Dentist Abroad
What is the largest possible cavosurface angle?
1) 90 degrees
2) 100 degrees
3) 110 degrees
4) 120 degrees
The largest possible cavosurface angle in dental restorations is typically around 110 degrees, which helps in achieving a proper seal and retention.
The principal growth sites of the maxilla in a downward and forward direction include which of the following sutures?
1 Frontomaxillary.
2) Zygomaticomaxillary.
3) Pterygopalatine.
4) Median palatine.
1). (1), (2), and (3).
2). (1) and (3).
3). (2) and (4).
4). (4) only.
Growth of the maxilla occurs at multiple sutures, particularly the frontomaxillary, zygomaticomaxillary, and pterygopalatine, allowing for its expansion and forward displacement.
Hypochromic anemia is associated with
1) iron deficiency.
2) aminopyrine therapy.
3) vitamin B12 deficiency.
4) folic acid deficiency.
Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by small (microcytic), pale
(hypochromic) red blood cells due to inadequate hemoglobin synthesis.
Common causes include poor dietary intake, chronic blood loss, or malabsorption.
Ultrashort acting blocker most commonly used in anaesthesia is:
1) Esmolol
2) Nadolol
3) Propranolol
4) Atenolol
Esmolol is metabolized by RBC esterase, making it very short acting with a half-life of only 8-10 minutes.
The DMF index is commonly used to measure:
1) Oral hygiene
2) Dental radiograph efficacy
3) Prevalence and severity of dental caries
4) Tooth mobility
The Decayed, Missing, and Filled teeth (DMF) index is a standard epidemiological tool to assess the burden of dental caries in populations.
The essential ingredient of dental inlay investment are :
1) Quartz, cristobalite
2) β hemihydrate
3) α hemihydrate
4) Ammonium phosphate
The essential ingredients of the dental inlay investment employed with the conventional gold casting alloys are a-hemihydrate of gypsum, quartz, or cristobalite, which are allotropic forms of silica.
In regards to HIV infection, which of the following is the earliest finding?
1) Kaposi sarcoma on the palate
2) Reduced hemoglobin
3) Infection with pneumocystic carinii
4) Reduction in white cell count
ADC Test Answer: 4
A reduction in white blood cell count, particularly CD4 T cells, is one of the earliest indicators of HIV infection and immune system compromise.
Following orthodontic treatment of rotated tooth, relapse is most commonly due to
1) Oblique fibers
2) Supracrestal fibers
3) Sharpey’s fibers
4) Apical fibers
Solution This is because elastic supracrestal fibres remodel extremely slowly and can still exert forces capable of displacing a tooth even at 1 year after removal of an orthodontic appliance.
Which clinical sign might indicate the need for a referral to a physician
or specialist when treating a geriatric patient?
1) Mild tooth sensitivity
2) History of hypertension
3) Postural issues
4) Uncontrolled diabetes
Uncontrolled diabetes can lead to complications that affect
dental treatment, making it essential to refer the patient for medical
management.
In mixed dentition, which of the following may be considered as a self correcting problem with age?
1) Unilateral loss of primary canine
2) Lack of interdental spaces
3) A distal step
4) Open bite
SOLUTION The possibility that a distal step would become class II is very real, and this not self correcting problem.
Normal child will go through a transitory stage of mandibular incisor crowding at age 8 to 9 even if there will eventually be enough room to accommodate all the permanent teeth in good alignment. In other words, a period when the mandibular incisors are slightly crowded is a normal developmental stage.
Continued development of the arches improves the spacing situation, and by the time the canine teeth erupt, space is once again adequate.
Which of the following is most effective mean of health education:
1) Seminar
2)
Lectures
3)
Individual instruction
4)
Group discussion
Individual instruction is the most effective means of health education because it allows for personalized and tailored information to be delivered to individuals. This method ensures that the specific needs and concerns of each person are addressed, leading to better understanding and retention of the information. It also allows for interactive and one-on-one communication between the instructor and the learner, enabling a more engaging and impactful learning experience. Additionally, individual instruction provides a safe space for individuals to ask questions and seek clarification on health-related topics, promoting a deeper understanding and application of the knowledge gained
In orthodontic treatment, the forces applied should not exceed the ________________ in order to avoid injuries to the tissues.
1) Arterial blood pressure
2) Muscular forces of facial muscles
3) Masticatory retrusion
4) Capillary blood pressure
SOLUTION Optimum orthodontic force is one, which moves teeth most rapidly in the desired direction, with the least possible damage to tissue and with minimum patient discomfort. Oppenheim and Schwarz following extensive studies stated that the optimum force is equivalent to the capillary pulse pressure, which is 20-26 gm/sq.
From a clinical point of view, optimum orthodontic force has the following characteristics:
1) Products rapid tooth movement
2) Minimal patient discomfort
3) The lag phase of tooth movement is minimal
4) No marked mobility of the teeth being moved
From a histologic point of view the use of optimum orthodontic force has the following characteristics:
1) The vitality of the tooth and supporting periodontal ligament is maintained
2) Initiates maximum cellular response
3) Produces direct or frontal resorption
The loss of tooth structure on the root resorption to the periodontal ligament
is referred to as what?
1) External root resorption
2) Internal root resorption
3) Expanded root resorption
4) None of the above
External root resorption refers to the loss of tooth structure on the root due to resorption by the periodontal ligament. This occurs on the outer surface of the root and is often caused by factors such as trauma, orthodontic treatment, or inflammation. Internal root resorption, on the other hand, refers to the resorption of tooth structure within the root canal. Expanded root resorption and none of the above are not accurate terms to describe the loss of tooth structure on the root due to periodontal ligament resorption.
When treating a patient with an intellectual disability, which of the following is NOT a component of informed consent?
1) Ensuring the patient understands the risks and benefits of the proposed treatment
2) Having a legal guardian present to sign the consent form
3) Allowing the patient to ask questions about the treatment
4) Providing the patient with written information at their comprehension level
Informed consent requires that the patient themselves understands and consents to the treatment, not necessarily that a legal guardian must be present to sign.
Overdrying after acid etching before bond application causes:
1) Micro leakage.
2) Nano shrinkage.
3) Gaping.
4) Secondary caries.
ADC Test Answer: 2
Overdrying dentin surfaces after acid etching can lead to nano shrinkage, which can impair the bond strength of the adhesive and result in clinical problems.
What is the recommended time frame for administering nitrous oxide sedation to achieve its anxiolytic effect?
1) 5-10 minutes
2) 2-3 minutes
3) 30-60 minutes
4) 1-2 minutes
Nitrous oxide typically takes 5-10 minutes to reach its full effect, allowing patients to feel relaxed and less anxious about their dental treatment.
What is the purpose of the Code of Ethics established by dental associations?
1) To provide financial benefits to members
2) To guide dental professionals in ethical decision-making
3) To promote competition among dental practices
4) To regulate dental fees
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 2The Code of Ethics serves as a framework for ethical conduct, helping dental professionals navigate complex ethical dilemmas and maintain high standards of practice.
Heavy cigarette smoking significantly increases the incidence of
1) aphthous stomatitis.
2) geographic tongue.
3) lichen planus.
4) mucosal pigmentation.
Cigarette smoking is associated with oral mucosal changes,
including the deposition of melanin pigment in the basal layer of the
epithelium, leading to mucosal pigmentation. This is a common oral manifestation
of chronic smoking and can occur in various areas of the oral cavity.
What is the most effective way to minimize the risk of sharps injuries in a dental practice? 1) Use of retractors during procedures 2) Proper disposal of needles and sharp instruments 3) Frequent handwashing 4) Wearing gloves at all times
Occupational Hazards Answer: 2Proper disposal in designated sharps containers is crucial in minimizing the risk of sharps injuries, which can lead to infections.
What is the primary legal concern regarding dental records?
- Data protection
- Patient confidentiality
- Consent management
- All of the above
Dental records are subject to legal regulations concerning data protection, patient confidentiality, and consent management.
As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true?
1) Prophylactic prescription of antibiotics reduces dramatically the chances of infection
2) Raising a lingual flap will increase the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve
3) Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduce postoperative swelling
4) Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root
ADC Test Answer: 2
Raising a lingual flap can increase the risk of temporary nerve injury (neurapraxia) while potentially reducing the risk of more severe nerve damage (neurotmesis).
Basal cell carcinoma is characterized by:
1) Rapid growth and metastasis
2) Local cutaneous invasion
3) Inability to invade bone
4) Poor prognosis
ADC Test Answer: 2
Basal cell carcinoma typically exhibits local invasion but rarely metastasizes, making it generally treatable with a good prognosis.
Not a physical property of propofol:
1) Water based preparation
2) Colour of the solution is white
3) It contains egg lecithin
4) Used as 2% strength
Propofol is oil based preparation containing soybean oil, egg lecithin and glycerol. The colour is milky white and available as 1% and 2% strength.
Beta-blockers reduce blood pressure primarily by:
1) Blocking angiotensin II receptors
2) Reducing heart rate and cardiac output
3) Increasing diuresis
4) Vasodilation
Beta-blockers lower blood pressure by decreasing heart rate and the force of contraction, which reduces cardiac output.
What role does the dental assistant play in managing an anxious patient?
1) To perform all clinical procedures
2) To provide medication to patients
3) To offer emotional support and reassurance
4) To make treatment decisions
Dental assistants can play a crucial role in offering emotional support, helping to soothe anxious patients during visits.
What is the purpose of a comprehensive medical history in dental care?
- To bill the patient's insurance
- To tailor treatment plans based on the patient's health
- To determine the patient's credit score
- To market dental services to the patient
Knowing the patient's medical history helps the dentist make informed decisions about the patient's treatment and overall care.
Which of the following have a tendency to recur if not treated?
1) Giant cell granuloma
2) Lipoma
3) Fibrous epulis
4) Hematoma
ADC Test Answer: 1
Giant cell granulomas have a recurrence rate of 15-20% if not adequately treated.
Which of the following is a beta channel antagonist?
1) Verapamil
2) Nifedipine
3) Amplodipine
4) Metoprolol
Metoprolol is a beta channel antagonist because it belongs to a class of drugs known as beta blockers. Beta blockers work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on beta receptors in the body, thereby reducing heart rate and blood pressure. Metoprolol specifically targets beta-1 receptors, which are primarily found in the heart. By blocking these receptors, metoprolol helps to reduce the workload on the heart and improve its efficiency. This makes metoprolol an effective medication for treating conditions such as hypertension, angina, and certain types of heart rhythm disorders.
The main stimulation for production of A.D.H. is 1. Increase in plasma potassium. 2. Decrease in blood volume 3. Increase in extracellular fluid 4. Decrease inextracellularosmotic pressure
Physiology Answer: 2The main stimulation for production of A.D.H. is Decrease in blood volume - A.D.H. secretion increases during osmotic diuresis
permanent maxillary First molar teeth normally has four root canals
Which one of the following is used in water fluoridation?
1) SnF2
2) 1.23% APF
3) H2SiF2
4) CaSiF2
ADC Test Answer: 3
Hydrofluorosilicic acid (H2SiF2) is widely used for water fluoridation, replacing hydroxyapatite with more decay-resistant fluoroapatite in tooth enamel.
Surface activity and low toxic potential?
1) Cocaine
2) Bupivacaine
3) Benzocaine
4) Procaine
Benzocaine is the correct answer because it has surface activity and low toxic potential.
A 22-year-old woman presents with acute gingival hypertrophy and spontaneous bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1) Myelogenous leukaemia
2) Infectious mononucleosis
3) Thrombocytopenic purpura
4) Gingivitis of local aetiological origin
The symptoms and blood analysis suggest a hematological disorder, with myelogenous leukaemia being a strong possibility.
A dentist is using a Sof-Lex disc on an upper molar and lacks finger support. What is most likely to occur?
1) Gingival trauma
2) Mucosal burn
3) Mucosal trauma
4) Trauma to adjacent tooth
5) Gingival laceration
Lack of finger support while using a Sof-Lex disc can lead to improper control, resulting in potential trauma to the gingiva.
Central neuraxial anesthesia is not contra indicated in:
1) Patient on Aspirin
2) Patient on oral anticoagulant
3) Platelet count <80,000
4) Pt on LV heparin
Local Anesthesia Answer: 3
Platelet Count <80,000 Absolute Contraindication a.
b. Patient refusal.
c. Severe hypovolemia (shock)
d. Patient on anticoagulants
e. Patient on thrombolytic/ fibrinolytic therapy
f. Bleeding disorders/ coagulopathy.
g. Septicemia and bacteremia.
h. Infection at local site.
Relative Contraindications
a. Fixed cardiac output lesions
b. Mild to Moderate Hypotension and Hypovolemia
c. Severe ischemic heart disease.
d. Heart block and patient on ?-Blockers.
e. Patient on Aspirin
f. Patient on minidose heparin subcutaneously.
g. Psychiatric disorders.
What is the primary treatment for syncope during a dental procedure?
1) Administering fluids intravenously
2) Placing the patient in the supine position
3) Inhalation of ammonia salts
4) Giving oxygen
Laying the patient flat with their legs elevated helps increase blood flow to the brain and restore consciousness.
What percentage of children suffer from dental trauma?
1) 5% at age 8
2) 11% at age 12
3) 13% at age 15
4) All of the above
The percentages of children suffering from dental trauma increase with age, with 5% at age 8, 11% at age 12, and 13% at age 15.
The most appropriate drug for treatment of generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) is:
1) valproate
2) methylphenidate
3) ethosuximide
4) diazepam
For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, phenytoin, carbamazepine, or valproate is the drug of choice.
A retrograde filling is indicated
1) when the apical foramen cannot be sealed by conventional endodontics.
2) when a root perforation needs to be sealed
3) when conventional endodontics is impractical.
4) All of the above.
Retrograde filling is a procedure used in endodontics to seal the root canal system from the apex when conventional methods are not feasible. This can occur in various situations:
- Apical foramen sealing issues: If the conventional approach fails to adequately seal the apex, a retrograde filling can provide an alternative solution.
- Root perforation: In cases where there is a perforation in the root, retrograde filling can help seal the area and prevent contamination.
- Impracticality of conventional methods: Situations such as complex anatomy or previous failed treatments may necessitate a retrograde approach to ensure proper sealing and treatment success.
When calcospherites fail to fuse during calcification of dentin matrix then
1 Interglobular dentin is formed
2 Dead tracts are found in formed dentin
3 Irregular dentin results
4 None
Sometimes, mineralization of dentin begins in small globular areas that fail to coalesce into a homogenous mass.
These zones are known as globular dentin or interglobular spaces. Thus, demonstrating defect of mineralization and not of matrix formation, the dentinal tubules pass uninterruptedly through interglobular dentin.
Hyperthermia can be seen with:
1) Lithium toxicity
2) Opium withdrawal
3) Malignant neuroleptic syndrome
4) Eclampsia
Malignant neuroleptic syndrome, often caused by phenothiazine used for neuroleptanalgesia and premedication, can cause hyperthermia.
Guiding planes on abutment teeth for a removable partial denture should be prepared before the occlusal rests are prepared in order to:
1) Avoid post-insertion adjustment.
2) Facilitate surveying of the cast.
3) Finalize the location of the occlusal rest.
4) Improve the retention of the direct retainer assembly.
FPD and RPD Answer: 3
On inspection of the lateral border of the tongue at the base, which structure would you expect to find?
1) Filiform papillae
2) Fungiform papillae
3) Circumvallate papillae
4) Lymph nodes
ADC Test Answer: 3
Circumvallate papillae are located at the posterior part of the tongue and are involved in taste sensation.
Highest analgesic effect is a feature of:
1) Ketamine
2) Thiopentone
3) Propofol
4) Etomidate
Ketamine is a very potent analgesic (maximum analgesia among all IV anaesthetics).
During crown cementation, complete filling of crown with cement is not advisable due to :
1) Increased risk of bubble entrapment
2) Increased seating time
3) Increased pressure required for seating crown
4) All of the above
It is not advisable to fill the crown completely with cement due to following 4 reasons: 1.
2. the risk for bubble entrapment increases
3. increased pressure may be needed
4. the time for seating increases
What condition is characterized by bilateral swellings not associated with food smell and associated with lymphadenopathy?
1) Sarcoidosis
2) Lymphoma
3) Tuberculosis
4) Infectious mononucleosis
Sarcoidosis can present with bilateral swellings and lymphadenopathy, often without any associated symptoms like food smell.
What is the retention period for dental records according to most dental boards?
1) 2 years
2) 5 years
3) 10 years
4) Varies by country/state
The retention period for dental records is typically dictated by each country's or state's dental board.
What does muscle resistance to insulin in obesity and genetic profile usually
lead to?
1) Type I diabetes
2) Type 2 diabetes
3) Hyperpigmentation
4) Depression
Muscle resistance to insulin in obesity and genetic profile usually leads to type 2 diabetes. This is because insulin resistance occurs when the muscle cells do not respond properly to insulin, resulting in elevated blood sugar levels. Obesity and genetic factors can contribute to the development of insulin resistance, leading to the progression of type 2 diabetes. Hyperpigmentation and depression are not directly related to muscle resistance to insulin in obesity and genetic profile.
What is the purpose of regular audits of dental records?
- To assess and improve the quality of patient care
- To ensure compliance with data protection laws
- To determine staff performance levels
- To identify the most popular treatment options
Regular audits of dental records help dental practices to evaluate the quality of their care, identify areas for improvement, and ensure that records meet legal and professional standards.
Which soft palate muscle is not affected by a laceration of the mucosa
1 cm lingual to the 2nd maxillary molar?
1) Tensor veli palatini
2) Palatoglossus
3) Palatopharyngeus
4) Levator veli palatini
A laceration of the mucosa 1 cm lingual to the 2nd maxillary molar is unlikely to damage the levator veli palatini as it is located above the palatoglossal fold.
Which bacteria is most commonly associated with acute dentistry-related infections?
1) Streptococcus viridans
2) Staphylococcus aureus
3) Escherichia coli
4) Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus viridans is part of the normal oral flora and frequently implicated in dental infections, particularly endocarditis following dental procedures.
9 months of age, is the usual eruption time for 1. primary mandibular canines 2. primary maxillary canines 3. primary maxillary first molars 4. primary lower lateral incisors
Dental Anatomy Answer: 49 months of age, is the usual eruption time for primary lower lateral incis
Which of the following is contraindicated in hypertensive patients for gingival retraction?
1) Plain retraction cord
2) Adrenalin-impregnated cord
3) Saline solution
4) None of the above
Adrenalin-impregnated cords can cause significant blood pressure spikes, which are risky in hypertensive patients.
What is the significance of a tooth undergoing 30-40% mineral loss for
radiographic detection of caries?
1) It indicates the lesion is only visible with advanced imaging techniques
2) It is the threshold for a lesion to be considered a cavity
3) It means the lesion is likely to be visible on a radiograph
4) It signifies that the tooth is beyond repair
Radiographs typically detect lesions that have undergone significant mineral loss, which is roughly 30-40%. At this stage, the lesion is usually large enough to be seen on a radiograph.
Disruption in occlusion (how the teeth meet) and step deformities in the mandible are key clinical features that raise suspicion of an underlying mandibular fracture, particularly after trauma.
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in the pathogenesis of contact dermatitis?
1) Type I
2) Type II
3) Type III
4) Type IV
Contact dermatitis is mediated by a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction (Type IV), which involves T-cell activation.
Cleft lip is caused by the failure of which of the following processes to fuse?
1) Maxillary.
2) Maxillary and lateral nasal.
3) Palatine.
4) Maxillary and palatine
Oral Medicine and Oral Pathology Answer: 2Cleft lip occurs when the maxillary and lateral nasal processes fail to fuse during embryogenesis, leading to an incomplete upper lip.
What is the relationship between fluoride concentration and dental caries
resistance?
1) Low fluoride levels lead to greater resistance.
2) High fluoride levels lead to greater resistance.
3) There is no relationship between fluoride and caries resistance.
4) Fluoride levels do not affect caries resistance.
Higher fluoride levels can lead to the formation of fluorapatite, which is more resistant to acid attack than hydroxyapatite, thereby reducing the risk of dental caries.
Which of the following action is ascribed to delta type of opioid receptors?
1) Supraspinal analgesis
2) Respiratory depression
3) Euphoria
4) Reduced intestinal motility
Functions of delta type opioid receptors are: supraspinal analgesia
spinal analgesia
modulation of hormone and neurotransmitter release
How can a cusp fracture immediate to a Class II inlay be detected?
1) History.
2) Visually.
3) Radiograph.
4) Percussion.
E. Touching the tip of the cusp / Pressure on the cusp.
ADC Test Answer: 3
A cusp fracture may not always be visible on a radiograph due to its location and extent, but it is often the best method to detect such a fracture in a clinical setting.
A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12-week period following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by:
1) Further review and reassurance since it will most probably heal spontaneously
2) Antibiotic therapy and nasal decongestants
3) Curettage and dressing of the defect
4) Excision of the fistula and surgical closure
ADC Test Answer: 4
Surgical closure is the most effective treatment for a persistent oroantral fistula, especially after 12 weeks, as spontaneous healing is unlikely.
Common symptoms of hypertension include headaches, dizziness, and epistaxis (nosebleeds).
Which of the following is not a function of a rest in a removable partial denture (RPD)?
1) To provide resistance against occlusal load
2) To maintain occlusal contact with opposing teeth
3) To act as a direct retainer
4) To prevent extrusion of abutment teeth
The primary functions of a rest in a removable partial denture include providing vertical support, resisting occlusal load, maintaining occlusal contact, directing forces along the long axis of the abutment, preventing impingement of soft tissue, and preventing the extrusion of abutment teeth.
In an Angle Class I occlusion, the:
1) Distal inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the mesial inclined plane of the mandibular canine.
2) Mesial inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the distal inclined plane of the mandibular canine.
3) The primary canines are end-to-end.
4) The permanent canines are end-to-end.
This articulation pattern reflects the normal occlusal relationship in Angle Class I, ensuring proper alignment and functional harmony of the dentition.
What happens to the solubility of hydroxyapatite when it undergoes carbonate
substitution?
1) It increases
2) It decreases
3) It remains the same
4) It becomes insoluble
Carbonate substitution in hydroxyapatite increases its solubility, making it more susceptible to decay.
There are some enzymes that cause protein to coagulate rather than to produce simpler compund These are known as 1. lab enzymes 2. coagulase 3. proteolytic enzymes 4. enmycin
Microbiology Answer: 1There are some enzymes that cause protein to coagulate rather than to produce simpler compund These are known as lab enzymes
What antibiotic is commonly prescribed for chronic sinusitis?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Doxycycline
3) Azithromycin
4) Ciprofloxacin
Doxycycline is often used to treat chronic sinusitis due to its effectiveness against a range of bacteria that can cause sinus infections.
Most potent opioid:
1) Fentanyl
2) Alfentanil
3) Buprenorphine
4) Sufentanil
Sufentanil is the most potent opioid, being 500-1,000 times more potent than morphine.
The main advantage of osteogenesis distraction is:
1) Increased risk of relapse
2) Large movements with less relapse
3) Shorter treatment time
4) Less pain during the procedure
Osteogenesis distraction is a surgical technique used to gradually lengthen bones. One of its primary advantages is that it allows for substantial bone movements with a reduced risk of relapse compared to other methods. By applying a controlled force over a period, the bone is stretched and new bone forms in the distraction gap, leading to a stable and predictable outcome. The process is generally well-tolerated, with pain managed through medication and adjustments to the distraction device.
What is the best method to detect a crack in a tooth?
1) Visual inspection.
2) Tactile sensation with an explorer.
3) Radiograph.
4) Transillumination.
ADC Test Answer: 3
While visual inspection and tactile sensation can sometimes indicate a crack, a radiograph provides the best method for detecting cracks as it allows the dentist to see the internal structure of the tooth and any associated bone changes.
Diffusion hypoxia is caused by:
1) Ether
2) Halothane
3) N2O
4) Trielene
At the end of surgery when nitrous oxide delivery from machine is stopped the gradient between alveoli and blood is reversed and nitrous oxides gushes into the alveoli replacing oxygen from there creating hypoxia called as diffusion hypoxia.
What is the altered cast technique used for?
1) Full dentures
2) Tooth-supported dentures
3) Mucosa and tooth-borne partial dentures
4) Single tooth restoration
The altered cast technique is specifically designed to improve the fit of partial dentures by capturing better detail from both the mucosa and the involved teeth.
When a dentist suspects elder abuse, what is the first step they should take?
1) Confront the caregiver about the suspicion
2) Report the suspicion to the patient's family
3) Report the suspicion to the local Adult Protective Services (APS) agency
4) Treat the patient's dental issues without further action
The first step in suspected elder abuse is to report the concern to Adult Protective Services.
What is the primary ethical concern when a dentist has a conflict of interest?
1) Maintaining personal financial gains
2) Preserving professional reputation
3) Ensuring patient's welfare and trust
4) Fulfilling the duty to provide the best possible treatment
Ensuring patient's welfare and trust
Explanation: When a dentist has a conflict of interest, the primary ethical
concern is the potential for the conflict to compromise the patient's welfare
and trust. It is essential to manage conflicts of interest to ensure that the
dentist's decisions are based solely on the patient's best interests.
What is the primary role of saliva in oral health?
1) Aids in digestion
2) Provides antibacterial action
3) Helps in remineralization of teeth
4) All of the above
Saliva plays multiple roles in oral health, including aiding digestion, providing antibacterial action, and helping in the remineralization of teeth.
Which antihypertensive class includes drugs that may cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect?
1) Beta-blockers
2) ACE inhibitors
3) Calcium channel blockers
4) ARBs
Calcium channel blockers, such as Amlodipine, are associated with gingival hyperplasia.
If a cut is made below the cricoid cartilage, which structure might be injured?
1) Inferior laryngeal nerve
2) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
3) Superior laryngeal nerve
4) Both A and B
The recurrent laryngeal nerve runs below the cricoid cartilage and
supplies all the intrinsic laryngeal muscles except for the cricothyroid muscle,
which is supplied by the superior laryngeal nerve. Inferior laryngeal nerve (which supplies the cricothyroid muscle) Recurrent laryngeal nerve (which supplies all other intrinsic laryngeal
muscles except the cricothyroid muscle)
what do u understand by isograft
1.bone taken frm same individual
2.bone taken frm genetically same individual
3.bone taken frm identical twin
4.bone taken frm same individual
A graft of tissue that is obtained from a donor genetically identical to the recipient.
Methemoglobinemia caused by?
1) Procaine
2) Prilocaine
3) Etidocaine
4) Ropivacaine
Methemoglobinemia is mainly caused by prilocaine but can also be caused by benzocaine and rarely reported with lignocaine.
What is the role of the auditory tube?
1) To equalize pressure in the middle ear
2) To drain fluid from the inner ear
3) To transmit sound waves
4) To protect the ear from infection
The auditory tube (Eustachian tube) connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx, allowing for pressure equalization and drainage of secretions.
Which of the following is a characteristic of affected dentin?
1) Bacteria-loaded and mushy
2) Requires complete removal
3) Completely cavitated
4) Dry and leathery
Affected dentin is dry and leathery, not invaded by bacteria, and does not need to be removed during restoration.
Which of the following is NOT part of a typical adult dental record?
1) Medical history
2) Social history
3) Dental x-rays
4) List of family members' names
A typical adult dental record includes a medical history to inform the dentist about any health issues that may affect dental treatment, a social history to understand lifestyle factors impacting oral health, and dental x-rays to visualize the patient's oral structures. While family dental histories are sometimes noted, a list of family members' names is not typically part of a standard dental record.
Hyperemia of the pulp is
1) an acute inflammation with intermittent paroxysms of pain which may become
continuous.
2) an increased volume of blood within dilated vessels and increased blood flow.
3) a chronic situation whereby minute arterioles of pulpal tissue are engorged
for long periods creating temporary
episodes of pain.
4) a transient invasion of bacterial elements into the outer lying stroma of the
pulpal tissue.
Hyperemia refers to an increase in blood flow to the pulp, often due to inflammation or irritation. This condition can lead to symptoms such as pain and sensitivity.
What is the legal obligation of a dentist when they suspect a patient is a victim of abuse or neglect?
1) To report the suspicion to the authorities immediately
2) To advise the patient to report the abuse themselves
3) To maintain confidentiality and not take any action
4) To conduct a thorough investigation before reporting
Dentists are mandated reporters and must report any suspicion of abuse or neglect to the appropriate authorities immediately.
What is the purpose of using a rubber dam during dental procedures?
1) To isolate the operative site from the oral cavity
2) To improve visualization and access
3) To reduce the patient's gag reflex
4) To increase patient comfort
A rubber dam is used to create a barrier between the patient's oral
tissues and the rest of the mouth, thereby reducing the risk of
cross-contamination and protecting the patient and the dental team from bacteria
and saliva.
What concentration of sodium fluoride toothpaste is prescribed for patients aged 10 years and over with high caries risk?
1) 1,000 ppm
2) 2,800 ppm
3) 5,000 ppm
4) 10,000 ppm
Sodium fluoride toothpaste with 2,800 ppm is recommended for patients aged 10 years and above who have a high risk of caries.
Which component of amalgam gives strength?
1) Copper
2) Silver
3) Tin
4) Zinc
Copper enhances the strength and hardness of dental amalgam, making it a critical component in its formulation.
Why is the J chain important for IgA and IgM functionality?
1) It enhances synthesis speed.
2) It promotes cellular uptake.
3) It aids in the formation of dimers and pentamers.
4) It blocks the action of pathogens.
The J chain is crucial for the assembly of immunoglobulin dimers (for IgA) and pentamers (for IgM), enabling them to function effectively as first-line defenses in mucosal surfaces by preventing pathogen adherence.
What is the first step in the process for immediate dentures?
1) Create a secondary impression
2) Record occlusion
3) Assess patient needs
4) Finish and polish
The first step involves a comprehensive assessment to understand the patient's requirements and expectations, followed by primary and secondary impressions.
What is the purpose of documenting informed consent in the dental record?
- To ensure the patient has read and understood the treatment plan
- To provide legal protection in the event of a malpractice claim
- To serve as a reminder for the dental team of the agreed-upon treatment
- To bill the patient for services provided
Documenting informed consent protects the dentist in legal matters by showing that the patient was fully informed and agreed to the proposed treatment.
What is the purpose of a progress note in a dental record?
1) To document the patient's current condition and the treatment provided
2) To outline the patient's future treatment needs
3) To communicate with the patient's other healthcare providers
4) To justify the fees charged for services
A progress note is used to record the patient's current condition, any changes observed since the last visit, the treatment provided during the appointment, and the dentist's observations and findings. It is an ongoing part of the patient's clinical record that helps track the patient's oral health over time.
What is the first step in the standard precautions for infection control in
dental settings?
1) Hand hygiene
2) Use of personal protective equipment
3) Sterilization of instruments
4) Environmental cleaning and disinfection
Hand hygiene is the most important and basic step in infection
control. It involves washing hands with soap and water or using an alcohol-based
hand sanitizer before and after patient contact to reduce the risk of
transmitting infections.
What is the most commonly used topical anesthetic in dentistry?
1) Lidocaine
2) Benzocaine
3) Articaine
4) Procaine
Benzocaine is frequently used as a topical anesthetic in dentistry due to its effectiveness and rapid onset of action.
Ideally, Orthodontic traction to pull an impacted tooth to line of arch should begin at
1) 2-3 months post surgically
2) As soon as possible after surgery
3) After a waiting period of at least1.5 months
4) Only the method of traction is critical, not the time
SOLUTION Mechanical approaches for aligning unerupted teeth.
Ideally a fixed orthodontic appliance should already be in place before the unerupted tooth is exposed, so that orthodontic force can be applied immediately.
If this is not practical, active orthodontic movement should being no later than 2 or 3 weeks post-surgically.
What is the normal resting flow rate for saliva?
1) 0.1-0.3 ml/min
2) 0.1-0.6 ml/min
3) 0.5-1.0 ml/min
4) 1.0-2.0 ml/min
The normal resting saliva flow rate ranges from 0.1 to 0.6 ml/min, while stimulated saliva can increase to 1-2 ml/min.
Which of the following is an indicator of potential physical abuse in a patient?
1) A patient with good oral hygiene
2) Frequent dental visits
3) Unexplained injuries or bruises in various stages of healing
4) A patient who is shy and quiet
Unexplained injuries, particularly in various stages of healing, can be a strong indicator of physical abuse.
Creatine Phosphate is the major source of glucose for the whole body during starvation
Stage of surgical anaesthesia is:
1) Stage I
2) Stage II
3) Stage III plane 2
4) Stage III plane 3
Stage III plane 3 is considered the stage of surgical anaesthesia because laryngeal reflex goes in this stage, and patient can be intubated.
Which antibiotic is contraindicated in lactating mothers?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Tetracyclines
3) Penicillin
4) Clindamycin
Tetracyclines are contraindicated in lactating mothers due to the risk of affecting the infant's teeth and bone development.
What is the best way to ensure that dental records are legible and permanent?
- Use pencil to write notes
- Use erasable ink for charting
- Use a computer with password-protected access
- Write notes on sticky pads and attach them to the patient's file
Electronic records are typically more legible and permanent than handwritten notes, especially when access is controlled and regular backups are performed.
What is the appropriate dosage of epinephrine for an 8-year-old child experiencing anaphylaxis?
1) 0.15 ml of 1:1000
2) 0.3 ml of 1:1000
3) 0.5 ml of 1:1000
4) 0.05 ml of 1:1000
For children experiencing anaphylactic shock, the common practice is to administer 0.15 ml of 1:1000 epinephrine, dependent on their weight and severity of symptoms.
Heparin
1) is a glycosaminoglycan
2) potentiates thrombin
3) has a half life of 3-4 hours
4) is normally given IM
GlycosaminoglycAnswer (GAGs) are heteropolysaccharides.
What is the strength of adrenaline used in dental anesthesia?
1) 1:100
2) 1:1000
3) 1:2000
4) 1:5000
The standard concentration of adrenaline used in dental procedures is 1:1000, which helps to control bleeding and prolong the effect of local anesthetics.
A 64-year-old patient with a history of metastatic breast cancer presents with loose teeth, dental pain, and swollen gums. What is the most likely causative agent?
1) Osteonecrosis of the left mandible
2) Long-term use of bisphosphonates
3) Osteomyelitis
4) Periodontal disease
Patients on long-term bisphosphonates for metastatic cancer are at risk for osteonecrosis of the jaw, which can present with loose teeth and swelling.
What is the role of SmartConsent technology in informed consent?
1) To
replace the need for consent
2) To standardize and communicate information effectively to patients
3) To eliminate the need for written consent
4) To provide legal protection for healthcare providers
SmartConsent aims to improve how information about risks and benefits is communicated to patients.
Maximum decrease in cardiac output is caused by:
1) Enflurane
2) Halothane
3) Sevoflurane
4) Methoxyflurane
Enflurane causes the maximum decrease in cardiac output, followed by halothane.
What is the sequence from superficial to deepest in dentine caries?
1) Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine
2) Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine, demineralisation, sclerosis
3) Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative dentine, demineralisation
ADC Test Answer: 1
In dentine caries progression, the zones typically follow this order, reflecting the advancing infection and the tooth's reparative attempts.
The afferent limb to the upper epiglottis is via which nerve?
1) Superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10)
2) Inferior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10)
3) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9)
4) Lingual nerve (CN 5)
The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9) is a mixed cranial nerve that carries both
sensory and motor fibers.
The superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10) innervates the mucous
membranes of the larynx below the level of the epiglottis, while the inferior
laryngeal branch innervates the muscles of the larynx, not the epiglottis. The
lingual nerve (CN 5) is primarily involved in the sensation of the anterior
two-thirds of the tongue and the mucosa of the floor of the mouth, not the
epiglottis.
What is the most effective way to prevent the transmission of tuberculosis in the dental setting?
1) Screening patients for TB
2) Vaccinating dental personnel
3) Using N95 respirators
4) All of the above
The most effective way to prevent the transmission of TB in the dental setting involves a combination of strategies, including screening patients for TB, vaccinating dental personnel, and using appropriate respiratory protection, such as N95 respirators, during procedures that may generate aerosols.
Which of the following is a sign of acute pulpitis?
1) Spontaneous pain
2) No pain when biting
3) Pain only on thermal stimulus
4) Continuous dull ache
Spontaneous pain is a characteristic sign of acute pulpitis, indicating that the pulp is inflamed and reacting to stimuli even in the absence of external triggers.
Which of the following is considered a red flag in a special needs patient's medical history?
1) Non-compliance with appointments
2) Family history of cavities
3) Previous dental trauma
4) Rarely visits the dentist
A history of non-compliance with dental appointments may indicate anxiety or other behavioral issues that need to be addressed for successful treatment.
Cardio stable anaesthetic:
1) Etomidate
2) Propadanil
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopental
Etomidate is known for its cardio stability, making it a preferred choice in patients with cardiovascular issues.
Example Test for type IV hypersensitivity:
1) Coagulase test
2) Mantoux test
3) Schick test
4) Elek’s test
A classic example of delayed type IV hypersensitivity is the Mantoux tuberculin test in which skin induration indicates exposure to tuberculosis. This reaction is called "delayed hypersensitivity" because it is mediated by sensitized CD4+ T lymphocytes which process antigens in association with class II HLA molecules and release lymphokines. Hypersensitivity reactions with this mode of action include: Granulomatous diseases (mycobacteria, fungi) Tuberculin skin reactions Transplant rejection Contact dermatitis Cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) mediated responses: CD8+ T cells are generated and lyse specific cells.
The lymphokines promote a reaction (especially mediated through macrophages) beginning in hours but reaching a peak in 2 to 3 days.
-
Neoplastic cell lysis
-
Transplant rejection
-
Virus-infected cell lysis
What is the significance of erosive lichen planus?
1) High malignant potential
2) Some malignant potential
3) No malignant potential
4) Always requires surgical intervention
ADC Test Answer: 2
Erosive lichen planus can carry an increased risk for malignant transformation, but this potential varies among individuals.
Periradicular inflammation, larger opening of normal coronal formation are
symptoms of which of the following?
1) Hypo plastic Amelogenesis
2) Ankylosis
3) Dens invaginatus
4) Dentin dysplasia
Periradicular inflammation and larger opening of normal coronal formation are symptoms commonly associated with dens invaginatus. Dens invaginatus is a developmental dental anomaly where the enamel invaginates into the dental papilla during tooth formation. This condition can lead to various complications, including inflammation of the surrounding tissues (periradicular inflammation) and abnormal widening of the opening of the tooth (larger opening of normal coronal formation).
What is the primary advantage of using oral sedatives for anxious patients?
1) They provide deeper sedation
2) They are less expensive
3) They have a more predictable onset and duration
4) They require no needle administration
Oral sedatives are often preferred by patients with needle phobia as they avoid the discomfort associated with injections.
Suppuration is mainly the result of the combined action of four factors; which of the following is not one of these factors?
1) Necrosis
2) Presence of lymphocytes
3) Collection of neutrophils
4) Accumulation of tissue fluid
ADC Test Answer: 3
While neutrophils are involved in the inflammatory response, they are not a direct factor in the process of suppuration, which primarily involves necrosis, tissue fluid accumulation, and autolysis.
What is the correct order for removing personal protective equipment (PPE)
at the end of a procedure?
1) Face shield, gown, mask, gloves
2) Gloves, mask, gown, face shield
3) Gown, face shield, mask, gloves
4) Mask, gloves, gown, face shield
The correct order for removing PPE is to first remove the gloves, then the mask, followed by the gown, and finally the face shiel4) This order helps to prevent contamination of the skin and mucous membranes during the removal process.
What does N0 indicate in the TNM classification?
1) No regional lymph node metastases
2) One ipsilateral node < 3 cm diameter
3) Ipsilateral or contralateral nodes 3-6 cm diameter
4) Lymph node metastasis > 6 cm diameter
N0 indicates that there are no regional lymph nodes involved in the metastatic process, which is an important factor in cancer staging.
The largest resting membrane potential is observed in 1. skeletal muscle 2. smooth muscle 3. equal in both 4. -120 mv in resting smooth muscle
Anatomy Answer: 1The largest resting membrane potential is observed in skeletal muscles
Which of the following is an example of implied consent?
1) A patient signing
a consent form for surgery
2) A patient verbally agreeing to a dental cleaning
3) A patient nodding in agreement when asked if they understand the procedure
4) A patient refusing to undergo a procedure
Implied consent occurs when a patient’s actions suggest agreement without formal documentation.
What is the first step in the "Tell-Show-Do" technique for explaining a dental procedure to an anxious patient?
1) Show the patient what will happen
2) Describe the sensation the patient might feel
3) Tell the patient what you are going to do
4) Perform the procedure
The Tell-Show-Do technique involves explaining the procedure in simple terms, demonstrating it with a model or the patient's hand, and then performing the actual procedure.
Pethidine should not be given with:
1) Reserpine
2) Propranolol
3) Atenolol
4) MAO inhibitors
Pethidine can cause severe excitatory response and arrhythmias in patients on MAO therapy.
How should a dentist ensure that a patient fully understands the
information provided during the informed consent process?
1) Use complex medical terminology
2) Ask if the patient has any questions and encourage discussion
3) Provide the information in writing only
4) Assume the patient understands based on their age
Explanation: Engaging the patient in discussion and encouraging questions helps
ensure they understand the information provided, which is crucial for informed
consent.
What percentage of people in the UK drink excessively?
1) 20%
2) 30%
3) 40%
4) 50%
Approximately 50% of men and 30% of women in the UK exceed the recommended weekly alcohol guidelines.
Recurrent unilateral submandibular swelling and pain just prior to meals is
indicative of
1) an odontogenic infection.
2) sialolithiasis.
3) ranul1)a
4) sarcoidosis.
E. Sjögren’s syndrome.
Salivary stones block ducts, causing pain and swelling when saliva production
increases, such as during meals.
Which cement is more susceptible to failure if contaminated with saliva?
1) Resin cement
2) Glass ionomer cement
3) Zinc phosphate cement
4) Glass ionomer cement (GIC)
GIC is particularly sensitive to contamination with saliva, which can compromise its bonding ability.
A dentist observes that an elderly patient has poor oral hygiene and appears to be wearing the same clothes for several days. What is the most appropriate action?
1) Offer to clean the patient’s teeth for free
2) Discuss the situation with the patient’s family
3) Report suspected neglect to adult protective services
4) Ignore the signs if the patient is independent
The dentist should report any signs of neglect to ensure the patient receives the necessary care and assistance.
What is the best approach to take if a patient becomes overwhelmed during a procedure?
1) Continue without interruption
2) Stop the procedure, offer reassurance, and give the patient time to recover
3) Dismiss the patient’s feelings as unimportant
4) Ask another staff member to take over
Allowing the patient to regroup and addressing their feelings can help restore their composure and comfort.
What is the best way to communicate with a patient who has an intellectual disability?
1) Using medical jargon to assert authority
2) Using simple language and visual aids
3) Ignoring the patient and speaking only to their caregiver
4) Relying on nonverbal cues from the patient
Communicating with a patient with an intellectual disability requires patience and clarity.
The first thing to assess when a patient complains of pain under a denture is:
1) Occlusion
2) Soft tissue changes
3) Fit of the denture
4) Age of denture
ADC Test Answer: 1
Checking occlusion is critical, as occlusal discrepancies can be a primary cause of discomfort under dentures.
The smallest and most inaccessible root canal-in the maxillary second molar is the 1. faciolingual 2. mesiobuccal 3. lingual 4. distobuccal
Dental Anatomy Answer: 4The smallest and most inaccessible root canal-in the maxillary second molar is the distobuccal
Vasoconstrictor in local anesthetic solution is?
1) Increase toxic effects of LA
2) Reduce toxic effects of LA solution
3) Increase bleeding
4) Has no effect on efficacy LA solution
The vasoconstrictor in a local anesthetic solution is used to reduce the toxic effects of the solution.
What should a healthcare provider do if a patient refuses a recommended
treatment?
1) Ignore the refusal and proceed with treatment
2) Document the refusal and provide information on the consequences
3) Force the patient to comply
4) Refer the patient to another provider
It is important to document the patient's informed refusal and ensure they understand the potential consequences of not proceeding with the treatment.
What is the most common oral manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus?
1) Lichen planus-like lesions
2) Oral ulcers
3) Gingival hyperplasia
4) Fungal infections
Oral ulcers are a common oral manifestation seen in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus.
The primary action of aspirin is to:
1) Increase blood flow
2) Decrease blood pressure
3) Inhibit thrombin
4) Inhibit platelet aggregation via thromboxane A2
Aspirin exerts its anti-inflammatory and anti-platelet effects by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes, particularly COX-1. This inhibition leads to decreased synthesis of thromboxane A2, a potent mediator of platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction. By blocking thromboxane A2, aspirin helps prevent the formation of blood clots, thus reducing the risk of thrombotic events such as heart attacks and strokes.
Which of the following is used for the treatment of chlamydia infection in pregnancy?
1) Tetracycline
2) Erythromycin
3) Azithromycin
4) Doxycycline
Azithromycin Preferred agent for treatment of chlamydia infection in pregnancy in azithromycin.
It is given as a single dose of 1g leading to high compliance rate.
You suspect that your patient has an enlarged submandibular salivary gland. You expect the enlarged gland?
1) To be palpable intraorally
2) Only to be detectable by radiographical examination.
3) To be palpable both intra- and extraorally
4) To be palpable extraorally.
When a submandibular salivary gland is enlarged, it can be palpable both intraorally (inside the mouth) and extraorally (outside the mouth).
Which drug is indicated as part of the management for a codeine overdose?
1) Atropine.
2) Diphenhydramine.
3) Epinephrine.
4) Naloxone.
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and reverses the effects of codeine toxicity, including respiratory depression.
What is the primary cause of an elevator fracture during tooth extraction?
1) Excessive force
2) Incorrectly angled elevator
3) Weak tooth structure
4) Inadequate anesthesia
Applying too much force can lead to tooth fracture, especially if the elevator is not inserted correctly.
What is required to increase efficiency and reduce fatigue of universal curettes?
1) Increased handle diameter
2) Ergonomic design
3) Sharpness of the blade
4) Length of the blade
The efficiency and comfort in use of universal curettes can be greatly enhanced with an ergonomic design that minimizes strain on the hand and wrist during procedures.
If the edgewise bracket is not pressed completely on to a tooth on the mesial side while bonding, the side effect would be
1. intrusion
2. extrusion
3. rotation
4. breakage of bracket
we are applying force distally only..force vector will rotate the tooth distally
The part of the removable appliance which provides the anchorage is
1) Adams clasp
2) Base plate
3) Active labial bow
4) Guided springs
SOLUTION Baseplate: The hard plastic part of some retainers that covers the gum and has the wire components of the retainers attached to it.
Which type of cells is seen in the early stage of chronic periodontitis?
1) Basophils
2) Eosinophils
3) Lymphocytes
4) Neutrophils
5) Macrophages
In the early stages of chronic periodontitis, lymphocytes are predominant, indicating an adaptive immune response to periodontal pathogens.
For composite resin preparations, cavosurface enamel margins are bevelled because
1. A bevelled margin produces a more favorable surface for etching.
2. A bevelled margin improves the edge strength of the composite resin.
3. After etching, the bonding agent reduces microleakage.
4. The procedure eliminates the need to polish the restoration.
1) (1) (2) (3)
2) (1) and (3)
3) (2) and (4)
4) (4) only
Beveling the margins of a cavity preparation for composite resin has specific benefits:
- Favorable surface for etching: A bevelled margin increases the surface area for bonding and improves the etching process.
- Reduces microleakage: Proper bonding after etching can help seal the margins and reduce the risk of microleakage.
- Edge strength: While beveling can improve aesthetics and bonding, the primary reasons are related to etching and sealing.
Most of the pre ganglionic sympathetic fibres are 1 A fibres 2 B fibres 3 C Fibres 4 None of the above
Physiology Answer: 2- A fibres are myelinated fibres having fastest rate of conduction
For a 10-year-old patient with expected treatment procedures, an OPG is:
1) Contraindicated below 12 years
2) Less radiative than combined BW and periapical X-rays
3) Only used for adults
4) Provides a comprehensive view of teeth only
ADC Test Answer: 2
OPGs generally expose patients to lower radiation doses compared to multiple intraoral radiographs, making them safer for diagnostic purposes.
If a 4th root canal is present in a maxillary 1st molar, it will likely be located in which of the following roots?
1) Mesiolingual
2) Mesiobuccal
3) Distolingual
4) Distofacial
Well over 50% of maxillary 1st molars have two canals in the mesiobuccal root.
There are usually 3 roots and 4 canals in a maxillary 1st molar.
The fourth canal, the mesiolingual canal, is also referred to as: the accessory mesiobuccal canal, mesiocentric, mesiopalatal canal or MB2.
It is usually tough to find MB2 through clinical inspection and it is not obvious on a radiograph. A dentist should expect it is present before beginning a root canal on the first maxillary molar.
Which of the following is NOT an indication for a pulpotomy?
1) Primary teeth with carious pulpal exposure.
2) Presence of deep pits/fissure.
3) Extensive loss of tooth structure in primary molars.
4) Questionable or confirmed enamel caries.
A pulpotomy is not indicated for questionable or confirmed enamel caries.
The reaction used for estimating free amino, groups in proteins is: 1. Ninhydrin test 2. Deamination with HNO2 3. Biuret test 4. Formol titration
Biochemistry Answer: 2The reaction used for estimating free amino, groups in proteins is Deamination with HNO2
Why is a palatal strap used instead of a narrow bar in removable partial dentures?
1) More rigid with less thickness.
2) Easier to polish.
3) More stable.
4) Less irritating to the soft tissues.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1Adjusting the occlusal plane is a foundational step that impacts all subsequent processes in prosthetic rehabilitation. This adjustment should be based on a comprehensive diagnosis and treatment plan to ensure compatibility with the patient’s anatomy and function.
What is the relationship between the acidity of the mouth and the
progression of dental caries?
1) No relationship
2) Low acidity prevents caries
3) High acidity promotes caries
4) High acidity reverses caries
A pH below the critical level leads to demineralization and the progression of dental caries.
The principle of justice in healthcare ethics refers to:
1) The obligation to tell the truth
2) Fair distribution of healthcare resources
3) The duty to act in the best interest of the patient
4) Respecting the patient's wishes
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 2Justice involves ensuring that patients receive fair and equitable access to healthcare resources and services, regardless of their background.
Slowest induction and recovery is with:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Desflurane
Methoxyflurane has the highest blood gas partition coefficient (15), resulting in the slowest induction and recovery.
What is the significance of the BPE score in periodontal assessment?
1) It measures the depth of periodontal pockets.
2) It assesses the presence of calculus.
3) It evaluates the overall oral hygiene status.
4) It indicates the need for periodontal treatment.
The Basic Periodontal Examination (BPE) score helps determine the need for further periodontal assessment and treatment based on pocket depth and other clinical findings.
Which immunoglobulin is dimeric?
1) IgG
2) IgM
3) IgA
4) IgE
Secretory IgA is a dimeric form of immunoglobulin that plays a key role in mucosal immunity.
What feature of a crown is most likely responsible for gingival swelling?
1) Material of the crown
2) The occlusion
3) Proximal Contour
4) Surface finish
Poor proximal contour can lead to food impaction and plaque accumulation, contributing to gingival swelling and inflammation around crowns.
What is the function of the periodontal ligament?
1) To attach the tooth to the bone
2) To absorb shock during chewing
3) To supply nutrients to the tooth
4) To protect the tooth from bacteria
The periodontal ligament connects the tooth root to the alveolar bone, providing stability and support during functional movements such as chewing.
What is the distance of the maxillary sinus from the upper canine?
1) 3.8 mm
2) 6.9 mm
3) 1.9 mm
4) 2.8 mm
The distance from the maxillary sinus to the upper canine is 6.9 mm, which is the greatest distance compared to the premolars and molars.
Aromatic amino acid is: 1. Tyrosine 2. Histidine 3. Arginine 4. Lysine
Biochemistry Answer: 1Tyrosine is Aromatic amino acid
Which of the following is not recommended in the technique for curing light cured composites?
1) Holding the light tip 1 cm from the tooth
2) Wearing speacial glasses with orange filters
3) Using an exposure duration of 40 to 60 seconds
4) Placing the composite in increments of 1 to 2 mm
The distance between the tip of the curing light and the tooth is important, as the intensity of the light source is important.
The intensity of light is inverselyproportional to the distance from the source. As a general rule each increment should be at most 1.5 to 2 mm thick. This will ensure complete penetration of the light and maximum curing of thecomposite at the bottom most portion of the cavity preparation.
What is the most common histological finding in pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Acanthosis
2) Acantholysis
3) Hyperkeratosis
4) Basal cell carcinoma
Acantholysis is the primary histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris, leading to the formation of intraepithelial vesicles.
The angle of convexity
1) SNA
2) NAPog.
3) ANB
4) SNB
SOLUTION Angle of Convexity The angle of convexity is formed by the intersection of line from N to point A, to point A to pogonion.
The gas with greatest solubility in blood:
1) Nitrous oxide
2) Nitrogen
3) Oxygen
4) Hydrogen
Although the solubility of nitrous oxide in blood is less than other inhalational agents its solubility is 35 limes more than nitrogen and 15 times more than oxygen
A 50 kg man with severe metabolic acidosis has the following parameters, pB 7.05, pCO2 12 mm/lg, pO2 108 mmHg, BCO) 5 mEq/L, base excess -30 mEq/L. The appropriate quantity of sodium bicarbonate that he should receive in half hour is:
1) 250 mEq
2) 350 mEq
3) 500 mEq
4) 750 mEq
Local Anesthesia Answer: 1
250 mEq Sodium bicarbonate requirement is calculated by the formula: 0.3 x body weight x base excess (deficit) = 0.3 x 50 x 30 = 500 mEq. Half correction should be done i.e., 500/2 = 250 mEq.
What is a key benefit of using electronic dental records (EDR) over traditional paper records?
1) Increased storage space
2) Improved access and easy retrieval
3) More paperwork
4) Higher costs
EDR systems enhance the ability to access and retrieve patient information quickly and efficiently compared to paper records.
Flaccid lip, digit sucking, high frenum attachment & poor muscle tone are the etiology of :
1) Anterior cross bite
2) Diastema
3) Anterior bite
4) Posterior cross bite
Midline diastema Etiology Normal developing dentition - (Ugly Ducking Stage) Parafunctional habits Retrognathic mandible/ Prognathic mandible Frenum attachments
- Flaccid lips along with poor muscle tone
- Simple Tongue thrust can cause anterior open bite as well as diastema
- Thumb sucking or digit sucking for a prolonged time period
Mesio-distal angulation of teeth
Tooth anomalies (eg.
Pathological (Juvenile periodontitis)
The point at which a stress of a material exhibits a specific limited deviation P Is called
1) Proportional limit
2) Tensile strength
3) Ultimate strength
4) Yield strength
Yield strength is the stress required to produce plastic deformation.
Which of the following is a common sign of periodontal disease?
1) Tooth mobility
2) Bleeding gums
3) Bad breath
4) All of the above
Signs of periodontal disease include tooth mobility, bleeding gums, and bad breath, indicating inflammation and infection.
A removable partial denture rest should be placed on the lingual surface of a canine rather than on the incisal surface because:
1) Less leverage is exerted against the tooth by the rest.
2) The enamel is thicker on the lingual surface.
3) Visibility and access are better.
4) The cingulum of the canine provides a natural recess that does not need to be prepared.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1Lingual rests provide better mechanical advantage by minimizing leverage and torque forces on the abutment teeth, preserving their health and stability.
What is the primary concern during the first trimester of pregnancy?
1) Organogenesis of the fetus
2) The risk of preterm labor
3) Fetal movement
4) The development of the baby's teeth
The first trimester is a critical period for fetal development, and the fetus is highly susceptible to malformations if the mother experiences stress or other adverse conditions.
The working time for a polysulfide impression material can be safely and effectively increased by 1. greatly altering the base/accelerator ratio 2. doubling the mixing time 3. adding three drops of water to the base 4. cooling the mixing slab to a temperature above the dew point
Dental Material Answer: 4The working time for a polysulfide impression material can be safely and effectively increased by cooling the mixing slab to a temperature above the dew point
What is the typical duration of pH recovery in the oral cavity after
exposure to sugars or acids?
1) 10 minutes
2) 30 minutes
3) 1 hour
4) 24 hours
Saliva's natural buffering capacity typically allows for pH recovery in the oral cavity within 30 minutes after exposure to acids or sugars. However, this can vary based on individual factors and the presence of protective agents like fluoride.
Consent is needed from a patient to share information. Which of the following requires explicit consent?
1) To share information with an insurance company
2) To share information with other doctors in the practice
3) To share information with the therapist treating the patient
4) To share information with the patient's General Medical Practitioner (GMP)
Sharing patient information with an insurance company typically requires explicit consent due to the sensitive nature of the information and privacy regulations.
Which investigation is most commonly used to rule out aspiration in mandibular fracture patients with missing teeth? 1) Chest X-ray 2) Orthopantomogram 3) PA mandible 4) CT scan
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 1A chest X-ray is commonly performed when missing teeth or denture fragments cannot be accounted for in a mandibular fracture patient. This helps to rule out aspiration of foreign bodies.
Which of the following statements about the defective margins of amalgam restoration is true?
1) The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay
2) Secondary caries is less likely with marginal defects
3) Microscopic defects do not affect caries development
4) All margins always prevent secondary caries
ADC Test Answer: 1
Research has shown that larger defects in the margins of amalgam restorations increase the prevalence of secondary caries, making it critical to maintain good margins to prevent decay.
Where are occlusal rests typically located?
1) On the incisal edge of teeth
2) On the lingual surface of teeth
3) On the occlusal surface of posterior teeth
4) On the mesial surface of teeth
Occlusal rests are seated on the occlusal surfaces of posterior teeth to provide stability.
Vasopressor of choice for spinal hypotension in pregnancy:
1) Ephedrine
2) Mephentermine
3) Methoxamine
4) None of the above
Local Anesthesia Answer: 2
Mephentermine
A patient undergoing caesarean section following prolonged labour under subarachnoid block developed carpopedal spasm. Lignocaine was' used as anaesthetic agent. The most likely' diagnosis is:
1) Amniotic fluid embolism
2) Lignocaine toxicity
3) Hypocalcemia
4) Hypokalemia
Local Anesthesia Answer: 3
Hypocalcemia Patient developing carpopedal spasm is indicative of hypocalcemia.
Thymol is preservative used for:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Desflurane
4) Enflurane
Halothane is stored in amber-colored bottles and contains thymol 0.01% as a preservative to prevent decomposition by light.
Which of the following factors contributes to increased xerostomia in elderly
patients?
1) Increased salivary gland function
2) Systemic medications
3) Higher water intake
4) Increased oral hydration
Many medications taken by older adults, such as antihypertensives
and antidepressants, can lead to reduced saliva production, resulting in
xerostomia.
For stage 2 hypertensive patients, periodic monitoring during dental procedures helps manage blood pressure fluctuations.
An unstable membrane potential that will spontaneously depolarize is a property of which type of muscle? 1. Cardiac only 2. Cardiac and smooth 3. Skeletal and smooth 4. Skeletal and cardiac
Physiology Answer: 2An unstable membrane potential that will spontaneously depolarize is a property of Cardiac and smooth muscles
What’s the percentage of individuals over 25 years old with periodontitis in the UK?
1) 30%
2) 50%
3) 64%
4) 75%
Approximately 64% of individuals over 25 years old in the UK are affected by periodontitis, highlighting the prevalence of periodontal disease.
What’s the percentage of tooth erosion in 6-year-olds and 15-year-olds in the UK?
1) 5-10% and 15-20%
2) 5-52% and 15-27%
3) 10-30% and 20-40%
4) 15-25% and 25-35%
Studies indicate that tooth erosion affects a significant percentage of children, with varying rates between different age groups.
What is the most common occupational health problem among dentists?
1) Tinnitus
2) Musculoskeletal pain
3) Hypertension
4) Hearing loss
According to the study conducted among dentists in southern Thailand, musculoskeletal pain was the most common occupational health problem, with 78% of the dentists reporting it.
The primary reason to replace missing anterior teeth with a bridge is:
1) Aesthetic considerations
2) Functional occlusion
3) Overbite correction
4) Tooth stability
ADC Test Answer: 1
Aesthetics play a crucial role in the choice to replace missing anterior teeth, as they impact patient confidence and facial appearance.
Suppuration results from the combined action of several factors. Which of the following is not one of them?
1) Necrosis
2) Presence of lymphocytes
3) Collection of neutrophils
4) Accumulation of tissue fluid
Neutrophils primarily mediate the inflammatory response and pus formation, while lymphocytes are more involved in chronic inflammation, not in the acute pus production.
What type of information should be included in the patient's medical history?
1) Only dental information
2) Only medical information
3) Both dental and medical information
4) Dental, medical, lifestyle, and family history information
A comprehensive medical history should include the patient's dental information, medical conditions, current medications, allergies, and surgeries. Additionally, lifestyle factors such as tobacco and alcohol use, and family history of diseases can be relevant to the patient's oral health and treatment decisions.
Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect pulp capping?
1) Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure
2) Removal of caries has exposed the pulp
3) When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ
4) Deep caries without symptoms
ADC Test Answer: 1
Indirect pulp capping is indicated when some softened dentin remains over the pulp but further excavation could risk exposing it, thus preserving pulp vitality.
The chemical nature of bacterial exotoxins is, a lipopolysaccharide complex
At the end of a balanced anaesthesia technique with non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, a patient recovered spontaneously from the effect of muscle relaxant without any reversal. Which of the below given is the most probable relaxant the patient received?
- Pancuronium
- Gallamine
- Atracurium
- Vecuronium
The patient must have received Atracurium which is a short-acting muscle relaxant.
During eruption of permanent teeth, alveolar bone is resorbed and deposited intermittently
How long should dental radiographs be retained for adults?
1) 5 years
2) 7 years
3) 11 years
4) 15 years
Dental radiographs for adults should be retained for 11 years per guidelines, ensuring proper follow-up and legal compliance.
What is the primary risk factor for developing periodontitis?
1) Smoking
2) Poor oral hygiene
3) Genetics
4) All of the above
Smoking, poor oral hygiene, and genetic predisposition are all significant risk factors in the development of periodontitis.
What is the typical presentation of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) Constant dull pain
2) Intermittent sharp pain triggered by stimuli
3) Pain that worsens at night
4) Pain associated with swelling
Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden, severe, and sharp facial pain that can be triggered by light touch or other stimuli.
Platelets play an important role in hemostasis; which of the following describes this role?
1) They convert fibrinogen to fibrin
2) They agglutinate and plug small, ruptured vessels
3) They initiate fibrinolysis in thrombosis
4) They supply fibrin stabilizing factors
ADC Test Answer: 2
Platelets are crucial for forming a plug at the site of vessel injury, which is a key step in the hemostatic process.
A dental assistant notices that a patient flinches when the dentist approaches with instruments. This behavior may suggest:
1) Fear of dental procedures
2) Previous traumatic experiences
3) Lack of understanding of the procedure
4) None of the above
Flinching may indicate that the patient has experienced trauma, which could be related to abuse.
Which muscles are primarily used in swallowing?
1) Masseter and temporalis
2) Genioglossus and palatoglossus
3) Buccinator and orbicularis oris
4) Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius
The genioglossus and palatoglossus muscles play significant roles in the swallowing process by controlling the position of the tongue and the soft palate.
Dopamine is preferred in treatment of shock because of
1) Renal Vasodilatory effect
2) Increased Cardiac Output
3) Peripheral Vasoconstriction
4) Prolonged action
Dopamine as a first line of drug in patients with shock
Dopamine in low doses can dilate renal vasculature therefore maintaining glomerular filtration.
Activates adenylate cyclase - cAMP – relaxation of vascular smooth muscle