Dentist Abroad
The best way to clean a cavity before the placement of GIC is:
1) H2O2
2) Phosphoric Acid
3) Polyacrylic acid
4) Saline
ADC Test Answer: 3
Polyacrylic acid is recommended for cleaning a cavity before using GIC as it helps create an effective bond while preserving the integrity of dentin moisture.
What is the recommended method for disposal of used needles and other sharps
in dental offices?
1) In regular trash
2) In a designated sharps container
3) In a red biohazard bag
4) In a puncture-resistant container
Sharps containers are designed to safely hold and dispose of used
needles and other sharp objects to prevent injury and the spread of infections. They should be puncture-resistant, leak-proof, and clearly labeled as biohazard
waste.
What should a dentist do if a patient is unable to provide informed consent
due to language barriers?
1) Proceed with treatment without consent
2) Use a family member as an interpreter
3) Use a professional interpreter or translation services
4) Rely on non-verbal cues from the patient
Dentists should use professional interpreters or translation services to communicate effectively with patients who do not speak the same language. This ensures accurate information is conveyed and that the patient fully understands their treatment options and can make informed decisions.
Which ion acts as a second messenger?
1) Sodium
2) Potassium
3) Calcium
4) Magnesium
Calcium ions serve as important second messengers in various cellular signaling pathways, facilitating communication within and between cells.
The diagnosis for a tooth (75) with deep decay extending to the pulp is likely:
1) Periapical abscess
2) Dentigerous cyst
3) Granuloma
4) Radicular cyst
ADC Test Answer: 2
Deep decay can result in the formation of a dentigerous cyst, especially if associated with an unerupted tooth, reflected in imaging as a radiolucency surrounding the root.
What is the best approach regarding sedation for pregnant women?
1) Mandatory sedation
2) Always use benzodiazepines
3) Best to avoid sedation
4) Only use nitrous oxide
The use of sedation, particularly benzodiazepines, during pregnancy carries risks that could harm the fetus.
Which type of periodontitis is most likely to require antibiotic
treatment?
1) Chronic periodontitis
2) Aggressive periodontitis
3) Localized aggressive periodontitis (LAP)
4) Necrotizing periodontitis
Localized aggressive periodontitis (LAP) is characterized by rapid destruction of periodontal tissues, particularly in adolescents and young adults. It is associated with specific bacterial pathogens, particularly Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans, and often requires systemic antibiotic therapy in addition to scaling and root planing to control the infection effectively. Chronic periodontitis and necrotizing periodontitis may also benefit from antibiotics, but LAP is most likely to necessitate their use due to its aggressive nature and bacterial etiology.
A 22-year-old woman presents with acute gingival hypertrophy and spontaneous bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1) Myelogenous leukaemia
2) Infectious mononucleosis
3) Thrombocytopenic purpura
4) Gingivitis of local aetiological origin
The symptoms and blood analysis suggest a hematological disorder, with myelogenous leukaemia being a strong possibility.
Remineralized enamel appears:
1) Smooth and shiny
2) Dark, hard, and opaque
3) Soft and chalky
4) Rough and porous
When enamel is remineralized, it can take on a darker, more opaque appearance due to the incorporation of minerals such as calcium and phosphate. While the newly formed mineral deposits can restore some of the tooth's strength and resistance to decay, they do not replicate the original enamel's structure, resulting in a visual change. The appearance of the enamel can vary depending on the extent of the remineralization process and may not always be as smooth and shiny as unaltered enamel.
What is the primary reason for taking a complete set of diagnostic radiographs for a new patient?
- To establish a baseline for future comparisons
- To screen for cavities
- To assess the patient's overall oral health
- To plan for a specific treatment
Although radiographs are used for various purposes, including detecting cavities and planning treatment, the primary reason for taking a complete set of diagnostic radiographs for a new patient is to assess the patient's overall oral health and identify any underlying conditions that may require attention.
What is the primary risk of chisel and mallet technique for bone removal?
1) Damage to the adjacent teeth
2) Increased risk of infection
3) Increased risk of bone fracture
4) Increased risk of bleeding
The chisel and mallet technique requires careful execution as it can lead to fractures in the jaw bone if not performed correctly.
Which of the following is NOT a common consequence of untreated dental caries in
older adults?
1) Pain
2) Tooth loss
3) Cancer
4) Infection
Although untreated dental caries can lead to severe complications
like pain and infection, it does not directly cause cancer.
A dentist is carrying out electrosurgery on a patient, and the patient sneezes with his head moving forward. What is most likely to occur?
1) Gingival trauma
2) Mucosal burn
3) Mucosal trauma
4) Trauma to adjacent tooth
The sudden movement during electrosurgery can lead to mucosal trauma, especially if the surgical site is not stable.
If a patient on warfarin is also allergic to penicillin, which antibiotic is recommended?
1) Erythromycin
2) Clindamycin
3) Cephalexin
4) Vancomycin
Clindamycin is a suitable alternative for patients allergic to penicillin who are also on warfarin since it does not interact adversely with anticoagulants.
IN PREGNANT female there is decreased requirement of LA for spinal anaesthesia all true except
1) exaggerated lumber lordosis
2) increased congestion in spinal veins
3) decreased subarchnoid space
4) increased sensitivity of nerve fibres.
Local Anesthesia Answer: 1
exaggerated lumber lordosis
A wax pattern made in the mouth will shrink appreciably as it is cooled to room temperature because :
1) The thermal expansion coefficient of wax is very high
2) The thermal expansion coefficient of wax is very low
3) Melting temperature is very high
4) Melting temperature is very low
A wax pattern made in the mouth will shrink appreciably as it is cooled to room temperature because the coefficient of thermal expansion of wax is very high.(This is the property which describes the thermal energy transport in watts per second through a specimen 1cm thick with a cross sectional area of 1 cm2 when the temperature differential between the surfaces of the specimen perpendicular to the heat flow 10 K) Co efficient of thermal expansion is defined as the change in length per unit of the original length of a material when its temperature is raised 10K.
What is the typical duration of pH recovery in the oral cavity after
exposure to sugars or acids?
1) 10 minutes
2) 30 minutes
3) 1 hour
4) 24 hours
Saliva's natural buffering capacity typically allows for pH recovery in the oral cavity within 30 minutes after exposure to acids or sugars. However, this can vary based on individual factors and the presence of protective agents like fluoride.
Ideally, Orthodontic traction to pull an impacted tooth to line of arch should begin at
1) 2-3 months post surgically
2) As soon as possible after surgery
3) After a waiting period of at least1.5 months
4) Only the method of traction is critical, not the time
SOLUTION Mechanical approaches for aligning unerupted teeth.
Ideally a fixed orthodontic appliance should already be in place before the unerupted tooth is exposed, so that orthodontic force can be applied immediately.
If this is not practical, active orthodontic movement should being no later than 2 or 3 weeks post-surgically.
Which of the following practices can help reduce the risk of cross-contamination in a dental office? 1) Using the same gloves for multiple patients 2) Disinfecting surfaces and instruments between patients 3) Not wearing masks during procedures 4) Ignoring hand hygiene protocols
Occupational Hazards Answer: 2Regular disinfection of surfaces and instruments is essential for preventing cross-contamination and protecting both patients and dental staff.
To minimize fractures of amalgam restorations in primary teeth, cavity
preparations should have
1) concave pulpal floors.
2) rounded axiopulpal line angles.
3) bevelled cavosurface margins.
4) lateral walls parallel to the external surface of the tooth.
Rounded line angles reduce stress concentrations in the amalgam, enhancing its
strength and resistance to fractures.
For stage 2 hypertensive patients, periodic monitoring during dental procedures helps manage blood pressure fluctuations.
What should be done with consent forms in dental records?
1) They should be discarded after treatment
2) They should be signed and stored securely
3) They should be kept in a separate financial record
4) They do not need to be documented
Consent forms must be properly signed and retained as part of the patient's clinical record to ensure legal compliance.
The pterygomaxillary fissure is formed by the union of:
1) Sphenoid and maxilla
2) Sphenoid and zygoma
3) Maxilla and palatine
4) Inferior nasal concha and nasal septum
The pterygomaxillary fissure is located between the sphenoid and maxilla bones and serves as a passageway for various structures including blood vessels and nerves.
Which component of amalgam gives strength?
1) Copper
2) Silver
3) Tin
4) Zinc
Copper enhances the strength and hardness of dental amalgam, making it a critical component in its formulation.
What is the normal pH range for venous blood?
1) 7.35-7.45
2) 7.25-7.35
3) 7.45-7.55
4) 7.40-7.50
Venous blood has a pH range of 7.35 to 7.45, which is essential for maintaining various biochemical processes in the body.
What’s the percentage of tooth erosion in 6-year-olds and 15-year-olds in the UK?
1) 5-10% and 15-20%
2) 5-52% and 15-27%
3) 10-30% and 20-40%
4) 15-25% and 25-35%
Studies indicate that tooth erosion affects a significant percentage of children, with varying rates between different age groups.
Ambroxol is a :
1) Mucolytic agent
2) Bronchial secretion enhancer
3) Antitussive
4) None of the above
Expectorants (Mucokinetics)
(a) Bronchial secretion enhancers : Sodium or Potassium citrate, Potassium iodide, Guaiphenesin (Glyceryl guaiacolate), balsum of Tolu, Vasaka, Ammonium chloride.
(b) Mucolytics: Bromhexine Ambroxol Acetyl cysteine Carbocisteine
Maximum decrease in cardiac output is caused by:
1) Enflurane
2) Halothane
3) Sevoflurane
4) Methoxyflurane
Enflurane causes the maximum decrease in cardiac output, followed by halothane.
Which functional assessment tool is commonly used to evaluate the dental
treatment needs of geriatric patients?
1) Barthel Index
2) Katz Index of Independence in Activities of Daily Living (ADL)
3) Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
4) Geriatric Depression Scale
The Katz Index assesses a patient's ability to perform daily
activities, influencing their capacity to maintain oral hygiene and attend
dental appointments.
Ameloblastoma is the most aggressive:
1) Odontogenic tumor
2) Benign tumor
3) Malignant tumor
4) Fibrous tumor
Ameloblastoma is a benign but locally aggressive tumor of odontogenic origin, meaning it arises from the tissues that form teeth.
What is the significance of the BPE score in periodontal assessment?
1) It measures the depth of periodontal pockets.
2) It assesses the presence of calculus.
3) It evaluates the overall oral hygiene status.
4) It indicates the need for periodontal treatment.
The Basic Periodontal Examination (BPE) score helps determine the need for further periodontal assessment and treatment based on pocket depth and other clinical findings.
Developing roots will split when the:
1) Epithelial diaphragm forms too many lateromedial extensions.
2) Dental follicle cells migrate into the epithelial diaphragm.
3) Cementoblasts fail to develop on and stabilize the root’s surface.
4) Periodontal ligament forms too soon.
Oral Embryology Answer: 1Excessive extensions of the epithelial diaphragm during root development result in root splitting and the formation of supernumerary roots.
Endogenous morphine-like substances that can control pain are known as:
1) Bradykinins
2) Enkephalins
3) Prostaglandins
4) Serotonins
ADC Test Answer: 2
Enkephalins are opioid peptides that play a significant role in pain regulation and are produced by the body.
How often should dental records be updated?
- Annually
- With each appointment
- Only when there is a change in treatment plan
- It depends on the patient's dental insurance
Dental records should be updated at every appointment to reflect the most current information regarding the patient's oral health and treatments.
What is the first step in managing trismus?
1) Prescribing muscle relaxants
2) Applying heat to the affected area
3) Administering corticosteroids
4) Performing surgical intervention
Initial treatment for trismus includes applying heat and administering anti-inflammatory medications to reduce muscle spasm.
Which component of a partial denture framework provides the best indirect retention?
1) Rest.
2) Circumferential clasp.
3) Lingual strap.
4) Proximal plate.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1Rests prevent rotational forces around the fulcrum line, contributing to effective indirect retention. They stabilize the framework and minimize dislodgement.
What happens when rests are not properly designed?
1) They could be aesthetically displeasing
2) They may not transfer occlusal stresses effectively
3) They could enhance retention
4) They become more comfortable
Poorly designed rests may fail to effectively transfer occlusal stresses, potentially compromising the stability of the RPD.
The DMF index is commonly used to measure:
1) Oral hygiene
2) Dental radiograph efficacy
3) Prevalence and severity of dental caries
4) Tooth mobility
The Decayed, Missing, and Filled teeth (DMF) index is a standard epidemiological tool to assess the burden of dental caries in populations.
Which of the following drugs can cause methemoglobinemia?
1) Lidocaine
2) Procaine
3) Prilocaine
4) Bupivacaine
Prilocaine is a local anesthetic that can cause methemoglobinemia.
What is the purpose of a consent form?
1) To serve as legal evidence of informed consent
2) To inform the patient of the risks and benefits of treatment
3) To protect the dentist from legal liability
4) To replace verbal communication between the dentist and patient
While consent forms do provide a written record of the consent
discussion, their primary purpose is to serve as evidence that the patient has
been informed and has voluntarily agreed to the proposed treatment. Verbal
communication remains essential for the informed consent process.
Chlortetracycline acts by interfering with protein synthesis on bacterial but not mammalian ribosomes
Ipratropium bromide is useful in bronchial asthma because of
1) Anticholinergic effect
2) Vasodilator properties
3) Antiallergic action
4) Stabilization of mast cells
Ipratropium (as ipratropium bromide, trade name Atrovent) is an anticholinergic drug administered by inhalation for the treatment of obstructive lung diseases. It acts by blocking muscarinic receptors in the lung, inhibiting bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion. It is a non-selective muscarinic antagonist, and does not diffuse into the blood, which prevents systemic side effects.
Ipratropium is a derivative of atropine[1] but is a quaternary amine and therefore does not cross the blood-brain barrier
Which muscle of the soft palate is not supplied by the pharyngeal plexus? 1. Palatoglossus 2. Musculus uvulae 3. Palatopharyngeus 4. Tensor veli palatine
Anatomy Answer: 4muscle of the soft palate is not supplied by the pharyngeal plexus is Tensor veli palatine
How are forces transmitted through rests?
1) Along the oblique axis
2) Parallel to the long axis of the tooth
3) Perpendicular to the tooth
4) Randomly throughout the denture
Rests are designed to transmit forces in a manner that aligns them parallel to the long axis of the supporting tooth.
What is the primary purpose of taking dental impressions?
1) To diagnose dental conditions
2) To create a mold for restorations or orthodontic appliances
3) To monitor teeth movement over time
4) To educate patients about oral hygiene
Dental impressions are taken to create a precise mold of a patient's teeth and surrounding structures. These molds are then used by dental laboratories to fabricate restorations like crowns, bridges, dentures, and orthodontic appliances that fit accurately in the patient's mouth. While impressions can indirectly help in diagnosis, their primary purpose is for the creation of these appliances.
What is the difference between fluorapatite and carbonate substituted
hydroxyapatite?
1) Fluorapatite is less soluble than carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite
2) Fluorapatite is more soluble than carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite
3) They have the same solubility
4) Fluorapatite does not occur in tooth structure
Fluorapatite is a form of hydroxyapatite that has incorporated fluoride ions, which makes it more resistant to acid attacks and thus less soluble compared to carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite.
In myasthenia gravis, which medication is generally contraindicated?
1) Penicillin
2) Erythromycin
3) Metronidazole
4) Amoxicillin
Erythromycin, a macrolide antibiotic, is often avoided in patients with myasthenia gravis because it can exacerbate muscle weakness by interfering with neuromuscular transmission. Macrolides, including erythromycin, can cause neuromuscular blocking side effects that mimic or worsen the symptoms of myasthenia gravis. This is due to their ability to bind to acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, similar to the action of the autoantibodies in the disease.
Informed consent is particularly important in which of the following
scenarios?
1) When the patient is fully aware of their medical condition
2) When the treatment is routine and low-risk
3) When the procedure is invasive and carries significant risks
4) When the patient has a family member present
Informed consent is crucial for invasive procedures that have significant risks to ensure that patients are fully aware and can make informed decisions about their care.
Periapical Abscess is a collection of pus at the root of a tooth. It's usually
caused by which of the following?
1) Inflammation
2) Tooth decay
3) Infection
4) Dead tissues
Periapical abscess is a collection of pus that occurs at the root of a tooth. It is usually caused by infection. Infection can occur when bacteria enter the tooth through a cavity or a crack, leading to inflammation and the formation of pus. Tooth decay and dead tissues can contribute to the development of an infection, but the primary cause is the presence of bacteria that trigger the inflammatory response and the subsequent formation of pus.
What is the most abundant immunoglobulin in saliva during infections?
1) IgA
2) IgM
3) IgG
4) IgE
IgA is the most abundant immunoglobulin in saliva and plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity, especially during infections.
Lignocaine with adrenaline is contra-indicated for ring block of:
1) Penis
2) Toes
3) Pinna
4) All of the above
Xylocaine with adrenaline is contraindicated in ring block of finger, toes, penis, pinna (because these structures have end arteries) and Beta block (intravenous regional anaesthesia).
What type of disinfectant is most commonly used for surface disinfection in a
dental office?
1) Alcohol-based
2) Chlorine-based
3) Phenolic-based
4) Iodine-based
Phenolic disinfectants are commonly used in dental offices because
they are broad-spectrum, effective against a wide range of pathogens, and
suitable for disinfecting surfaces and equipment.
What is the primary cause of non-carious cervical lesions?
1) Dental decay
2) Abfraction
3) Erosion
4) Both B and C
Non-carious cervical lesions can be caused by abfraction (stress-related loss of tooth structure) and erosion (chemical dissolution), both of which do not involve cariogenic bacteria.
What is a key factor in successfully treating patients with developmental disabilities?
1) Speed of treatment
2) Accommodating communication styles
3) The complexity of procedures
4) Use of advanced technology
Understanding and adapting communication to the patient's preferred method (verbal, visual, etc.) is crucial for effective treatment.
Which cells are found in hepatic stomatitis?
1) Lymphocytes
2) Monocytes
3) Neutrophils
4) Macrophages
Neutrophils are typically present in hepatic stomatitis, indicating an acute inflammatory response, while multinucleate giant cells may also be observed in conditions like herpes labialis.
Lactobacillus is an acidogenic genus found in deep dental caries, that often increases significantly in the saliva during periods of caries activity
Which of the following adverse reactions of oral contraceptives is the most common and the most serious?
1) Hypotension
2) Hepatotoxicity
3) Uterine neoplasia
4) Thromboembolism disorder
ADC Test Answer: 4
Thromboembolism is a significant risk associated with oral contraceptives, particularly in women with additional risk factors.
Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for treatment of ?
1) Generalized tonic clonic seizures
2) Absence seizures
3) Simple partial seizures
4) Complex partial seizures
Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for treatment of absence seizures. Other drugs used in the management of absence seizures are valproic acid, lamotrigine and clonazepam.
Epidural space has negative pressure in:
1) 20%
2) 30%
3) 50%
4) 80%
Local Anesthesia Answer: 4
80°/" Epidural space has negative pressure in more than 80% of individuals.
What is the primary goal of behavioral management techniques in treating anxious patients in dentistry?
1) To eliminate all signs of anxiety
2) To reduce the patient's anxiety to a level where dental treatment can be performed comfortably
3) To induce sleep during the procedure
4) To replace the patient's fear with positive emotions
The main objective of behavioral management is to create a relaxed and cooperative atmosphere, making it possible to conduct the necessary dental procedures without causing undue distress.
If a cut is made below the cricoid cartilage, which structure might be injured?
1) Inferior laryngeal nerve
2) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
3) Superior laryngeal nerve
4) Both A and B
The recurrent laryngeal nerve runs below the cricoid cartilage and
supplies all the intrinsic laryngeal muscles except for the cricothyroid muscle,
which is supplied by the superior laryngeal nerve. Inferior laryngeal nerve (which supplies the cricothyroid muscle) Recurrent laryngeal nerve (which supplies all other intrinsic laryngeal
muscles except the cricothyroid muscle)
The canine eminence is 1. associated with the mandibular canine only 2. the labial ridge on the crown of canine 3. an osseous structure surrounding the root of a canine on the facial aspect 4. the prominent ridge on the lingual surface of a maxillary canine
Dental Anatomy Answer: 3The canine eminence is an osseous structure surrounding the root of a canine on the facial aspect
What is the natural buffer in saliva that helps neutralize acidity and combat
demineralization?
1) Phosphoric acid (H3PO4)
2) Bicarbonate (HCO3-)
3) Carbonic acid (H2CO3)
4) Lactic acid
Saliva contains bicarbonate, which acts as a natural buffer to help maintain oral pH equilibrium and protect against demineralization.
Elgiloy arch wire is a 1. Cobalt chromium nickel alloy 2. Gold alloy 3. Optical fiber arch wire 4. Beta titanium arch wire
Dental Material Answer: 1Elgiloy arch wire is a Cobalt chromium nickel alloy
Patients with which condition may require premedication with antibiotics before dental procedures?
1) Asthma
2) Congenital heart defects
3) Alzheimer’s disease
4) Hypertension
Patients with certain congenital heart defects are at an increased risk of bacterial endocarditis and may require prophylactic antibiotics before dental treatment.
The placement of a retentive pin in the proximal regions of posterior teeth
would most likely result in periodontal ligament perforation in the
1) mesial of a mandibular first premolar.
2) distal of a mandibular first premolar.
3) distal of a mandibular first molar.
4) mesial of a mandibular first molar.
The mesial aspect of the mandibular first molar is often more prone to periodontal ligament perforation when placing retentive pins due to the anatomy of the tooth and the proximity of the root to the periodontal ligament. The mesial root is typically larger and has a more complex canal system, which can increase the risk of perforation if the pin is not placed carefully.
The emergency treatment for a painless necrotic pulp is:
1) Drainage through the canals
2) No immediate action required
3) Root canal therapy
4) Extraction of the tooth
ADC Test Answer: 2
A painless necrotic pulp does not necessitate urgent intervention, as the absence of symptoms suggests limited clinical urgency.
The basic principle of Orthodontic spot welder lies on the concept of :-
1 Heat technique
2) Quenching
3) Diodelasers
4) Electrode Technique
SOLUTION The type of welding used to join Orthodontic components is called Spot welding.
1. Transmit current to the metals to be joined so as to cause a rapid increase in temperature.
2. The electrodes help in conducting the heat produced away from the area so as to preserve the properties of stainless steel around the weld spot.
3. The electrode also help in holding together the two metals to be joined.
4. The electrodes are designed to apply pressure on the metals being joined. As soon as the temperature increases, the pressure exerted by the electrodes helps in squeezing metal into each other.
Which of the following can be caused by excessive consumption of soft drinks?
1) Digestive disorder
2) Tooth erosion
3) Tooth decay
4) Colorization of the tongue
Excessive consumption of soft drinks can cause tooth erosion. Soft drinks are
high in sugar and acid, which can weaken the enamel on the teeth over time. This
erosion can lead to tooth sensitivity, discoloration, and even tooth loss if not
addressed It is important to limit the consumption of sugary and acidic
beverages and maintain good oral hygiene to prevent tooth erosion.
Which drug is indicated as part of the management for a codeine overdose?
1) Atropine.
2) Diphenhydramine.
3) Epinephrine.
4) Naloxone.
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and reverses the effects of codeine toxicity, including respiratory depression.
Which immunoglobulin increases in gingival inflammation?
1) IgA
2) IgM
3) IgG
4) IgE
IgG levels increase in response to gingival inflammation, indicating an immune response to periodontal pathogens.
Which of the following drug can be accumulated in foetus in very significant amount if given to pregnant mother:
1) Thiopentone
2) Propofol
3) Midazolam
4) Lignocaine
Local Anesthesia Answer: 4
Lignocaine Local anaesthetic and opioids are bases.
What antibiotic is commonly prescribed for chronic sinusitis?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Doxycycline
3) Azithromycin
4) Ciprofloxacin
Doxycycline is often used to treat chronic sinusitis due to its effectiveness against a range of bacteria that can cause sinus infections.
Which of the following is used for the treatment of chlamydia infection in pregnancy?
1) Tetracycline
2) Erythromycin
3) Azithromycin
4) Doxycycline
Azithromycin Preferred agent for treatment of chlamydia infection in pregnancy in azithromycin.
It is given as a single dose of 1g leading to high compliance rate.
Slightly raised vesicles rupturing to form ulcers are a feature of
1) Rubeola
2) Rubella
3) Condyloma acuminatum
4) Chicken pox
Chicken pox presents with multiple dermal lesions characteristically with vesicles, pustules which may secondarily ulcerate
Not true regarding sevoflurane:
1) MAC is higher than isoflurane
2) Blood gas coefficient is higher than desflurane
3) Potency more than isoflurane
4) Sevoflurane is less cardio depressant than isoflurane
Sevoflurane is less cardio depressant than isoflurane.
How does fluoride in saliva promote tooth remineralization?
1) It forms hydrogen bonds with phosphate ions in the apatite structure.
2) It forms a more stable crystal structure with calcium called fluorapatite.
3) It reacts with carbonate ions to form calcium carbonate.
4) It produces an alkaline environment that dissolves hydroxyapatite.
Fluoride ions in saliva can replace hydroxyl ions in the hydroxyapatite lattice, creating fluorapatite, which is more resistant to acid attack.
The smear layer present on the root canal wall after cleaning and shaping is
best removed by using
1) EDTA
2) hydrogen peroxide.
3) chlorhexidine.
4) isopropyl alcohol.
EDTA effectively removes the smear layer, allowing for better canal cleaning and
sealer penetration.
What is the best way to communicate with a patient who has an intellectual disability?
1) Using medical jargon to assert authority
2) Using simple language and visual aids
3) Ignoring the patient and speaking only to their caregiver
4) Relying on nonverbal cues from the patient
Communicating with a patient with an intellectual disability requires patience and clarity.
All the following are non-verbal signs of attentive or active listening except:
1) Posture.
2) Eye contact.
3) Mirror.
4) Positive Reinforcement.
Positive reinforcement is not a non-verbal sign of attentive or active listening.
Non-verbal signs of attentive or active listening typically involve body language and facial expressions, such as maintaining good posture, making eye contact, and mirroring the speaker's body language.
Positive reinforcement,
on the other hand, is a verbal or non-verbal response that rewards or encourages
a behavior, and it is not directly related to the act of listening attentively.
A patient experiences pain after an extraction. Which analgesic should be used?
1) Acetaminophen
2) NSAID
3) Opioid
4) Aspirin
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are effective for managing pain and inflammation following dental extractions.
When treating a patient with an intellectual disability, which of the following is NOT a component of informed consent?
1) Ensuring the patient understands the risks and benefits of the proposed treatment
2) Having a legal guardian present to sign the consent form
3) Allowing the patient to ask questions about the treatment
4) Providing the patient with written information at their comprehension level
Informed consent requires that the patient themselves understands and consents to the treatment, not necessarily that a legal guardian must be present to sign.
The pain after the application of force after activation during fixed mechanotherapy is likely to disappear within how much time ?
1) 24 hours
2) 2 to 4 days
3) 4 to 8 days
4) 10 days
SOLUTION If heavy pressure is applied to a tooth, pain develops almost immediately as the PDL is literally crushed. If appropriate orthodontic force is applied, the patient feels little or nothing immediately.
There is no excuse for using force levels for orthodontic tooth movement that produce immediate pain of this type.
The pain typically lasts for 2 to 4 days, and then disappears until the orthodontic appliance is reactivated. At that point, a similar cycle may recur, but for almost all patients, the pain associated with the initial activation of the appliance is the most severe.
What is the primary concern when administering local anesthesia to a patient with a bleeding disorder?
1) Increased pain sensitivity
2) Prolonged bleeding from the injection site
3) Inability to achieve adequate anesthesia
4) Higher risk of infection
Patients with bleeding disorders, such as hemophilia, may have difficulty controlling bleeding, even from minor procedures like local anesthetic injections.
What is the relationship between the acidity of the mouth and the
progression of dental caries?
1) No relationship
2) Low acidity prevents caries
3) High acidity promotes caries
4) High acidity reverses caries
A pH below the critical level leads to demineralization and the progression of dental caries.
Presently, the treatment plan for the child going abroad in 6 months should focus on:
1) Extracting teeth and using space maintainers
2) Extracting all affected teeth and referring to an oral surgeon
3) Referring to an oral surgeon and orthodontist for comprehensive treatment
4) Restoring the affected teeth and monitoring
ADC Test Answer: 4
Restoring both affected teeth conservatively allows for continued function and aesthetics while developing a long-term plan that can be managed after moving.
Rushton bodies are commonly seen in which of the following conditions?
1) Ultraviolet rays
2) Ultrasonic vibrations
3) Lichen planus
4) Radicular cyst
Rushton bodies are translucent or pink staining lamellar bodies formed by the epithelium of radicular cysts, indicating the odontogenic origin of the cyst.
Which management technique is typically used for displaced mandibular fractures in the tooth-bearing region? 1) Conservative treatment 2) Intermaxillary fixation 3) Open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) 4) Extraction of the fractured teeth
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 3Displaced or mobile fractures in the tooth-bearing region of the mandible usually require surgical intervention through open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) to properly realign and stabilize the fracture.
What is the depth of topical anesthesia?
1) 1 mm
2) 2 mm
3) 3 mm
4) 4 mm
Topical anesthesia typically penetrates to a depth of about 2 mm, providing localized pain relief for procedures involving the mucosa.
Which ethical principle emphasizes the importance of doing no harm to patients?
1) Autonomy
2) Beneficence
3) Non-maleficence
4) Justice
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 3Non-maleficence is the ethical principle that requires healthcare providers to avoid causing harm to patients. It is a fundamental tenet of medical ethics.
False statement regarding phenytoin is?
1) It is a teratogenic drug
2) Highly protein bound
3) Induces insulin secretion
4) Follows saturation kinetics
Phenytoin inhibits insulin secretion and causes hyperglycemia.
Which of the following dental cements is a luting agent that provides adhesion to calcified dental tissues? 1. ZOE cement 2. Silicate cement 3. Zinc phosphate cement 4. Polycarboxylate cement
Dental Material Answer: 4Polycarboxylate cement is a luting agent that provides adhesion to calcified dental tissues
What is the best approach to take if a patient becomes overwhelmed during a procedure?
1) Continue without interruption
2) Stop the procedure, offer reassurance, and give the patient time to recover
3) Dismiss the patient’s feelings as unimportant
4) Ask another staff member to take over
Allowing the patient to regroup and addressing their feelings can help restore their composure and comfort.
Which of the following is a physical sign that a dental patient may be a victim
of abuse?
1) A history of poor oral hygiene
2) Multiple missing teeth
3) Evidence of previous dental restorations
4) Inconsistent explanations of dental injuries
Explanation: While poor oral hygiene and missing teeth can be indicators of
neglect, they are not exclusively signs of abuse. However, if a patient provides
inconsistent explanations for their injuries, it may raise suspicion of abuse. Dentists should be attentive to the patient's history and any inconsistencies
that could suggest intentional harm.
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for informed consent in dental treatment?
1) The patient must be competent to make decisions
2) The treatment options must be fully explained to the patient
3) The patient must be informed of the risks and benefits of each option
4) The patient must sign the consent form in triplicate
Informed consent requires that the patient is competent to make decisions, the treatment options are fully explained, the risks and benefits are communicated, and the patient understands the nature and purpose of the proposed treatment. While a signed consent form is typically required, there is no standard requirement for the number of copies.
In the context of jurisprudence, what is "malpractice"?
1) A legal term for any dental procedure
2) A form of patient consent
3) Professional negligence that results in harm to a patient
4) The act of providing free dental care
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 3Malpractice refers to a situation where a dental professional fails to provide the standard of care expected in the profession, leading to injury or harm to the patient. It is a legal concept that can result in lawsuits and disciplinary action.
Rounding or beveling of the axiopulpal line angle causes:
1) Stress distribution among dentin.
2) Stress distribution among amalgam.
3) Stress distribution among dentine and amalgam.
4) None.
ADC Test Answer: 1
Rounding or beveling helps to minimize stress concentrations in dental restorations, leading to improved stress distribution within the dentin, thereby enhancing the longevity of the restoration.
The largest and longest root canal of the maxillary second molar is the 1. lingual 2. mesiobuccal 3. distobuccal 4. distal
Dental Anatomy Answer: 1The largest and longest root canal of the maxillary second molar is the lingual
What is the CQC's role in monitoring dental record keeping?
- It sets the standards for record keeping in dentistry
- It checks for compliance with GDC guidelines
- It enforces data protection laws
- It conducts audits of dental practices
The Care Quality Commission (CQ3) is responsible for inspecting and auditing healthcare providers, including dental practices, to ensure they meet the fundamental standards of care, which includes good record keeping.
The sounds "S," "Z," and "che" are produced when:
1) The teeth are widely apart
2) The teeth barely touch
3) The lips are tightly closed
4) The tongue is elevated
The sounds "S," "Z," and "che" are sibilant sounds, which are produced by forcing air through a narrow space between the tongue and the teeth. The teeth do not completely occlude (touch) during the articulation of these sounds. Instead, they are positioned in a way that allows a thin stream of air to flow, creating the characteristic hissing sound. This requires precise coordination between the tongue and the teeth, particularly the tongue and the alveolar ridge (the bony ridge behind the upper incisors).
What is the effect of fluoride on enamel solubility?
1) It increases solubility.
2) It decreases solubility.
3) It has no effect.
4) It only affects dentin.
Fluoride decreases enamel solubility, making it more resistant to acid damage.
What is the recommended approach to treating an acute dental infection in an
elderly patient?
1) Antibiotic therapy
2) Drainage of the abscess
3) Extraction of the infected tooth
4) Immediate root canal therapy
Initially, the primary goal is to drain the infection and alleviate pain before considering further treatment options like antibiotics or tooth preservation procedures
Is measles caused by an RNA or DNA virus?
1) RNA virus
2) DNA virus
3) Both
4) Neither
Measles is caused by a single-stranded RNA virus, specifically the measles virus.
Laminar flow is mainly dependent on:
1) Density
2) Viscosity
3) Solubility
4) Molecular weight
Laminar flow mainly depends on the viscosity of the gas, while turbulent flow is more dependent on density.
If a patient is unable to give informed consent due to a medical condition,
who can provide consent on their behalf?
1) Any family member
2) A legal guardian or surrogate decision-maker
3) The healthcare provider
4) The patient's friends
If a patient lacks the capacity to consent, a legal guardian or designated surrogate can provide consent in their best interest.
Digoxin:
1) clearance is by the liver
2) increases conduction of the AV node
3) decreases the force of myocardial contraction
4) may cause atrial tachycardia in overdosage
Digoxin is a positive inotrope, hence it increases the force of myocardial contraction and may be effective in heart failure.
Digoxin has a long half-life and is given once daily. It is cleared by the renal system and hence renal impairment requires the reduction of digoxin dose.
Arrhythmias, such as atrial tachycardia, may be a sign of digoxin toxicity.
Digoxin toxicity is enhanced if there are 67 electrolyte disturbances, especially hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia and hypercalcaemia.
Which of the following is a crucial step in the sealant procedure?
1) Etch tooth for 15 seconds.
2) Apply optibond.
3) Apply ultraseal to central groove.
4) All of the above.
Etching the tooth for 15 seconds, applying optibond, and applying ultraseal to the central groove are all crucial steps in the sealant procedure.
What is the primary mode of transmission for hepatitis B in a dental
setting?
1) Respiratory droplets
2) Bloodborne pathogens
3) Fomites
4) Airborne particles
Hepatitis B is mainly transmitted through blood and other bodily
fluids. In a dental setting, the risk of transmission is highest through
exposure to contaminated sharp instruments, needlesticks, and mucosal contact
with infectious materials.
What is least important for the success of a post?
1) Diameter
2) Material
3) Luting agent
4) Length
While the luting agent is important, the diameter, material, and length of the post are more critical factors influencing the success of the post in retaining the restoration.
Naloxone reverses the actions of:
1) Morphine
2) Diazepam
3) Thiopentone
4) All of the above
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioids like morphine.
In a patient with thyroid surgery, the block to be given is:
1) Stellate ganglion
2) Upper cervical ganglion
3) Dorsal sympathetic ganglion
4) Any of the above
Local Anesthesia Answer: 2
Upper cervical ganglion Cervical plexus block is most commonly given for carotid endarterectomy but thyroidectomy and tracheostomy can be done under bilateral cervical plexus block.
Hyperthermia can be seen with:
1) Lithium toxicity
2) Opium withdrawal
3) Malignant neuroleptic syndrome
4) Eclampsia
Malignant neuroleptic syndrome, often caused by phenothiazine used for neuroleptanalgesia and premedication, can cause hyperthermia.
What is the mean, mode, and median?
1) Mean is the most frequent value, mode is the average, median is the middle value
2) Mean is the average, median is the middle value, mode is the most frequent value
3) Mean is the middle value, mode is the average, median is the most frequent value
4) All are the same
The mean is calculated by averaging all values, the median is the middle value when arranged in order, and the mode is the value that appears most frequently in a dataset.
Which of the following is a critical component of a patient's medical history in dental records?
1) Patient's favorite color
2) List of systemic diseases
3) Patient's social media accounts
4) Financial status
A thorough medical history should include relevant health information, such as systemic diseases, to inform treatment decisions.
Ultrashort acting blocker most commonly used in anaesthesia is:
1) Esmolol
2) Nadolol
3) Propranolol
4) Atenolol
Esmolol is metabolized by RBC esterase, making it very short-acting with a half-life of only 8-10 minutes.
A dentist is using a Sof-Lex disc on an upper molar and lacks finger support. What is most likely to occur?
1) Gingival trauma
2) Mucosal burn
3) Mucosal trauma
4) Trauma to adjacent tooth
5) Gingival laceration
Lack of finger support while using a Sof-Lex disc can lead to improper control, resulting in potential trauma to the gingiva.
What is the purpose of a chisel in oral surgery?
1) To split teeth
2) To remove bone
3) To elevate soft tissue
4) To luxate teeth
A chisel is used in oral surgery to cut or remove bone, often during procedures such as apicoectomy or osteotomy.
The ideal treatment for a tooth (75) with caries touching the pulp horn at age 7 is:
1) Indirect pulp capping and steel crown
2) Pulpotomy and steel crown
3) Pulpectomy and steel crown
4) Extraction and space maintainer
ADC Test Answer: 2
At this age, a pulpotomy (removal of the coronal pulp) is appropriate as it preserves the remaining vital tissue while addressing caries.
What fluoride treatment is recommended for a child with a high caries rate?
1) 2,800 ppm toothpaste
2) 5,000 ppm toothpaste
3) Application of 2.2% Duraphat 2 times yearly
4) Application of 2.2% Duraphat 3-4 times yearly
For children with a high caries rate, more frequent applications of fluoride varnish like Duraphat are recommended to provide additional protection.
What is the role of dental records in forensic dentistry?
- To establish the identity of a deceased person
- To determine the cause of death
- To evaluate the dental health of the general population
- To monitor dental insurance fraud
Antemortem records can be used by forensic odontologists to help identify individuals in the event of death.
What is the primary concern with a mesinangular impaction?
1) It is highly susceptible to infection
2) It is the most difficult to remove
3) It has the highest risk of damaging the adjacent teeth
4) It is associated with the lowest incidence of pericoronitis
Mesinangular impaction is the most common and least difficult type of impaction but is often associated with pericoronitis due to its position and difficulty in maintaining oral hygiene.
Clinical examination of a 42 year old heavy smoker reveals a white patch in the retromolar/tonsillar pillar region. The patch cannot be wiped off. The most likely diagnosis is
1) lichen planus.
2) leukoplakia.
3) white sponge nevus.
4) frictional hyperkeratosis.
E. pseudomembranous candidiasis.
Explanation: Leukoplakia is a common oral mucosal lesion that presents as a
white, non-wipable patch or plaque. It is often associated with chronic
irritation, such as that caused by tobacco use. While it is not cancerous,
leukoplakia can be a precancerous condition that requires monitoring for
potential malignant transformation, especially in patients with high-risk
factors like heavy smoking.
What is the best description of the morphology of periodontal ligament fibers?
1) Elastic
2) Striated
3) Non-striated
4) Wavy
The fibers of the periodontal ligament exhibit a wavy morphology, which allows for flexibility and resilience to the stresses placed on them by occlusion.
Which antibiotic causes abdominal cramps in therapeutic doses?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Clindamycin
3) Metronidazole
4) Tetracycline
Clindamycin is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, including abdominal cramps, even at therapeutic doses.
Contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy is all except:
1) Tumour involving pyriform sinus
2) Vocal cord fixidity
3) Tumour involving the preepiglottic spread
4) Post cricoid area expansion
Pre-epiglottic involvement is not a contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy.
What percentage of the UK population receives fluoridated water?
1) 5%
2) 10%
3) 15%
4) 20%
Approximately 10% of the UK population has access to fluoridated water, which helps in reducing dental caries.
Dens in dente is thought to arise as a result of 1. a normal tooth but enclaved within an other tooth, during formation 2. proliferation and evagination of an area of the inner enamel epithelium 3. extensive growth of mesenchymal cells of pulp tissue 4. an invagination of the enamel organ during tooth formation
Oral Pathology Answer: 4Dens in dente is an invagination of the enamel organ during tooth formation
What is the most critical aspect of communication with geriatric patients?
1) Using technical dental terminology
2) Using complex sentence structures
3) Speaking loudly
4) Being patient and empathetic
Effective communication with elderly patients often involves
patience, empathy, and simplifying explanations to address potential hearing or
cognitive impairments.
Which dietary recommendation is most beneficial for the oral health of
elderly patients?
1) Increased sugar intake
2) Elimination of all dairy products
3) High-fiber diets with sufficient hydration
4) Low-calorie diets
A high-fiber diet, combined with hydration, supports overall
health and prevents issues caused by dry mouth, contributing to better oral
hygiene.
Which of the following are included in the Orthodontic camouflage methods for treating class II malocclusion?
1) Retraction of upper teeth and forward movement of lower teeth
2) Retraction of maxillary incisors into pre-molar extraction space
3) Distal movement of maxillary molars
4) All of the above
SOLUTION The following three patterns of tooth movement can be used to correct a Class II malocclusion: · A combination of retraction of the upper teeth and forward movement of the lower teeth, without tooth extractions · Retraction of maxillary incisors into a premolar extraction space · Distal movement of maxillary molars and eventually the entire upper dental arch
Agent of choice for day care surgery:
Propofol
Etomidate
Ketamine
Midazolam
The elimination half life of propofol is 2-4 hours.
What is the primary purpose of maintaining accurate and complete dental records?
- To comply with legal requirements
- To facilitate effective communication among dental professionals
- To ensure proper patient care and treatment planning
- All of the above
Accurate and complete dental records serve multiple purposes, including legal documentation, communication among dental professionals, patient care and treatment planning, and insurance reimbursement.
A patient with osteitis and pus after a third molar extraction. Which antibiotic should be prescribed?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Metronidazole
3) Clindamycin
4) Cephalexin
Metronidazole is commonly used to treat infections associated with dental procedures, particularly those involving anaerobic bacteria, such as in cases of osteitis.
Which of the following factors most significantly influences the oral health
of the geriatric population?
1) Socioeconomic status
2) Age
3) Gender
4) Location
Socioeconomic status can impact access to dental care, education about oral health, and the ability to afford dental treatments, influencing the overall oral health of elderly individuals.
What is the effect of saliva containing fluoride, calcium, and
phosphate on enamel solubility?
1) It increases enamel solubility and promotes demineralization.
2) It varies depending on the concentration of each component.
3) It has no effect on enamel solubility.
4) It decreases enamel solubility and prevents demineralization.
Fluoride, calcium, and phosphate work together in saliva to remineralize enamel, making it more resistant to acid attacks by forming fluorapatite, which is less soluble than hydroxyapatite.
What is the purpose of using a handpiece with a 330 bur during a pulpotomy procedure?
1) To remove caries.
2) To reduce occlusal surface.
3) To remove the roof of the pulp chamber.
4) To mix IRM.
A handpiece with a 330 bur is used to remove the roof of the pulp chamber during a pulpotomy procedure.
Carcinoma of the tongue has a predilection for which of the following sites?
1) Lateral border anteriorly
2) Anterior dorsal surface
3) Posterior dorsal surface
4) Lateral border posteriorly
ADC Test Answer: 4
The lateral border of the tongue, particularly posteriorly, is a common site for oral squamous cell carcinoma.
The rate of set of polysulfide impression materials is accelerated by:
1) Increasing the mixing temperature.
2) Decreasing the mixing temperature.
3) Adding oleic acid to the mix.
4) Increasing the base/catalyst ratio.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1
Explanation: Higher temperatures increase the chemical reactivity of polysulfide impression materials, resulting in faster setting times.
Which of the accompanying is NOT an intermediate acting muscle relaxant?
1) Cisatracurium
2) Rocuronium
3) Mivacurium
4) Vecuronium
Mivacurium is a short-acting muscle relaxant, whereas Cisatracurium, Rocuronium, and Vecuronium are intermediate-acting.
What is the primary function of a rest in a removable partial denture (RPD)?
1) Aesthetic enhancement
2) Provide resistance against occlusal load
3) Act as a connector
4) Support the denture base
The primary function of a rest is to provide resistance against occlusal load, ensuring stability in the RPD.
Which of the following local anaesthetic is sympathomimetic:
1) Cocaine
2) Procaine
3) Lignocaine
4) Tetracaine
Cocaine is a sympathomimetic local anaesthetic and thus adrenaline should not be added to it.
What does the presence of Rushton bodies indicate in histological examinations?
1) Bacterial infection
2) Non-odontogenic cyst
3) Odontogenic origin of a cyst
4) Immune response
The identification of Rushton bodies, which are often found in radicular cysts, signifies that the cyst has an odontogenic origin.
Glucose can be synthesised from Glyerol, Acetoacetate, Lactic acid
The palatine bone articulates with all of the following except
1.sphenoid
2. ethmoid
3. zygomatic
4. vomer
The palatine bone articulates with all of the following except a.sphenoid b. ethmoid c. zygomatic d. maxilla
Which of the following is NOT a component that reduces cariogenicity?
1) Sucrose
2) Galactose
3) Lactose
4) Fermented carbohydrates
Fermented carbohydrates are not listed as reducing cariogenicity.
A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might show increased postoperative bleeding because aspirin inhibits:
1) Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation
2) Synthesis of prostacyclin and prevents platelet aggregation
3) Synthesis of prostaglandin and prevents production of blood platelets
4) Thrombin and prevents formation of the fibrin network
ADC Test Answer: 1
Aspirin irreversibly inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis, which is crucial for platelet aggregation, leading to increased bleeding risk.
What is the role of lactoferrin in the prevention of dental caries?
1) It produces fluoride
2) It binds to iron, inhibiting bacterial enzymes
3) It forms a protective layer on the tooth surface
4) It produces bicarbonate
Lactoferrin is a protein in saliva that binds to iron, making it unavailable for bacterial enzymes that require iron to function, thus inhibiting their growth and acid production.
What is the recommended maximum safe dosage of epinephrine for geriatric
patients with cardiovascular diseases?
1) 0.04 mg
2) 0.2 mg
3) 0.1 mg
4) 0.5 mg
It's typically recommended to limit the total dose of
epinephrine to 0.04 mg due to the risk of cardiovascular events in older
patients.
Which condition is characterized by the presence of intraoral fibromas?
1) Lichen planus
2) Fibromatosis
3) Pemphigus vulgaris
4) Epulis
An epulis is a benign tumor characterized by fibrous tissue growth in the gingiva that can present as intraoral fibromas.
What is the primary route of transmission for most blood borne pathogens in
the dental setting?
1) Inhalation
2) Ingestion
3) Mucous membrane exposure
4) Skin absorption
The most common route of transmission for bloodborne pathogens in the dental setting is through mucous membrane exposure, such as when blood or other infectious materials come into contact with the eyes, nose, or mouth of a healthcare worker. This can occur through splashes, sprays, or contact with contaminated surfaces.
What is the critical pH for demineralization of carbonate-substituted
hydroxyapatite (CHA)?
1) 4.5
2) 5.5
3) 6.2
4) 7.0
The critical pH for CHA is 5.5, below which demineralization begins.
The nerve to masseter passes 1. deep to the medial pterygoid muscle 2. posterior to temporomandibular joint 3. superior to zygomatic arch to enter the muscle on its medial surface 4. through the mandibular notch to enter the muscle on its medial surface
Anatomy Answer: 2The nerve to masseter passes posterior to temporomandibular joint
Which of the following drugs acts by enzyme inhibition?
1) salbutamol
2) acetazolamide
3) tolbutamide
4) chlorpromazine
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that reduces aqueous humour production and is therefore indicated in glaucoma to reduce the intraocular pressure.
Salbutamol is a selective, short-acting beta2-agonist used as a bronchodilator in asthma.
Chlorpromazine is an aliphatic neuroleptic antipsychotic drug used in schizophrenia.
Informed consent for children typically requires consent from:
1) The child
only
2) The healthcare provider
3) The child's guardian or parent
4) The child's teacher
The child's guardian or parent
Explanation: Parents or guardians are responsible for providing
consent for medical treatment for minors.
Which of the following is NOT an infrahyoid muscle?
1) Digastric
2) Mylohyoid
3) Geniohyoid
4) Omohyoid
The infrahyoid muscles are the mylohyoid, hyoglossus, stylohyoid,
thyrohyoid, and omohyoid muscles. The infrahyoid muscles are a group of muscles found in the neck that are
situated below the hyoid bone.
2) Mylohyoid: This muscle runs obliquely from the body and greater horn of the
hyoid bone to the inner surface of the mandible. It is involved in elevating the
hyoid bone, which occurs during swallowing and tongue movement.
3) Geniohyoid: The geniohyoid muscle originates from the lower mental spine and
genial tubercle of the mandible and inserts into the body and greater horn of
the hyoid bone. It plays a role in depressing the hyoid bone, which occurs
during swallowing and tongue protrusion.
4) Omohyoid: The omohyoid muscle originates from the scapula and passes upward
and medially to insert into the lower part of the hyoid bone. It also helps in
depressing the hyoid bone and can assist in raising the larynx during
swallowing.
The Digastric muscle is not an infrahyoid muscle. The digastric muscle is
actually a suprahyoid muscle, which means it is located above the hyoid bone. It
has two bellies: the anterior belly originates from the digastric fossa of the
mandible and inserts into the hyoid bone, while the posterior belly originates
from the mastoid process of the temporal bone and inserts into the hyoid bone. The digastric muscle functions in opening the jaw and raising the hyoid bone
during swallowing.
The bull's eye type of appearance in IOPA (Intraoral Periapical radiograph) is
seen in:
1) Lingually placed mandibular third molar
2) Buccally placed mandibular third molar
3) Inverted mandibular third molar
4) Distoangular impaction
The bull's eye appearance on an IOPA radiograph is typically
associated with a lingually positioned mandibular third molar. This appearance
is due to the radiographic projection of the tooth and surrounding structures,
which can create a characteristic circular pattern that resembles a bull's eye.
A component of the coenzyme required in a transamination process is 1. Thiamine 2 Folic acid 3 Pyridoxine 4 Riboflavin
Biochemistry Answer: 3A component of the coenzyme required in a transamination process is Pyridoxine
Angular cheilitis is most commonly associated with which condition in complete denture wearers?
A. Candidiasis
B. Nutritional deficiencies
C. Overextended flanges
D. Incorrect occlusion
Angular cheilitis, which appears as fissures or sores at the corners of the mouth, is often caused by overextended denture flanges that create friction and moisture retention, leading to secondary infections.
Which antibiotic causes abdominal cramps in toxic doses?
1) Penicillin
2) Cephalosporins
3) Macrolides
4) Tetracyclines
Cephalosporins can cause gastrointestinal disturbances, including cramps, particularly at higher doses.
What suture material is recommended for lip trauma and oroantral fistula?
1) Chromic gut
2) Black silk
3) Vicryl
4) Nylon
For lip trauma and oroantral fistula repair, Vicryl (polyglactin 910) is the recommended suture material.
Exposure of the patient to ionizing radiation when taking a radiograph is NOT REDUCED by:
1) The use of fast film
2) Decreasing the kilovoltage (kVp)
3) Collimation of the beam
4) The use of an open and lead-lined cone
ADC Test Answer: 2
Decreasing the kilovoltage can actually increase exposure time and radiation dose, as it reduces the energy of the x-rays produced.
The most appropriate drug for treatment of generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) is:
1) valproate
2) methylphenidate
3) ethosuximide
4) diazepam
For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, phenytoin, carbamazepine, or valproate is the drug of choice.
he material of choice for obturating the root canal system of a primary
tooth is
1) silver cone.
2) gutta percha
3) zinc-oxide eugenol.
4) paper point medicated with formocresol.
Zinc-oxide eugenol (ZOE) is commonly used for obturating the root canal system of primary teeth due to its biocompatibility, sealing ability, and ease of use. It is particularly favored in pediatric dentistry because it is less likely to cause irritation to the surrounding tissues compared to other materials. Gutta percha is more commonly used in permanent teeth.
What is the most common type of impaction of the third molar?
1) Mesial impaction
2) Vertical impaction
3) Horizontal impaction
4) Distoangular impaction
Mesial impaction is when the third molar is angulated towards the mesial (second molar) and is the most common type of impaction.
What’s true about the sealers if extruded out of the canal?
1) ZoE is most irritating.
2) AH Plus sealer is most irritating.
3) Real Seal is most irritating.
4) Both ZoE and AH Plus are more irritating than Real Seal.
ADC Test Answer: 4
Both Zinc Oxide Eugenol (ZoE) and AH Plus endodontic sealers can cause irritation if extruded into the periapical tissues, while Real Seal tends to have a lower irritation potential.
Nickel-chromium alloys designed for porcelain bonded to metal crowns should be
used with caution because
1) nickel is an allergen.
2) the modulus of elasticity is low.
3) these alloys cannot be soldered
4) none of above
Nickel in the alloy may cause allergic reactions in sensitive individuals,
particularly women, necessitating caution.
The mesial and distal walls of a Class I amalgam preparation diverge toward the
occlusal surface in order to
1) resist the forces of mastication.
2) provide resistance and retention form.
3) prevent undermining of the marginal ridges.
4) extend the preparation into areas more readily cleansed
This design feature ensures that the remaining tooth structure is supported and not weakened by the preparation, which is crucial for maintaining the integrity of the tooth.
Acute or subacute suppurative osteomyelitis occurs most frequently in the
1) anterior maxilla
2) posterior mandible.
3) posterior maxilla
4) anterior mandible.
The posterior mandible is more susceptible due to its dense cortical bone and
reduced blood supply, which hinder immune responses.
Which treatment is best for an alveolar abscess?
1) Endontic treatment or extraction.
2) Incision and drainage alone.
3) Extraction.
4) Endodontic treatment.
ADC Test Answer: 1
An alveolar abscess can be treated with either endodontic therapy (root canal treatment) to save the tooth or extraction if the tooth is non-restorable or if the patient does not wish to preserve it.
You notice a lesion on the labial alveolar mucosa of the lower right lateral incisor tooth of one of your patients and decide to take a biopsy. Which nerve would require local anesthesia in order to carry out a pain-free biopsy?
1) The lingual nerve
2) The buccal nerve
3) The incisive nerve
4) The mental nerve
The incisive nerve would require local anesthesia in order to carry out a pain-free biopsy.
When treating a patient with Down syndrome, which of the following is NOT a common oral health concern?
1) Increased risk of periodontal disease
2) Delayed tooth eruption
3) Large tongue size
4) High prevalence of dental caries
While individuals with Down syndrome may face challenges such as increased risk of periodontal disease and delayed tooth eruption, and often have a higher prevalence of dental caries, tongue size is generally not a concern specific to this condition.
What is the legal status of informed consent in an emergency situation?
1) It is not required
2) It is always required
3) It is required unless the patient is unconscious
4) It is required unless the treatment is lifesaving
In an emergency where immediate treatment is necessary to save a patient's life or prevent serious harm, informed consent is not required due to the urgent nature of the situation.
A patient on diuretics may experience which oral side effect? 1) Xerostomia (dry mouth) 2) Gingival hyperplasia 3) Stomatitis 4) Facial swelling
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 1Diuretics can lead to xerostomia, commonly observed in patients on long-term antihypertensive therapy.
What is the primary role of saliva in oral health?
1) Aids in digestion
2) Provides antibacterial action
3) Helps in remineralization of teeth
4) All of the above
Saliva plays multiple roles in oral health, including aiding digestion, providing antibacterial action, and helping in the remineralization of teeth.
What describes a secondary or auxiliary rest?
1) Integral to the RPD base
2) Provides aesthetic support
3) Used for indirect retention
4) Only located on occlusal surfaces
Auxiliary rests serve as additional support to aid in indirect retention for the RPD.
What is a common reason why a ten-year-old amalgam filling has become raised above the tooth surface?
1) Wear
2) Creep
3) Improper placement
4) Over-carving
Creep is the tendency of dental amalgam to deform under constant stress, often leading to a raised filling surface as it continues to flow slowly over time.
Which of the sugar is least cariogenic:
1) Sucrose
2)
Glucosebr
3)
Xylitol
4)
Lactose
Xylitol is the least cariogenic sugar because it cannot be metabolized by the bacteria in the mouth, unlike glucose, sucrose, and lactose. This means that xylitol does not contribute to tooth decay as much as the other sugars do.
What is the most common complication associated with the extraction of an impacted third molar?
1) Nerve damage
2) Infection
3) Prolonged bleeding
4) Dry socket
Pericoronitis is the most common complication associated with impacted third molars, which can occur before or after extraction if proper care is not taken.
Which of the following is NOT one of the Four Cs of record keeping?
- Clear
- Comprehensive
- Concise
- Contemporaneous
The Four Cs of record keeping are Contemporaneous, Clear, Concise, and Complete.
Patients with untreated malignant hypertension typically survive for how long without treatment? 1) 1 year 2) 2 years 3) 5 years 4) 10 years
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 1Untreated malignant hypertension has a poor prognosis, with a typical survival period of around one year due to severe complications.
In the mandible, the main growth site is in the:
1) Gonial angle.
2) Condylar cartilage.
3) Posterior border of the ramus.
4) Inferior and lateral aspects of the body of the mandible.
Orthodontics Answer: 2Excessive overjet is a hallmark of Angle Class II occlusion due to mandibular retrusion or maxillary protrusion, leading to an increased horizontal distance between the arches.
How should the floor of the pulp chamber in molars be prepared?
1) Swab and dry with cotton wool and excavate
2) Use a round bur to flatten the floor
3) Under-cut walls
4) Use a flat-end fissure bur to make it leveled
Preparing the pulp chamber floor involves drying the area and then carefully excavating to ensure a clean and manageable working area without damaging surrounding tissues.
The primary canine is usually exfoliated between the ages of 1. 5 and 6 years 2. 10 and 11 years 3. l3 and l4years 4. 8 and 9years
Dental Anatomy Answer: 2The primary canine is usually exfoliated between the ages of 10 and 11 years
Impressions taken with which of the following materials are subject to distortion as a result of water sorption? 1. silicone rubber 2. polysulflde polymers 3. zinc oxide-eugenol-paste 4. polyether
Dental Material Answer: 4polyether materials are subject to distortion as a result of water sorption
Attrition refers to:
1) Wear due to chemical exposure
2) Natural wear from tooth-to-tooth contact
3) Loss of dentin due to bacteria
4) Abrasion from external materials
ADC Test Answer: 2
Attrition involves the mechanical wearing down of the biting surfaces of teeth, primarily from occlusal contact during chewing.
A zinc-containing amalgam that has been contaminated by moisture will manifest A. higher setting expansion B. a gross delayed expansion C. reduced compressive strength D. an increase in the amount of gamma phase 1. A and B 2. B and C 3. C 4. C and D
Dental Material Answer: 2A zinc-containing amalgam that has been contaminated by moisture will result in delayed expansion and reduced compressive strength
Local anesthesia depends on:
1) Strength bond between drug and nerve.
2) Strength bond between drug and its intensity.
3) Bond between drug and time of removal from the body.
4) All of the above.
ADC Test Answer: 1
The effectiveness of local anesthesia is primarily determined by how well the anesthetic agent binds to nerve tissues.
Which of the following has highest minimum alveolar concentration?
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Nitrous oxide
Nitrous oxide has the highest MAC value of 104 among all inhalational anaesthetics.
The principal role of Vitamin E in the prevention of oxidative damage is to potentiate the action of superoxide dismutase
Facial profile of a typical mouth breather is
1) Long and wide
2) Short and wide
3) Long and narrow
4) Short and narrow
SOLUTION Altered respiratory pattern, such as breathing through the mouth rather than the nose, could change the posture of the
head, jaw, and tongue.
In order to breathe through the mouth, it is necessary to lower the mandible and tongue, and extend (tip back) the head.
If these postural changes were maintained, face height would increase, and posterior teeth would super-erupt;
unless there was unusual vertical growth of the ramus, the mandible would rotate down and back, opening the bite
anteriorly and increasing overjet; and increased pressure from the stretched cheeks might cause a narrower maxillary dental arch.
Which of the following is an example of a legal requirement for dental records?
- Using a specific color of ink to write in the chart
- Storing patient records for at least 7 years after the patient's last appointment
- Having a signed treatment consent form for every procedure
- Using only digital records, no paper charts allowed
The legal requirements for dental records may vary by state or country, but a common requirement is the retention of records for a certain period, typically 7 to 10 years or until the patient reaches the age of majority plus a certain number of years.
Tourniquet cannot be released before ....... minutes after Beir's block
1) 5 minutes
2) 10 minutes
3) 30 minutes
4) 60 minutes
Local Anesthesia Answer: 3
30 minutes Tourniquet once inflated and drug given, it cannot be released before half an hour as it is assumed that it takes this much time for drug to be completely out of vascular compartment.
What does the term "material risks" refer to in the context of informed
consent?
1) The cost of the treatment
2) The most common risks associated with the procedure
3) The most serious risks associated with the procedure
4) The risks that the patient is most concerned about
Material risks are significant risks that the patient should be
informed about, as they are most relevant to the decision-making process.
What is the role of a dental therapist in the care of a patient with special needs?
1) To provide all aspects of dental treatment under the supervision of a dentist
2) To perform only simple procedures like cleanings and fillings
3) To manage the patient's medical conditions
4) To provide oral health education and preventive care
A dental therapist is a mid-level dental provider who can perform various procedures under the supervision of a dentist.
What should a dentist do if a patient changes their mind about a treatment
after informed consent has been given?
1) Proceed with the treatment regardless of the patient's change of heart
2) Discuss the patient's concerns and possibly modify the treatment plan
3) Require the patient to obtain consent from a second dentist
4) Document the patient's withdrawal of consent and stop the treatment
Patients have the right to withdraw consent at any time. The dentist must respect this decision and stop the treatment. It is important to document the patient's wishes to avoid any misunderstandings or legal issues.
What is the primary concern when integrating gerodontology into general
dental practice?
1) Lack of specialized training
2) Inadequate chairside manner
3) Difficulty with insurance reimbursements
4) Patient compliance with treatment
Where in the periodontal ligament fibers are the fibers thinner?
1) Apical third
2) Middle third
3) Cervical third
4) None
The fibers in the middle third of the periodontal ligament are generally thinner than in the apical or cervical thirds, leading to reduced tensile strength and an area that is more susceptible to damage.
What does muscle resistance to insulin in obesity and genetic profile usually
lead to?
1) Type I diabetes
2) Type 2 diabetes
3) Hyperpigmentation
4) Depression
Muscle resistance to insulin in obesity and genetic profile usually leads to type 2 diabetes. This is because insulin resistance occurs when the muscle cells do not respond properly to insulin, resulting in elevated blood sugar levels. Obesity and genetic factors can contribute to the development of insulin resistance, leading to the progression of type 2 diabetes. Hyperpigmentation and depression are not directly related to muscle resistance to insulin in obesity and genetic profile.
What are effective strategies to decrease polymerization shrinkage of a composite?
1. Incremental placing of composite using techniques like herringbone and lateral filling methods.
Utilizing incremental builds reduces the stress of polymerization shrinkage by minimizing wall-to-wall effects.
What is the primary cause of an elevator fracture during tooth extraction?
1) Excessive force
2) Incorrectly angled elevator
3) Weak tooth structure
4) Inadequate anesthesia
Applying too much force can lead to tooth fracture, especially if the elevator is not inserted correctly.