatal crib
4) Quad helix
Classification of appliances for thumb-sucking
1.
a. Tongue spikes
b. Tongue guard
c. Spurs/rake
2 Fixed appliances
a. Quad helix
b. Hay rakes
c. Maxillary lingual arch with palatal crib
The ideal appliance to correct posterior cross-bite caused due to digit sucking is Quad Helix. It is a lingual arch which is adjustab and needs very little patient cooperation because it is fixed and is reliable and easy to use.
The most appropriate management for a child with a primary tooth that caused a
severe, throbbing toothache the previous night is to
1) prescribe an analgesics.
2) perform a pulpectomy
3) remove caries and place a temporary restoration.
4) perform a pulpotomy.
Pulpectomy removes necrotic or infected pulp tissue, resolving pain while preserving the tooth's functionality.
The first heart sound relates to 1. Closure of the A-V valves 2. Opening of the A-V valves 3. Excitation of the auricles 4. Closure of the aortic valve
Physiology Answer: 2The first heart sound relates to Opening of the A-V valves
What happens to the solubility of hydroxyapatite when it undergoes carbonate
substitution?
1) It increases
2) It decreases
3) It remains the same
4) It becomes insoluble
Carbonate substitution in hydroxyapatite increases its solubility, making it more susceptible to decay.
What is the significance of obtaining informed consent and documenting it in a patient's record?
- It serves as legal proof of the treatment provided
- It is a requirement for insurance reimbursement
- It demonstrates that the patient has understood and agreed to the proposed treatment plan
- It is a mandatory step for all types of dental treatments
Informed consent is critical in dentistry as it ensures that patients are fully aware of their treatment options, the potential risks, and the benefits before making a decision.
What is the purpose of placing rests on the proximal surfaces of teeth?
1) To enhance aesthetics
2) To prevent food impaction
3) To facilitate easier cleaning
4) To allow for more room in the denture base
Rests on the proximal surfaces prevent food impaction between the minor connector and the tooth.
Overdrying after acid etching before bond application causes:
1) Micro leakage.
2) Nano shrinkage.
3) Gaping.
4) Secondary caries.
ADC Test Answer: 2
Overdrying dentin surfaces after acid etching can lead to nano shrinkage, which can impair the bond strength of the adhesive and result in clinical problems.
A wax pattern made in the mouth will shrink appreciably as it is cooled to room temperature because :
1) The thermal expansion coefficient of wax is very high
2) The thermal expansion coefficient of wax is very low
3) Melting temperature is very high
4) Melting temperature is very low
A wax pattern made in the mouth will shrink appreciably as it is cooled to room temperature because the coefficient of thermal expansion of wax is very high.(This is the property which describes the thermal energy transport in watts per second through a specimen 1cm thick with a cross sectional area of 1 cm2 when the temperature differential between the surfaces of the specimen perpendicular to the heat flow 10 K) Co efficient of thermal expansion is defined as the change in length per unit of the original length of a material when its temperature is raised 10K.
Which type of therapy is particularly beneficial for patients with significant intellectual disabilities when it comes to dental care?
1) Cognitive-behavioral therapy
2) Music therapy
3) Behavior modification therapy
4) Art therapy
Behavior modification therapy can help in training patients to accept dental treatment by providing positive reinforcement for cooperative behavior.
Where in the periodontal ligament fibers are the fibers thinner?
1) Apical third
2) Middle third
3) Cervical third
4) None
The fibers in the middle third of the periodontal ligament are generally thinner than in the apical or cervical thirds, leading to reduced tensile strength and an area that is more susceptible to damage.
For carious lesions, which diagnostic method is appropriate?
1) Carious halfway through enamel on proximal surface – Bitewing
2) Carious halfway through enamel on occlusal surface – Visual exam
3) Carious halfway through dentine not cavitated – Wet surface
4) Stained fissure – Bitewing and visual exam
Each diagnostic method is appropriate for the specific type of carious lesion described.
What percentage of older adults in nursing homes exhibit untreated dental
caries?
1) 10-20%
2) 30-40%
3) 50-60%
4) 70-90%
Studies show that a significant proportion of elderly residents in
nursing homes have untreated dental caries, often due to inadequate access to
dental care.
For a patient with bulimia, what is the best treatment option?
1) Dental restoration
2) Dietary counseling
3) Referral to a psychologist
4) Material restoration
A multidisciplinary approach to bulimia involves addressing psychological factors; referral for psychiatric evaluation is crucial for effective management of this eating disorder.
What characterizes the action of saliva on dental plaque?
1) It increases plaque pH immediately.
2) It has no effect on plaque acidity.
3) It dilutes and neutralizes plaque acidity.
4) It only coats teeth without affecting pH.
Saliva plays a crucial role in maintaining oral health by diluting and carrying away acid metabolites produced by plaque bacteria, thus helping to neutralize acidity and reduce the risk of caries development.
Which site is the most frequent for oral cancer?
1) Hard palate
2) Tongue
3) Lower lip
4) Floor of the mouth
The lower lip is the most common site for oral cancer overall, while the tongue is frequently affected within the oral cavity.
Which is harder?
1) Amalgam.
2) Composite.
3) Type IV gold.
4) Glass ionomer.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Type IV gold is the hardest material compared to amalgam, composite, or glass ionomer.
A patient comes complaining of a bad taste and bad smell from a newly fixed 3-unit fixed partial denture. Upon examination, bubbles are coming from one of the abutments when pressure is applied on it with a water spray. What is the likely reason?
1) Fractured joint.
2) Open margin.
3) Loose abutment.
4) Overcontoured restoration.
ADC Test Answer: 2
The presence of bubbles and bad taste/smell indicates potential leakage or movement at the margins of the restoration, suggesting an open margin that allows bacteria and fluids to enter, causing these symptoms.
Regarding hand washing, which of the following is true?
1) Alcohol is the only effective agent
2) Chlorhexidine gel is used for surgical hand washing
3) Povidone iodine is not effective
4) Hand washing is not necessary before procedures
Chlorhexidine gel is an effective antiseptic used in surgical hand washing, along with alcohol and povidone iodine.
You suspect that your patient has an enlarged submandibular salivary gland. You expect the enlarged gland?
1) To be palpable intraorally
2) Only to be detectable by radiographical examination.
3) To be palpable both intra- and extraorally
4) To be palpable extraorally.
When a submandibular salivary gland is enlarged, it can be palpable both intraorally (inside the mouth) and extraorally (outside the mouth).
Which nerve is affected if a patient is unable to gaze laterally to the left?
1) Right abducent
2) Right trochlear
3) Left abducent
4) Left trochlear
The left abducent nerve (cranial nerve VI) innervates the lateral rectus muscle, which is responsible for lateral eye movement.
What is the most suitable X-ray technique to diagnose interproximal caries in primary molars of a three-year-old child?
1) Bitewing
2) Periapical
3) Occlusal
4) Ceiling view
Bitewing X-rays are effective for detecting interproximal caries, especially in primary molars, due to their ability to capture the contact areas between teeth.
Which of the following new technologies uses light to detect dental caries?
1) Digital Imaging Fibre-Optic Transillumination (DIFOTI)
2) Laser fluorescence (DIAGNOdent)
3) Quantitative Light-Induced Fluorescence (QLF)
4) All of the above
DIFOTI, DIAGNOdent, and QLF are all new technologies that utilize light to detect dental caries. They work by identifying changes in light transmission or fluorescence caused by the presence of carious lesions.
Morphine causes vomiting by 1. stimulation of the no dose ganglion of the vagus 2. direct stimulation of the gastrointestinal musculature 3. stimulation of the medullary chemo receptor trigger zone 4. a direct irritant action on the gastric mucosa.
Pharmacology Answer: 3Morphine causes vomiting by stimulation of the medullary chemo receptor trigger zone
Carcinoma of the tongue has a predilection for which of the following sites?
1) Lateral border anteriorly
2) Anterior dorsal surface
3) Posterior dorsal surface
4) Lateral border posteriorly
ADC Test Answer: 4
The lateral border of the tongue, particularly posteriorly, is a common site for oral squamous cell carcinoma.
Administration of which among the following anaesthetic agent results in a state of dissociative anaesthesia?
1) Ether
2) Propofol
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopentone sodium
Dissociative Anaesthesia refers to a characteristic state which results after an induction dose of Ketamine.
The bacteria having the highest lipid Content in the cell wall Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A dental hygienist notices that a child has multiple untreated dental caries and appears malnourished. What should be the hygienist's first action?
1) Discuss with the child’s parents
2) Document the findings
3) Report the situation to child protective services
4) Schedule a follow-up appointment
As a mandated reporter, the hygienist must report suspected neglect to the appropriate authorities when a child’s well-being is at risk.
Which antihypertensive agent is an ACE inhibitor?
1) Amlodipine
2) Losartan
3) Ramipril
4) Atenolol
Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor, while Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, Losartan is an ARB, and Atenolol is a beta-blocker.
A 6 year old child has a non-vital primary mandibular second molar which has a
draining sinus tract from he bifurcation area The most appropriate management
is
1) extraction.
2) observation.
3) pulpotomy.
4) direct pulp capping.
What is the kind of bur used for refinement and polishing of composites?
1) Fine carbide.
2) Diamond.
3) Both A and B.
4) Disc.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Both fine carbide burs and diamond burs are effective for the refinement and polishing of composite materials.
For a 26-year-old with a missing lateral incisor, what is the recommended treatment?
1) Dental implant
2) Resin bonded bridge
3) Removable partial denture
4) Orthodontic treatment
In adults, a dental implant is a more permanent and stable solution for replacing a missing tooth.
Which immunoglobulin is present following a bacterial and viral infection?
1) IgA
2) IgD
3) IgM and IgG
4) IgE
Both IgM and IgG are present during and following infections; IgM appears first, while IgG is the most abundant antibody in circulation post-infection.
Unilateral numbness of the chin is associated with
1) malignancy.
2) Bell's palsy.
3) apical abscess.
4) trigeminal neuralgia
Numb chin syndrome occurs due to pressure on the mental nerve, often caused by
metastatic malignancies such as breast or lung cancer.
It serves as a potential warning sign of cancer progression.
What is the term for an irrational fear of dental procedures?
1) Odontophobia
2) Gag reflex
3) Hypochondria
4) Agoraphobia
Odontophobia is a specific phobia characterized by fear of dental procedures or the dental environment.
What oral hygiene aid is often recommended for patients with limited dexterity?
1) Traditional toothbrush
2) Electric toothbrush
3) Floss picks
4) Mouthwash only
Electric toothbrushes can be easier to handle and may provide a more effective cleaning action for patients with limited dexterity.
What is the recommended approach to treat a patient with severe dental phobia?
1) Immediate comprehensive treatment
2) Gradual exposure to dental procedures
3) Immediate surgery under general anesthesia
4) Avoiding dental treatment altogether
Gradual exposure through a process like systematic desensitization can help patients with severe dental phobia to build tolerance and overcome their fears.
Glucose can be synthesised from Glyerol, Acetoacetate, Lactic acid
What factor can enhance the bicarbonate-mediated acid-neutralizing effect of saliva?
1) High-fat diet
2) Decreased salivary flow
3) Increased salivary flow
4) Sleep
Increased salivary flow naturally raises bicarbonate levels in the saliva, which helps to neutralize acids in plaque more effectively, protecting against enamel demineralization and promoting oral health.
Vasopressor of choice for spinal hypotension in pregnancy:
1) Ephedrine
2) Mephentermine
3) Methoxamine
4) None of the above
Local Anesthesia Answer: 2
Mephentermine
A lingual approach for a conservative Class III preparation for a composite
resin requires
1) a retentive internal form.
2) parallelism of the incisal and gingival walls.
3) maintenance of the incisal contact are1)
4) All of the above.
When preparing a Class III cavity using a lingual approach, several factors must be considered to ensure the success of the restoration:
- A retentive internal form: The preparation must have features that provide retention for the composite material, preventing it from dislodging over time.
- Parallelism of the incisal and gingival walls: Maintaining parallel walls helps in achieving a proper fit for the composite material and ensures that the restoration is stable and aesthetically pleasing.
- Maintenance of the incisal contact area: Preserving the incisal contact is crucial for maintaining the functional and aesthetic aspects of the tooth, as it helps in proper occlusion and prevents shifting of adjacent teeth.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the attachment of the mylohyoid muscle?
1) It attaches superiorly at the lateral border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid.
2) It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the lesser horn of the hyoid
3) It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the greater horn of the hyoid
4) It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid
It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid
Which nerve allows a patient to look upwards and downwards?
1) Trigeminal nerve
2) Facial nerve
3) Oculomotor nerve
4) Trochlear nerve
The oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III) controls most of the eye's movements, including looking upwards and downwards.
If the drug is taken while teeth are still in the enamel developmental stage, it
can produce hypoplasia and intrinsic staining. What is the drug that's being
referred to?
1) Amino glycosides
2) Tetracycline
3) Amoxicillin
4) Levaquin
Tetracycline is the drug being referred to in this question. When taken during
the enamel developmental stage of teeth, it can cause hypoplasia and intrinsic
staining. This means that the drug can affect the growth and development of the
enamel, leading to underdevelopment (hypoplasia) and discoloration (intrinsic
staining) of the teeth.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors reduce blood pressure by:
1) Increasing heart rate
2) Blocking calcium channels
3) Inhibiting angiotensin II formation
4) Blocking aldosterone receptors
ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, reducing vasoconstriction and lowering blood pressure.
Which of the following is an example of a chemical hazard in a dental office? 1) Repetitive motion injuries 2) Exposure to dental amalgam 3) Loud noises from dental equipment 4) Inadequate lighting
Occupational Hazards Answer: 2Chemical hazards in dentistry include exposure to materials such as dental amalgam, which contains mercury, and other chemicals used in dental procedures.
Which of the following is NOT a typical adverse effect of opioids?
1) Diarrhea
2) Somnolence
3) Constipation
4) Nausea
Opioids are commonly associated with constipation due to their effect on the gastrointestinal tract, which slows down bowel movements. They also frequently cause somnolence and nausea due to their action on the central nervous system. Diarrhea, however, is not a typical side effect of opioid use. In contrast, opioids are often used to treat diarrhea associated with conditions such as irritable bowel syndrome and other gastrointestinal disorders due to their constipating effects.
The following prevent re-uptake of noradrenaline
1) isoprenaline
2) dopamine
3) clomipramine
4) propranolol
Is a TCA- block neuronal uptake of noradrenaline and serotonin.
What is the role of Campylobacter rectus in dental biofilm
metabolism?
1) It produces formate and hydrogen gas as metabolic byproducts.
2) It has no role in biofilm formation.
3) It is exclusively an aerobic organism.
4) It utilizes formate and hydrogen gas as energy sources.
Campylobacter rectus is capable of using formate and hydrogen gas as energy sources and electron donors for its metabolic activities, which contributes to its role in dental biofilm ecology and metabolism.
Glycolysis occurs in: 1. Cytoplasm 2. Mitochondrion 3. Both In cytoplasm and mitochondria 4. Only in presence of O2
Biochemistry Answer: 1Glycolysis occurs in Cytoplasm
When a dentist suspects elder abuse, what is the first step they should take?
1) Confront the caregiver about the suspicion
2) Report the suspicion to the patient's family
3) Report the suspicion to the local Adult Protective Services (APS) agency
4) Treat the patient's dental issues without further action
The first step in suspected elder abuse is to report the concern to Adult Protective Services.
The biochemical defect in Osteogenesis Imperfecta, type II is: 1. a mutation in the alpha 1 chain of Type I collagen. 2. a deficiency in collagenase. 3. a deficiency in lysyl oxidase. 4. a deficiency in lysyl hydroxylase.
Biochemistry Answer: 4The biochemical defect in Osteogenesis Imperfecta, type II is a deficiency in lysyl hydroxylase.
Which of the following is the most important factor in disease progression in smokers?
1) Smokers have drier mouths than non-smokers
2) Smokers have poorer oral hygiene than non-smokers
3) Nicotine will impair the chemotactic and phagocytic properties of PMNs
4) The gingival blood flow is reduced in smokers
Reduced gingival blood flow in smokers contributes significantly to the progression of periodontal disease and other oral health issues.
Which behavior should a dentist encourage to help reduce anxiety in patients?
1) Withholding information about the procedure
2) Encouraging patients to express their fears
3) Telling jokes unrelated to the procedure
4) Dismissing the patient's concerns as minor
Allowing patients to voice their concerns creates a supportive environment and can help alleviate anxiety.
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in the pathogenesis of contact dermatitis?
1) Type I
2) Type II
3) Type III
4) Type IV
Contact dermatitis is mediated by a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction (Type IV), which involves T-cell activation.
Which of the following will most lead to a person unwilling to accept criticism:
1) Being raised in a destructive criticism environment.
2) Working in a destructive criticism environment.
3) The person only gives out destructive criticism.
4) Having aggressive behavior.
Being raised in a destructive criticism environment can greatly contribute to a person's unwillingness to accept criticism. This is because if someone grows up constantly being subjected to negative and destructive criticism, they may develop a fear of judgment and rejection. They may also internalize the belief that criticism is always harmful and personal, making them defensive and resistant to any form of feedback. This upbringing can shape their mindset and make them view criticism as an attack rather than an opportunity for growth, leading to their unwillingness to accept it.
What is the percentage of edentulous patients in England and Scotland?
1) 10%
2) 25%
3) 50%
4) 64%
Approximately 64% of adults over 65 years are edentulous in the UK, reflecting the impact of dental health over time.
Heavy cigarette smoking significantly increases the incidence of
1) aphthous stomatitis.
2) geographic tongue.
3) lichen planus.
4) mucosal pigmentation.
Cigarette smoking is associated with oral mucosal changes,
including the deposition of melanin pigment in the basal layer of the
epithelium, leading to mucosal pigmentation. This is a common oral manifestation
of chronic smoking and can occur in various areas of the oral cavity.
Which diuretic class is most commonly used as first-line therapy in hypertension?
1) Loop diuretics
2) Thiazide diuretics
3) Potassium-sparing diuretics
4) Aldosterone antagonists
Thiazide diuretics are often the first-line choice in managing hypertension because of their efficacy and fewer side effects.
The concentration of ketones is increased in body due to: 1. Starvation 2. High fat diet 3. Diabetes mellitus
'Programme Operation' in Community health care is same as:
1) Treatment
2) Approval
3) Treatment Planning
4) Diagnosis
In community health care, "Programme Operation" refers to the implementation and
execution of various health programs and interventions. This includes providing
treatment to individuals, ensuring that approved protocols and guidelines are
followed, planning and organizing treatment strategies, and diagnosing health
conditions. Therefore, "Programme Operation" can be equated to the concept of
treatment in community health care.
What is the recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner?
1) 150F for 2 hours.
2) 180F for 30 minutes.
3) 160F for 30 minutes.
4) 160F for 30 minutes, then boil for 2 hours.
The recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner is to first bring the temperature of the water to 160F (71C) and maintain it for 30 minutes.
Premature exfoliation of primary mandibular canine is most often the sequelae of:
1) Caries
2) Trauma
3) Serial tooth extraction
4) Arch length inadequacy
SOLUTION The two major symptoms of severe crowding in the early mixed dentition are severe irregularity of the erupting permanent incisors and early loss of primary canines caused by eruption of the permanent lateral incisors.
After a definitive analysis of the profile and incisor position, these patients face the same decision as those with moderate crowding; whether to expand the arches or extract permanent teeth. In the presence of severe crowding, limited treatment of the problem will not be sufficient and permanent tooth extraction is most likely the best alternative.
Not a contraindication for epinephrine use is
1) Heart disease.
2) Hypersensitivity to drug.
3) Hyperthyroidism.
4) Liver disease.
Adrenaline is contraindicated in hypertensive, hyperthyroid and angina patient. Hypersensitivity to drug is absolute contraindication to any drug.
What is the most effective non-pharmacological method for managing dental anxiety?
1) Tell-Show-Do technique
2) Breathing exercises
3) Positive reinforcement
4) Nitrous oxide sedation
Breathing exercises, such as deep breathing or diaphragmatic breathing, are widely recognized as effective non-pharmacological methods for reducing anxiety. They help the patient to relax and can be performed easily without additional equipment.
Which appliance is not suitable for skeletal Class –III malocclusion at the age of 8 years?
1) Frankel III
2) Activator III
3) Chin cap
4) Maxillary splint appliance
SOLUTION Maxillary splint appliance will hold the maxilla and worsen skeletal Cl –III malocclusion.
When adjusting the occlusal plane of natural teeth opposed by a complete or partial denture, it should be completed:
1) After the teeth have been set on the trial denture.
2) Immediately after making the final casts.
3) Upon delivery of the denture.
4) After the diagnosis and treatment plan has been established.
FPD and RPD Answer: 4Adjusting the occlusal plane is a foundational step that impacts all subsequent processes in prosthetic rehabilitation. This adjustment should be based on a comprehensive diagnosis and treatment plan to ensure compatibility with the patient’s anatomy and function.
Not true regarding sevoflurane:
1) MAC is higher than isoflurane
2) Blood gas coefficient is higher than desflurane
3) Potency more than isoflurane
4) Sevoflurane is less cardio depressant than isoflurane
Sevoflurane is less cardio depressant than isoflurane.
Drug class causing free water clearance:
a) Diuretic
b) Saluretic
c) Uricosuric
d) Aquaretic
Vasopressin antagonists like tolvaptan are aquaretics
What is the red line in Winter's classification used to indicate?
1) The depth of the tooth below the alveolar crest
2) The path of eruption
3) The difference in occlusal level of 1st and 2nd molars
4) The amount of bone covering the tooth
The red line is drawn perpendicular from the amber line to an imaginary point of application of the elevator, indicating the depth of the tooth below the alveolar crest.
What is the purpose of using a dental dam during a restorative procedure?
1) To prevent cross-contamination
2) To keep the area dry
3) To isolate the tooth from saliva and debris
4) To provide a clear visual field for the dentist
A dental dam is a thin piece of rubber or latex that is placed over the tooth being worked on to keep it dry and free from saliva and debris during a restorative procedure like a filling or root canal treatment.
What is the sensory nerve supply to the temporalis muscle?
1) V2
2) V3
3) Facial nerve
4) Glossopharyngeal nerve
The temporalis muscle receives both sensory and motor innervation from the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (V3).
What is the treatment for trismus secondary to infection?
1) Warm compresses and antibiotics
2) Surgical drainage and antibiotics
3) Corticosteroid injections and muscle relaxants
4) Physical therapy and pain medication
Infectious causes of trismus often require surgical intervention to drain the infection site, followed by antibiotic therapy.
What is BMI (Body Mass Index) for, and how do we measure it?
1) To check if someone is overweight/obese/underweight; calculated as weight (kg) / height (m²)
2) To measure muscle mass; calculated as weight (kg) / height (m)
3) To assess hydration levels; calculated as weight (kg) / height (m)
4) To determine bone density; calculated as weight (kg) / height (m²)
BMI is a widely used indicator to classify individuals based on their weight relative to their height, helping to identify potential health risks associated with being underweight, normal weight, overweight, or obese.
X-ray films have an emulsion on one or both sides of a support material. The emulsion contains particles of:
1) Silver nitrate crystal
2) Metallic silver in gelatine
3) Silver bromide in gelatine
4) Silver nitrate in gelatine
ADC Test Answer: 3
The emulsion on x-ray films is primarily composed of silver bromide crystals suspended in gelatin, which is sensitive to radiation.
A child with autism may exhibit:
1) Repetitive actions and sensitivity to light and noise
2) Social withdrawal and lack of eye contact
3) High intelligence and advanced verbal skills
4) All of the above
Autism spectrum disorder (AS4) is characterized by a range of behaviors, including repetitive actions such as hand-flapping or rocking, and sensory sensitivities like being overly sensitive to light and noise. While children with ASD can have varying levels of intelligence and verbal skills, the core features of the disorder are the presence of repetitive behaviors and sensory issues, which are crucial for diagnosis and understanding the condition's impact on daily functioning.
Which of the fibers attached to cementum are most likely to contribute to relapse of tooth rotation:
1) Gingival group of fibers
2) Apical fibers
3) Horizontal fibers
4) Oblique fibers
SOLUTION Gingival group of fibers
Principal fibers of the periodontal ligament rearranges themselves quite rapidly to the position in about 4 weeks.The supra-alveolar gingival fiber take as much as 40 weeks to rearrange around the new position and thus predispose to relapse.
The use of a reservoir on the sprue of a wax pattern decreases
1) volumetric changes in the casting.
2) casting porosity from inclusion of gases.
3) casting porosity from inclusion of foreign bodies.
4) casting porosity during solidification
FPD and RPD Answer: 4A reservoir serves as a storage area for molten material and allows for a consistent flow of metal into the mold during the casting process. This helps to fill in any shrinkage that occurs during cooling and solidification, thereby reducing the formation of porosity defects in the final casting.
A patient returns from holiday with diarrhea and vomiting after eating street food. What is the likely diagnosis?
1) Hepatitis A
2) Norovirus infection
3) Gastroenteritis
4) Food poisoning
Hepatitis A is often associated with consuming contaminated food or water, especially in areas with poor sanitation.
Lignocaine with adrenaline is contra-indicated for ring block of:
1) Penis
2) Toes
3) Pinna
4) All of the above
Xylocaine with adrenaline is contraindicated in ring block of finger, toes, penis, pinna (because these structures have end arteries) and Beta block (intravenous regional anaesthesia).
What is the relationship between fluoride concentration and dental caries
resistance?
1) Low fluoride levels lead to greater resistance.
2) High fluoride levels lead to greater resistance.
3) There is no relationship between fluoride and caries resistance.
4) Fluoride levels do not affect caries resistance.
Higher fluoride levels can lead to the formation of fluorapatite, which is more resistant to acid attack than hydroxyapatite, thereby reducing the risk of dental caries.
What is the percentage of edentulous patients in England and Scotland?
1) 10%
2) 25%
3) 50%
4) 64%
Approximately 64% of adults over 65 years are edentulous in the UK, reflecting the impact of dental health over time.
Non-selective beta-blockers can lead to excessive blood pressure changes when used with adrenalin.
What can be a sign of dental phobia?
1) Occasional apprehension before visits
2) Excessive avoidance of dental care
3) Pleased demeanor when discussing dental procedures
4) Knowledge of dental health
Dental phobia often manifests as a persistent and overwhelming fear that leads to significant avoidance of dental treatment.
Which of the following anaesthetic has beta blocker action:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Nitrous oxide
Halothane produces l3-blocker like action ie., direct depression of myocardium and bradycardia (negative inotropic and negative chronotropic effect).
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for informed consent in dental treatment?
- The patient must be competent to make decisions
- The treatment options must be fully explained to the patient
- The patient must be informed of the risks and benefits of each option
- The patient must sign the consent form in triplicate
Informed consent requires that the patient is competent to make decisions, the treatment options are fully explained, the risks and benefits are communicated, and the patient understands the nature and purpose of the proposed treatment.
All the following are part of the HURIER Model of Listening, except:
1) Hearing.
2) Remembering.
3) Responding.
4) Encouraging.
The HURIER Model of Listening is a framework that outlines the different stages
of effective listening. It stands for Hearing, Understanding, Remembering,
Interpreting, Evaluating, and Responding. Encouraging is not part of this model
because it does not represent a specific stage of the listening process.
Encouraging is more related to the communication skills of the listener, rather
than a distinct step in the listening model.
What is the first line of treatment for a patient with a lower lateral tooth extracted while the alveolus heals to cover the gap?
1) Conventional cantilever
2) Partial denture
3) Both
4) None
A partial denture is often the preferred option to replace missing teeth during the healing process, providing functional and aesthetic support.
Which drug is indicated as part of the management for a codeine overdose?
1) Atropine.
2) Diphenhydramine.
3) Epinephrine.
4) Naloxone.
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and reverses the effects of codeine toxicity, including respiratory depression.
In Angle’s class III malocclusion, mandibular anterior teeth will be
1) Proclined
2) Retroclined
3) Inclined
4) Any of the above
SOLUTION The reason is found in the concept of "dental compensation for skeletal discrepancy. This can occur naturally as well as being created by orthodontic camouflage treatment. In mandibular prognathism, for instance, as the individual grows the upper incisors tend to protrude while the lower incisors incline lingually. By the time growth is completed, the dental discrepancy usually is smaller than the jaw discrepancy. Tooth position has compensated at least partially for the jaw discrepancy.
Which of the following is NOT a component of informed consent in dentistry?
1) Explanation of the diagnosis
2) Description of the proposed treatment
3) Discussion of the risks and benefits of the treatment
4) Patient's agreement to pay for the treatment
While financial considerations are important in the overall decision-making process, informed consent specifically pertains to the patient's understanding and agreement to the medical aspects of the treatment, not the financial agreement.
Which one of the following drugs increases gastrointestinal motility?
1) Glycopyrrolate.
2) Atropine.
3) Neostigmine.
4) Fentanyl.
Synthetic opioids, sharing properties of opium and morphine, include meperidine, propoxyphene, diphenoxylate, fentanyl, buprenorphine, methadone, and pentazocine.
Fentanyl (80 to 100 times more powerful than morphine) is especially dangerous.
Atropine blocks the muscarinic receptors. Atropine decreases gastrointestinal tract motility and secretion and causes constipation.
Although various derivatives and congeners of atropine (such as propantheline, isopropamide, and glycopyrrolate) have been advocated in patients with peptic ulcer or with diarrheal syndromes
Neostigmine is Cholinesterase inhibitors that enhance the effects of parasympathetic stimulation and leads to reversal of intoxication by agents with a anticholinergic action
Fastest route of absorption of local anaesthetic is?
1) Intercostal
2) Epidural
3) Brachial
4) Caudal
The fastest route for absorption of LA is intercostal block, due to close location of blood vessel around the nerve, so that is why LA are rapidly taken by in intercostal block.
Which legislation governs the processing of personal data, including dental records, in the UK?
1) Health and Social Care Act 2008
2) Data Protection Act 2018
3) Access to Health Records Act 1990
4) NHS Records Management Code of Practice
The Data Protection Act 2018 supplements the GDPR and outlines the conditions for processing personal data, including health-related data.
What is the mechanical advantage of a cross bar or winter's elevator?
1) 4.6
2) 2.5
3) 13
4) 75%
The mechanical advantage of a cross bar or winter's elevator is 75%, which is higher than a straight elevator (2.5) and an apex elevator (4.6).
Relapse of orthodontic tooth rotation is due to periodontal traction. This is mainly caused by action of which periodontal fibers
1) Supracrestal fibres and oblique fibres
2) Supracrestal fibres and horizontal fibres
3) Supracrestal fibres and transeptal fibres
4) Transeptal fibres and oblique fibres
PDL traction is mainly due to supracrestal fibres, transeptal fibres of gingival fibers.
It needs at least 232 days for readaptation, e.g. rotations.
To avoid relapse either circumferential supracrestal fibrotomy is done OR a prolonged retention is given.
What is the strength of adrenaline used in dental procedures?
1) 1:100
2) 1:1000
3) 1:10000
4) 1:5000
The standard concentration of adrenaline used in dental procedures is 1:1000, which is effective for hemostasis and prolonging the duration of local anesthesia.
Which cement is more susceptible to failure if contaminated with saliva?
1) Resin cement
2) Glass ionomer cement
3) Zinc phosphate cement
4) Glass ionomer cement (GIC)
GIC is particularly sensitive to contamination with saliva, which can compromise its bonding ability.
Which tooth is most commonly associated with dental impaction?
1) Maxillary canine
2) Mandibular first molar
3) Mandibular third molar
4) Maxillary central incisor
The mandibular third molar (wisdom tooth) is the most frequently impacted tooth due to limited space in the dental arch.
In designing a partial denture, what is the first step?
1) Outline saddles
2) Surveying
3) Plan supports
4) Obtain retention
Surveying helps determine the best path of insertion and identifies any undercuts, which is important for subsequent design steps to ensure proper retention and esthetics.
What does T2 indicate in the TNM classification?
1) Tumor size less than 2 cm
2) Tumor size between 2-4 cm
3) Tumor size greater than 4 cm
4) Tumor extending to adjacent structures
T2 indicates that the tumor measures between 2 and 4 cm in its greatest dimension, which is important for staging cancer.
The tonsillar lymph node is situated at the level of:
1) Angle of the mandible
2) C6 vertebrae
3) Jugulodigastric crossing
4) Clavicle
ADC Test Answer: 1
The tonsillar lymph node, also known as the jugulodigastric node, is located near the angle of the mandible, making it significant in evaluating head and neck pathologies.
The primary canine is usually exfoliated between the ages of 1. 5 and 6 years 2. 10 and 11 years 3. l3 and l4years 4. 8 and 9years
Dental Anatomy Answer: 2The primary canine is usually exfoliated between the ages of 10 and 11 years
Informed consent is particularly important in which of the following
scenarios?
1) When the patient is fully aware of their medical condition
2) When the treatment is routine and low-risk
3) When the procedure is invasive and carries significant risks
4) When the patient has a family member present
Informed consent is crucial for invasive procedures that have significant risks to ensure that patients are fully aware and can make informed decisions about their care.
What type of respiratory protection is recommended for dental personnel during aerosol-producing procedures?
1) N95 mask
2) Surgical mask
3) Powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR)
4) Full-face respirator
N95 masks are recommended for dental personnel during aerosol-producing procedures as they provide a higher level of protection against airborne particles compared to surgical masks.
After completion of endodontic chemomechanical debridement
1) all tissue should be removed from the root canal system.
2) permanent inflammation may be cause4)
3) the root canal should be sterile.
4) some areas of the root canal system may be incompletely cleaned
Despite thorough chemomechanical debridement, it is common for certain areas within the complex anatomy of the root canal system to remain inadequately cleaned. This can occur due to the presence of lateral canals, isthmuses, or other anatomical variations that are difficult to access, leading to potential areas of infection or inflammation.
Current evidence indicates that endorphins are 1. endogenous molecules having morphine like properties 2. receptors located in the periaqueductal grey area of the brain Which are sensitive to opiates 3. large polypeptides that regulate renal activity 4. central nervous system transmitters implicated in depressive psychoses
Pharmacology Answer: 1endorphins are endogenous molecules having morphine like properties
A medication that is associated with gingivitis
1) phenytoin
2) carbamazepine
3) propranolol
4) diazepam
Gingivitis is a form of periodontal disease.
Medications such as phenytoin and birth control pills, and ingestion of heavy metals such as lead and bismuth are also associated with gingivitis.
What suture material is recommended for lip trauma and oroantral fistula?
1) Chromic gut
2) Black silk
3) Vicryl
4) Nylon
For lip trauma and oroantral fistula repair, Vicryl (polyglactin 910) is the recommended suture material.
Recurrent unilateral submandibular swelling and pain just prior to meals is
indicative of
1) an odontogenic infection.
2) sialolithiasis.
3) ranul1)a
4) sarcoidosis.
E. Sjögren’s syndrome.
Salivary stones block ducts, causing pain and swelling when saliva production
increases, such as during meals.
The drug currently in wide use for treating opioid dependent individuals 1. methadone 2. pentazocine 3. alphaprodine 4. meperidine
Pharmacology Answer: 1The drug currently in wide use for treating opioid dependent individuals is metahdone
Which of the following local anaesthetic is sympathomimetic:
1) Cocaine
2) Procaine
3) Lignocaine
4) Tetracaine
Cocaine is a sympathomimetic local anaesthetic and thus adrenaline should not be added to it.
Loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by:
1) Bell’s palsy
2) Traumatic bone cyst
3) Trigeminal neuralgia
4) Fracture in the mandible first molar region
ADC Test Answer: 4
A fracture in this region can damage the inferior alveolar nerve, leading to loss of sensation in the lower lip and chin area.
What is the standard of care in dental records?
- The highest level of care possible
- The average care provided by dentists in the community
- The care mandated by the patient's insurance policy
- The care required by dental board regulations
The standard of care is based on what a reasonably prudent dentist would do under the same or similar circumstances, which is often reflected in the community average.
What is the main goal when treating an anxious patient in dentistry?
1) To complete the treatment as quickly as possible
2) To utilize the maximum amount of sedation
3) To alleviate fear and build trust
4) To avoid all invasive procedures
The primary goal is to reduce anxiety, thereby fostering a trusting relationship that improves the overall treatment experience.
Which of the following instruments is NOT typically used in a pulpotomy procedure?
1) Cotton pellets.
2) Spoon excavator.
3) Diamond bur.
4) Formocresol.
A diamond bur is not typically used in a pulpotomy procedure. A 330 bur is used to remove the roof of the pulp chamber.
Which of the following is NOT a component of a comprehensive dental record?
- Patient medical and dental history
- Clinical examination findings
- Treatment plans and consent forms
- Social security number of the patient's next of kin
While it's essential to have emergency contact information, including the next of kin, a social security number is not typically considered a necessary part of a comprehensive dental recor4) The primary components of a comprehensive dental record include the patient's personal and medical/dental history, clinical examination findings, diagnoses, treatment plans, consent forms, and radiographs/images.
After performing an apicoectomy, which of the following should be placed in the
bony defect prior to suturing the flap?
1) Corticosteroids.
2) Nothing.
3) Oxidized cellulose.
4) Bone wax.
In most cases, after an apicoectomy, it is standard practice to leave the bony defect empty (nothing placed) to allow for natural healing and bone regeneration. The area is typically sutured closed without the addition of materials, as this can promote better healing and reduce the risk of complications.
Which class of antihypertensive agents is contraindicated in pregnancy due to risk of fetal harm?
1) Diuretics
2) Calcium channel blockers
3) ACE inhibitors
4) Alpha-blockers
ACE inhibitors are contraindicated during pregnancy because they can harm fetal development.
Which condition is often associated with an increased risk for periodontal disease?
1) Down syndrome
2) Asthma
3) Hypertension
4) Diabetes
Individuals with Down syndrome have an increased risk of periodontal disease due to factors like hypotonia, which can complicate oral hygiene practices.
What is the typical onset of pain for a dry socket?
1) Immediately post-extraction
2) 3-4 days post-extraction
3) 1 week post-extraction
4) 2 weeks post-extraction
Dry socket pain typically starts 3-4 days after tooth extraction due to clot breakdown and bone exposure.
Which antibiotics are commonly used for periodontitis?
1) Amoxicillin and Clindamycin
2) Tetracycline and Penicillin V
3) Ciprofloxacin and Metronidazole
4) Azithromycin and Doxycycline
While Tetracycline and Penicillin V are antibiotics that can be used to treat periodontal infections, they are not as commonly prescribed as Azithromycin and Doxycycline, which are both effective against the anaerobic bacteria often implicated in periodontitis. Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic and Doxycycline is a tetracycline derivative. These medications are commonly used due to their broad spectrum of antimicrobial activity and their ability to penetrate into the periodontal tissues effectively. They are often prescribed in combination with other antibiotics or as part of a systemic antimicrobial therapy for the treatment of moderate to severe periodontitis
Penumbra in radiology and imaging refers to?
1) Area of sharpness in imaging
2) Lack of sharpness of the film
3) The outer region of a shadow
4) The central part of an image
In the context of radiology and imaging, penumbra refers to the peripheral, less dense area surrounding the shadow cast by an opaque object. It is the transition zone between the dense shadow and the surrounding, unaffected tissue. It can sometimes cause difficulties in interpreting the extent of lesions or structures due to the blending of the shadow's edges with the surrounding tissue.
What is the typical pH of a healthy oral environment?
1) 5.0-5.5.
2) 6.0-6.5.
3) 7.0.
4) 7.5-8.0.
ADC Test Answer: 3
A healthy oral environment has a neutral pH of around 7.0, which helps maintain the integrity of the tooth structure and prevent dental decay.
A 30 year old pregnant woman developes tuberculosis. Which of the following antitubercular drugs should not be used:
1) INH
2) Rifampicin
3) Streptomycin
4) Ethambutol
Streptomycin is contraindicated in pregnant women because of fetal ototoxicity.
If a biochemical test gives the same reading for a sample on repeated testing, it is inferred that the measurement is:
1. Precise.
2. Accurate.
3. Specific.
4. Sensitive.
repeatablity of test is precision and getting results within reference range is accuracy
What is a common reason why a ten-year-old amalgam filling has become raised above the tooth surface?
1) Wear
2) Creep
3) Improper placement
4) Over-carving
Creep is the tendency of dental amalgam to deform under constant stress, often leading to a raised filling surface as it continues to flow slowly over time.
According to the specific plaque hypothesis, which of the following
bacteria is NOT associated with a specific type of dental caries?
1) Streptococcus mutans - enamel caries
2) Lactobacillus - dentinal caries
3) Actinomyces - root caries
4) Escherichia coli - enamel caries
The specific plaque hypothesis links Streptococcus mutans to enamel caries, Lactobacillus to dentinal caries, and Actinomyces to root caries. Escherichia coli is not mentioned as a main cause of dental caries in this context.
The first ossification center of the mandible in six weeks old human embryo is found in which of the following locations
1) Future coronoid process
2) Future condylar process
3) Future mental foramen
4) Future mandibular foramen
SOLUTION The mandible is ossified in the fibrous membrane covering the outer surfaces of Meckel’s cartilages. These cartilages form the cartilaginous bar of the mandibular arch, and are two in number, a right and a left. Ossification takes place in the membrane covering the outer surface of the ventral end of Meckel’s cartilage , and each half of the bone is formed from a single center which appears, near the mental foramen, about the sixth week of fetal life. By the tenth week the portion of Meckel’s cartilage which lies below and behind the incisor teeth is surrounded and invaded by the membrane bone
Marginal leakage of a composite resin restoration will
1) not be detectable.
2) be minimized by use of a bonding agent.
3) decrease with longevity.
4) noneof above
Bonding agents create a seal between the composite resin and the tooth structure, reducing marginal gaps and leakage.
Developing roots will split when the:
1) Epithelial diaphragm forms too many lateromedial extensions.
2) Dental follicle cells migrate into the epithelial diaphragm.
3) Cementoblasts fail to develop on and stabilize the root’s surface.
4) Periodontal ligament forms too soon.
Oral Embryology Answer: 1Excessive extensions of the epithelial diaphragm during root development result in root splitting and the formation of supernumerary roots.
The cause of death with opioid intoxication is 1. respiratory depression 2. cardiac arrest 3. terminal convulsions 4. oxygen apnea
Pharmacology Answer: 1The cause of death with opioid intoxication is respiratory depression
What should a dentist do if a patient is unable to read the informed consent
form due to visual impairment?
1) Have a family member read it to the patient
2) Skip the consent process
3) Read the form to the patient and ensure they understand the information
4) Have the patient listen to an audio recording of the consent form
It is the dentist's responsibility to ensure that the patient
comprehends the information presented in the consent form. If the patient cannot
read, the dentist should read the form to them and answer any questions to
confirm understanding.
The most common cause of failure in root canal treatment is:
1) Over-filling the canal
2) Under-filling the canal
3) Instrument breakage
4) Infection during treatment
ADC Test Answer: 2
Inadequate filling of the root canal system allows for persistent infection, making it the leading cause of failure in root canal procedures.
What is the average number of 15-year-olds who have lost 6-7 teeth?
1) 1.1
2) 3.1
3) 4.7
4) 5.5
Current statistics indicate that approximately 3.1% of 15-year-olds have lost 6-7 teeth due to caries or other dental issues.
The primary reason to replace missing anterior teeth with a bridge is:
1) Aesthetic considerations
2) Functional occlusion
3) Overbite correction
4) Tooth stability
ADC Test Answer: 1
Aesthetics play a crucial role in the choice to replace missing anterior teeth, as they impact patient confidence and facial appearance.
The obturating material of choice for primary teeth following complete pulpectomy is:
1) Zn phosphate cement and formocresol combination paste
2) Quick setting hydroxide cement
3) Zinc oxide and eugenol cement
4) Gutta-percha
ADC Test Answer: 3
Zinc oxide eugenol cement (ZOE) is preferred for obturation in primary teeth due to its good sealing properties and resorbability, which is important for the eventual eruption of the succedaneous permanent tooth.
A positive and prolonged reaction to a heat stimulus indicates that the pulp is
1) necrotic
2) in an early hyperemic state.
3) normal.
4) irreversibly damaged
A positive and prolonged reaction to a heat stimulus typically indicates that the pulp is irreversibly damaged. This prolonged response suggests that the nerve fibers are still responding to the stimulus, but the damage is significant enough that the pulp is not capable of healing, indicating a need for endodontic treatment.
You notice a lesion on the labial alveolar mucosa of the lower right lateral incisor tooth of one of your patients and decide to take a biopsy. Which nerve would require local anesthesia in order to carry out a pain-free biopsy?
1) The lingual nerve
2) The buccal nerve
3) The incisive nerve
4) The mental nerve
The incisive nerve would require local anesthesia in order to carry out a pain-free biopsy.
A patient presents with dental injuries that are inconsistent with the reported mechanism of injury. What should the dental professional do?
1) Confront the patient about the discrepancies
2) Document the findings and report to authorities
3) Refer the patient to a psychologist
4) Ignore the inconsistencies
Inconsistent injuries should be documented and reported, as they may indicate abuse.
At the end of a balanced anaesthesia technique with non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, a patient recovered spontaneously from the effect of muscle relaxant without any reversal. Which of the below given is the most probable relaxant the patient received?
- Pancuronium
- Gallamine
- Atracurium
- Vecuronium
The patient must have received Atracurium which is a short-acting muscle relaxant.
To impart a hardening heat treatment to a dental gold alloy, the best method is to Reheat to 450°C and cool uniformly to 250°C over a period of 15 to 30 minutes
What hormone increases blood glucose and decreases serum potassium?
1) Insulin
2) Cortisol
3) Glucagon
4) Adrenaline
Cortisol increases blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreases serum potassium levels by enhancing renal excretion.
What is the primary function of an apex elevator?
1) To remove the tooth root apex
2) To luxate the tooth
3) To expand the tooth socket
4) To remove bone around the tooth apex
An apex elevator is used to remove bone or soft tissue obstructing the tooth apex, facilitating extraction.
For a cantilever bridge replacing a missing maxillary canine, the best abutments are:
1) Both premolars
2) Incisor and premolar
3) Lateral and central incisors
4) Single central incisor
ADC Test Answer: 1
A cantilever bridge requires support from adjacent teeth on one side of the space, making both premolars ideal abutments for the missing canine.
What is the most common occupational health problem among dentists?
1) Tinnitus
2) Musculoskeletal pain
3) Hypertension
4) Hearing loss
According to the study conducted among dentists in southern Thailand, musculoskeletal pain was the most common occupational health problem, with 78% of the dentists reporting it.
An alpha helix of a protein is most likely to be disrupted if a missense mutation introduces the following armino acid within the alpha helical structure:
1. Alanine.
2. Aspartic acid.
3. Tyrosine.
4. Glycine.
Glycine and proline introduce a bend in structure of protein, hence alpha helix disrupted
Which of the following medications is known to potentially cause a lichenoid reaction?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Beta blockers
3) Paracetamol
4) Antibiotics
Beta blockers and certain other medications, including NSAIDs and antimalarials, can cause lichenoid drug reactions, characterized by oral lesions resembling lichen planus.
How should a patient's refusal of treatment be documented in the dental record?
- In a separate, sealed envelope
- In the treatment plan section with a notation of refusal
- In the financial section of the record
- It does not need to be documented
Refusal of treatment should be clearly documented in the patient's medical record to ensure that all parties are aware of the decision.
Which of the following does NOT require informed consent?
1) General clinical examination
2) Removal of an impacted third molar
3) Periodontal probing
4) Administering medication with high risks
Informed consent is generally not required for diagnostic
procedures such as general clinical examinations, as they are considered part of
the initial assessment that patients expect when they visit a healthcare
professional.
What is the primary legal obligation related to dental records?
- To store them for a minimum of five years
- To provide them to the patient upon request
- To destroy them after treatment is completed
- To never disclose them without the patient's consent
Dentists are legally required to provide patients with a copy of their dental records when requested.
What should be included in a patient's medical history in dental records?
1) Patient's favorite food
2) List of systemic diseases and medications
3) Patient's hobbies
4) Financial status
A thorough medical history should include relevant health information that can impact dental treatment.
To prolong the setting time of glass ionomer cement (GIC), one can:
1) Cool down the mixing slab
2) Increase the amount of powder
3) Add more water
4) Decrease mixing time
ADC Test Answer: 1
Cooling the slab on which GIC is mixed can extend the setting time; however, this might negatively affect the cement's strength.