Dentist Abroad
Which of the following drugs can cause methemoglobinemia?
1) Lidocaine
2) Procaine
3) Prilocaine
4) Bupivacaine
Prilocaine is a local anesthetic that can cause methemoglobinemia.
A patient presents with dental injuries that are inconsistent with the reported mechanism of injury. What should the dental professional do?
1) Confront the patient about the discrepancies
2) Document the findings and report to authorities
3) Refer the patient to a psychologist
4) Ignore the inconsistencies
Inconsistent injuries should be documented and reported, as they may indicate abuse.
Untrue about desflurane is:
1) Rapid induction and recovery
2) High vapour pressure
3) Induction is very smooth
4) Does not produce fluoride
Desflurane is isoflurane product so has pungent odour, rapid induction and recovery, very high vapour pressure.
Bitewing radiography is the main special test used to help in the diagnosis of proximal caries. What is a reasonable summary of the diagnostic accuracy of bitewing radiography for proximal caries diagnosis?
1) Moderate sensitivity and low specificity
2) Moderate sensitivity and moderate specificity
3) Moderate sensitivity and high specificity
4) High sensitivity and moderate specificity
5) High sensitivity and high specificity
Bitewing radiography is known for its high sensitivity and specificity in detecting proximal caries, making it a valuable diagnostic tool.
An overjet of 8mm is usually associated with:
1) Angle Class I cuspid relationship.
2) Angle Class II cuspid relationship.
3) Angle Class III cuspid relationship.
4) Angle Class I molar relationship.
Orthodontics Answer: 2Excessive overjet is a hallmark of Angle Class II occlusion due to mandibular retrusion or maxillary protrusion, leading to an increased horizontal distance between the arches.
What is the primary concern during the third trimester of pregnancy?
1) Organogenesis of the fetus
2) The risk of preterm labor
3) Fetal movement
4) The development of the baby's teeth
The third trimester is marked by the secretion of large quantities of steroids into the blood, which can stimulate premature uterine contractions.
Lactobacillus is an acidogenic genus found in deep dental caries, that often increases significantly in the saliva during periods of caries activity
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the attachment of the mylohyoid muscle?
1) It attaches superiorly at the lateral border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid.
2) It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the lesser horn of the hyoid
3) It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the greater horn of the hyoid
4) It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid
It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid
The use of fluoride in treating root surface caries aims to protect:
1) Enamel
2) Dentin and cementum
3) Pulp
4) Cuticle
ADC Test Answer: 2
Fluoride application helps to strengthen dentin and cementum surfaces against carious lesions, offering protection from decay.
Activation of muscle contraction is promoted by : Opening of the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca channel. Ca2+ binding to troponin C. Opening of Na channels Ca2+ binding to the Ca2+-ATPase
Not true about Na+ K+ 2Cl- Co-transporter:
1) It is a glycoprotein
2) 12 membrane spanning domains
3) There are distinct isoforms for secretory and absorptive function
4) The secretory form is found exclusively in thick segment of ascending limb of loop of Henle
Pharmacology Answer: 4
The gas with greatest solubility in blood:
1) Nitrous oxide
2) Nitrogen
3) Oxygen
4) Hydrogen
Although the solubility of nitrous oxide in blood is less than other inhalational agents its solubility is 35 limes more than nitrogen and 15 times more than oxygen
Which of the following anaesthetic has beta blocker action:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Nitrous oxide
Halothane produces beta-blocker-like action, causing direct depression of the myocardium and bradycardia.
Which of the following is NOT a component of informed consent in dentistry?
1) Explanation of the diagnosis
2) Description of the proposed treatment
3) Discussion of the risks and benefits of the treatment
4) Patient's agreement to pay for the treatment
While financial considerations are important in the overall decision-making process, informed consent specifically pertains to the patient's understanding and agreement to the medical aspects of the treatment, not the financial agreement.
Which of the following adverse reactions of oral contraceptives is the most common and the most serious?
1) Hypotension
2) Hepatotoxicity
3) Uterine neoplasia
4) Thromboembolism disorder
ADC Test Answer: 4
Thromboembolism is a significant risk associated with oral contraceptives, particularly in women with additional risk factors.
Which of the following is NOT a common occupational hazard for dentists and dental staff?
1) Exposure to ionizing radiation
2) Risk of infection from bloodborne pathogens
3) Development of musculoskeletal disorders
4) High risk of developing allergies to dental materials
While dentists and dental staff are indeed at risk of developing allergies to certain dental materials, especially those with latex allergies due to repeated exposure to gloves and other latex products, it is not a common occupational hazard compared to exposure to ionizing radiation from dental x-rays, risk of infection from bloodborne pathogens due to the nature of dental procedures, and the high prevalence of musculoskeletal disorders due to the ergonomic challenges of the work.
All are fluorinated anaesthetics except:
1) Methoxyflurane
2) Halothane
3) Sevoflurane
4) Isoflurane
Halothane is fluorinated but does not undergo desfluorination under normal conditions.
What treatment is indicated for severe cases of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)?
1) Increased platelet count
2) Supportive care and treating underlying causes
3) Administration of antibiotics
4) Hormonal therapy
Management of severe cases of DIC involves supportive care and addressing the underlying condition that has triggered the coagulopathy.
There are some enzymes that cause protein to coagulate rather than to produce simpler compund These are known as 1. lab enzymes 2. coagulase 3. proteolytic enzymes 4. enmycin
Microbiology Answer: 1There are some enzymes that cause protein to coagulate rather than to produce simpler compund These are known as lab enzymes
What is TRUE in regards to osteogenesis imperfecta?
1) Manifests with blue sclera
2) May be associated with deafness
3) Sex-linked disorder of bones that develop in cartilage
4) All of the above
ADC Test Answer: 1
Osteogenesis imperfecta is characterized by fragile bones, blue sclera due to thin collagen in the eye, and may also have associations with hearing loss.
Patients with untreated malignant hypertension typically survive for how long without treatment? 1) 1 year 2) 2 years 3) 5 years 4) 10 years
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 1Untreated malignant hypertension has a poor prognosis, with a typical survival period of around one year due to severe complications.
Exposure of the patient to ionizing radiation when taking a radiograph is NOT REDUCED by:
1) The use of fast film
2) Decreasing the kilovoltage (kVp)
3) Collimation of the beam
4) The use of an open and lead-lined cone
ADC Test Answer: 2
Decreasing the kilovoltage can actually increase exposure time and radiation dose, as it reduces the energy of the x-rays produced.
Best clinical sign for adequate reversal is:
1) Spontaneous eye opening
2) Spontaneous limb movements
3) Able to protrude tongue
4) Able to lift head > 5 seconds
If patient is able to lift the head > 5 seconds it is considered the best clinical sign as it corresponds to train of four ratio > 0.7.
What is the recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner?
1) 150F for 2 hours.
2) 180F for 30 minutes.
3) 160F for 30 minutes.
4) 160F for 30 minutes, then boil for 2 hours.
The recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner is to first bring the temperature of the water to 160F (71C) and maintain it for 30 minutes.
The Nitrate which does not undergo first pass metabolism is:
1) Isosorbide mononitrate
2) Nitroglycerine
3) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
4) Isosorbide dinitrate
In humans, isosorbide mononitrate is not subject to first pass metabolism in the liver.
This reduces the intra- and interindividual variations in plasma evels and leads to predictable and reproducible clinical effects.
During an inferior alveolar nerve block, the needle ideally passes?
1) Through medial pterygoid
2) Anterior and lateral to medial pterygoid
3) Posterior and medial to medial pterygoid
4) Inferior to medial pterygoid.
During an inferior alveolar nerve block, the needle ideally passes anterior and lateral to the medial pterygoid muscle.
Which of the following is main cause of pain during pulpal injury progression
1) increased vascular permeability
2) decreased threshold of nerve fibers to pain
3) arteriolar dilatation
4) decrease pressure
Increased vascular permeability: When the dental pulp becomes injured
or inflamed, the blood vessels in the pulp dilate and become more permeable.
Which clinical sign can indicate an open fracture of the mandible? 1) Sublingual hematoma 2) Mobility of fractured teeth 3) Step in the occlusion 4) Presence of blood-stained saliva
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 4Blood-stained saliva, along with evidence of current or prior bleeding from the tooth sockets, is a strong indicator of an open mandibular fracture, where the fracture communicates with the oral cavity.
Which of the following anaesthetic agent can be given by both intravenous and intramuscular routes:
1) Thiopentone
2) Propanidid
3) Ketamine
4) Fentanyl-droperidol
Ketamine can be administered via intravenous, intramuscular, oral, and intrathecal routes. It is the second method of choice for induction in children, with the first being inhalational.
Why should we give 5 rescue breaths first in a child during CPR?
1) Children require more oxygen
2) Children often have cardiac arrest
3) Children have asphyxial arrest
4) Children can often breathe on their own
In children, cardiac arrest is often due to respiratory failure or asphyxia, hence providing early rescue breaths ensures they receive vital oxygen quickly.
What is the purpose of a pre-operative visit for an anxious patient?
1) To administer sedatives
2) To discuss and explain the treatment plan in detail
3) To perform a thorough medical evaluation
4) To complete financial paperwork
A pre-operative visit allows the dentist to build trust, answer questions, and prepare the patient mentally for the upcoming procedure, which can significantly reduce anxiety.
Which of the following is the drug of choice in bupivacaine induced VT:
1) Lidocaine
2) Phenytoin
3) Digoxin
4) Quinidine
The drug of choice is bretylium but in its absence lignocaine can be used.
The fovea palatini serves as a landmark for determining:
1) Anterior border of upper denture
2) Posterior border of upper denture
3) Midline of the arch
4) Occlusal plane angle
ADC Test Answer: 2
The fovea palatini marks the posterior seal area of the upper denture, essential for denture retention.
Aromatic amino acid is: 1. Tyrosine 2. Histidine 3. Arginine 4. Lysine
Biochemistry Answer: 1Tyrosine is Aromatic amino acid
Ketamine is contraindicated in:
1) Hypertension
2) Raised intracranial tension
3) Raised intraocular tension
4) All of the above
Ketamine raises both systolic and diastolic blood pressures and is thus contraindicated in hypertension. It increases cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure and is thus contraindicated in raised intracranial tension. Ketamine raises intraocular tension and is thus contraindicated in glaucoma.
The orthodontic correction of which of the following is most easily retained
1) Anterior cross bite
2) Crowding
3) Diastema
4) Spacing
SOLUTION The key to success is to use an appliance that is both comfortable, easily retained and predictable such as a simple Hawley retainer with recurve springs or a fixed labial-lingual appliance (including a vertical removable arch for ease of adjustment with a recurve spring to jump the cross-bite). Both of these appliances work by tipping the maxillary teeth forward so they are in a normal dental relationship to the mandibular teeth.
An alpha helix of a protein is most likely to be disrupted if a missense mutation introduces the following armino acid within the alpha helical structure:
1. Alanine.
2. Aspartic acid.
3. Tyrosine.
4. Glycine.
Glycine and proline introduce a bend in structure of protein, hence alpha helix disrupted
What is the primary purpose of a dental unit waterline treatment? 1) To improve the taste of the water 2) To prevent biofilm formation and contamination 3) To enhance the aesthetic appearance of the dental unit 4) To reduce the need for sterilization
Occupational Hazards Answer: 2Regular treatment of dental unit waterlines is essential to prevent the growth of biofilms and ensure that the water used in procedures is safe and free from pathogens.
The first tapping sound, known as the Korotkoff sound, represents the systolic pressure.
Which of the following best describes ergonomic hazards in dentistry?
1) Exposure to infectious diseases
2) Improper use of dental materials
3) Repetitive motions and awkward postures
4) Chemical exposure from disinfectants
Ergonomic hazards involve physical strain from repetitive motions and awkward postures that can lead to musculoskeletal disorders among dental professionals.
The manufacturer’s maximum recommended number of 1.8ml cartridges of 3%
mepivacaine that may be safely administered to a 65kg adult is
1) 5.
2) 6.
3) 7.
4) 8.
Based on the maximum dose of 6.6 mg/kg, 7 cartridges are within the safe limit for a 65kg adult.
What is the most common pharmacological agent used for conscious sedation in dentistry?
1) Midazolam
2) Diazepam
3) Lorazepam
4) Alprazolam
Midazolam is commonly used for conscious sedation in dentistry due to its rapid onset, short duration of action, and amnesic properties.
Which of the following causes bronchodilatation?
1) adrenaline (epinephrine)
2) histamine
3) prostaglandin E2
4) guaifenesin
Adrenaline (epinephrine) is a sympathomimetic agent that causes bronchodilatation.
Histamine, kinins and prostaglandins, such as prostaglandin E2, are inflammatory mediators. In response to allergic stimuli, inflammatory mediators may cause bronchoconstrictions.
Guaifenesin is an expectorant preparation that increases bronchial secretions to promote the expulsion of the mucus coughed up.
Ameloblastoma is the most aggressive:
1) Odontogenic tumor
2) Benign tumor
3) Malignant tumor
4) Fibrous tumor
Ameloblastoma is a benign but locally aggressive tumor of odontogenic origin, meaning it arises from the tissues that form teeth.
For a pigmented fissure, what is the best way to diagnose caries?
1) Visual examination
2) Radiographic examination
3) Investigate the area with a round bur
4) Transillumination
Investigating the area with a round bur allows for direct assessment of the fissure and any underlying carious lesions.
A non-synovial joint with dense connective tissue between two bony surfaces is called?
1) Synchondrosis
2) Syndesmosis
3) Symphysis
4) Suture
Sutures are fibrous joints in the skull that are immovable and connected by dense connective tissue, whereas syndesmoses can allow slight movement.
A component of the coenzyme required in a transamination process is 1. Thiamine 2 Folic acid 3 Pyridoxine 4 Riboflavin
Biochemistry Answer: 3A component of the coenzyme required in a transamination process is Pyridoxine
Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect pulp capping?
1) Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure
2) Removal of caries has exposed the pulp
3) When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ
4) Deep caries without symptoms
ADC Test Answer: 1
Indirect pulp capping is indicated when some softened dentin remains over the pulp but further excavation could risk exposing it, thus preserving pulp vitality.
What describes a secondary or auxiliary rest?
1) Integral to the RPD base
2) Provides aesthetic support
3) Used for indirect retention
4) Only located on occlusal surfaces
Auxiliary rests serve as additional support to aid in indirect retention for the RPD.
The most appropriate gingival contour of a fixed partial denture connector is
1) concave.
2) convex.
3) flat.
4) none
A convex contour ensures proper hygiene by reducing plaque accumulation and
facilitates better gingival health.
Concave contours can trap debris and promote inflammation.
Which of these is the ideal appliance for correction of posterior cross bite due to digit sucking habit?
1) Tongue spikes
2) Hay rakes
3) Maxillary lingual arch with palatal crib
4) Quad helix
Classification of appliances for thumb-sucking
1.
a. Tongue spikes
b. Tongue guard
c. Spurs/rake
2 Fixed appliances
a. Quad helix
b. Hay rakes
c. Maxillary lingual arch with palatal crib
The ideal appliance to correct posterior cross-bite caused due to digit sucking is Quad Helix. It is a lingual arch which is adjustab and needs very little patient cooperation because it is fixed and is reliable and easy to use.
Which type of caries occurs at the junction of tooth structure and restorative
material?
1) Primary caries
2) Secondary/recurrent caries
3) Residual
4) Incipient caries
Secondary or recurrent caries occur at the junction of tooth structure and restorative material, often due to leakage.
Which ethical principle emphasizes the importance of doing no harm to patients?
1) Autonomy
2) Beneficence
3) Non-maleficence
4) Justice
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 3Non-maleficence is the ethical principle that requires healthcare providers to avoid causing harm to patients. It is a fundamental tenet of medical ethics.
Stage of surgical anaesthesia is:
1) Stage I
2) Stage II
3) Stage III plane 2
4) Stage III plane 3
Stage III plane 3 is considered the stage of surgical anaesthesia because laryngeal reflex goes in this stage, and patient can be intubated.
Which type of antihypertensive agent should be avoided in patients with a history of asthma?
1) ACE inhibitors
2) Calcium channel blockers
3) Non-selective beta-blockers
4) Diuretics
Non-selective beta-blockers, like propranolol, can worsen asthma symptoms due to bronchoconstriction.
The ideal treatment for a tooth (75) with caries touching the pulp horn at age 7 is:
1) Indirect pulp capping and steel crown
2) Pulpotomy and steel crown
3) Pulpectomy and steel crown
4) Extraction and space maintainer
ADC Test Answer: 2
At this age, a pulpotomy (removal of the coronal pulp) is appropriate as it preserves the remaining vital tissue while addressing caries.
Where would you expect to find the mylohyoid muscle in relation to the periphery of a full lower denture?
1) Mandibular buccal in the midline
2) Mandibular lingual in the first premolar area
3) Mandibular lingual in the midline
4) Mandibular disto buccal area
ADC Test Answer: 2
The mylohyoid muscle forms the floor of the mouth and is located lingually, particularly in the area of the first premolars.
A diastema between two maxillary central permanent incisors could be associated
with the followings, EXCEPT
1) a mesiodens.
2) a congenital absence of permanent maxillary lateral incisors.
3) a large labial frenum.
4) adenomatoid odontogenetic tumour
Adenomatoid odontogenic tumors are generally not linked to diastemas; other options can contribute to spacing.
What is the most common occupational health problem among dentists ?
1) Tinnitus
2) Musculoskeletal pain
3) Hypertension
4) Hearing loss
Musculoskeletal pain was the most common occupational health problem, with 78% of the dentists reporting it. This is consistent with findings from other studies that highlight the prevalence of musculoskeletal disorders in the dental profession due to prolonged sitting postures, repetitive movements, and manual dexterity required in dental practice.
Which of the following anaesthetic has beta blocker action:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Nitrous oxide
Halothane produces l3-blocker like action ie., direct depression of myocardium and bradycardia (negative inotropic and negative chronotropic effect).
What’s the percentage of individuals over 25 years old with periodontitis in the UK?
1) 30%
2) 50%
3) 64%
4) 75%
Approximately 64% of individuals over 25 years old in the UK are affected by periodontitis, highlighting the prevalence of periodontal disease.
Which of the following is a key component of informed consent?
1) The
healthcare provider's opinion on the treatment
2) The patient's medical history
3) The risks and benefits of the proposed treatment
4) The cost of the treatment
A key component of informed consent is providing the patient with information about the risks and benefits associated with the proposed treatment.
Which of the following action is ascribed to delta type of opioid receptors?
1) Supraspinal analgesis
2) Respiratory depression
3) Euphoria
4) Reduced intestinal motility
Functions of delta type opioid receptors are: supraspinal analgesia
spinal analgesia
modulation of hormone and neurotransmitter release
Which muscle protrudes the hyoid?
1) Suprahyoids
2) Infrahyoids
3) Geniohyoid
4) Stylohyoid
The hyoid bone is a U-shaped bone located in the neck, just above the larynx.
Brief explanation of the other muscles:
1) Suprahyoids: The suprahyoid muscles are a group of muscles that are situated
superior to the hyoid bone. Their primary function is to elevate the hyoid
during activities like swallowing. They include the digastric, stylohyoid, and
mylohyoid muscles. However, they do not directly protrude the hyoid.
2) Infrahyoids: The infrahyoid muscles are a group of muscles that are situated
inferior to the hyoid bone. They function to depress the hyoid bone during
activities like swallowing and speech. They include the sternohyoid, omohyoid,
thyrohyoid, and geniohyoid muscles.
4) Stylohyoid: The stylohyoid muscle is one of the infrahyoid muscles and it
originates from the styloid process of the temporal bone and inserts into the
lesser cornu and the body of the hyoid bone. Its main function is to elevate and
draw the hyoid bone backward and laterally. It does not directly protrude the
hyoid.
The geniohyoid muscle is the most specific in its action to protrude the hyoid
bone .
A vitamin B12 deficiency may affect heme synthesis by reducing the concentration of which of the following? Choose the one best answer.
1) Acetyl-CoA
2) Succinyl-CoA
3) Glycine
4) Alanine
Vitamin B12 participates in two reactions in the body-conversion of homocysteine to methionine and conversion ofmethylmalonyl-CoA to succinyl-CoA. Methylmalonyl-CoA is produced via various amino acid degradation pathways, and from oddcarbon chain fatty acid oxidation.
Glycine is usually obtained from the diet, although in a B12 deficiency a functional folate deficiency may also develop, leading to an inhibition of serine hydroxymethyltransferase, the enzyme that converts serine to glycine, and requires free tetrahydrofolate.
Succinyl-CoA and glycine are the precursors for heme synthesis. A B12 deficiency would not inhibit the production of acetyl-CoA, succinate, or alanine.
Paraesthesia in the distribution of the inferior alveolar nerve, including the lower lip, strongly suggests a mandibular fracture. This is often due to trauma to the inferior alveolar nerve.
What is the most common cause of tooth sensitivity?
1) Gum recession
2) Tooth decay
3) Cracked teeth
4) All of the above
Tooth sensitivity can arise from various factors, including gum recession, tooth decay, and cracked teeth, exposing the dentin.
Which ion acts as a second messenger?
1) Sodium
2) Potassium
3) Calcium
4) Magnesium
Calcium ions serve as important second messengers in various cellular signaling pathways, facilitating communication within and between cells.
What information should be clearly noted in the dental record when multiple dental practitioners are involved?
- The name of the primary dentist only
- The name and specialty of each practitioner who renders treatment
- The fee charged by each dentist
- The patient's preferred dentist
It is essential to have a clear record of which practitioner provided specific treatments for legal and quality assurance purposes.
After crown placement, when should a follow-up radiograph be taken?
1) Within 1 month
2) After 6 months
3) Annually
4) Every 2 years
Annual follow-up radiographs are necessary to monitor the health of the crown and surrounding structures.
Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of Thrombocytopenia secondary to myelosuppressive cancer chemotherapy?
1) Filgrastim
2) Sargramostim
3) Oprelvekin
4) Erythropoietin
Oprelvekin (Interleukin 11) is the only agent approved by the FDA for treatment of thrombocytopenia secondary to myelosuppressive cancer chemotherapy
Filgrastim (G-CSF) and Sargramostim (GM-SCF) are used in the treatment of neutropenia
Erythropoietin is used in treatment of anemia
In root resection (apicoectomy) it is appropriate to
1) remove as little of the root as possible.
2) curette the soft tissue lesion in its entirety.
3) be certain the apex is sealed
4) All of the above.
An apicoectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the apex (tip) of a tooth root along with any associated infected tissue. The goals of the procedure include:
- Remove as little of the root as possible: Preserving as much of the root structure as possible is crucial for maintaining tooth stability and function. Excessive removal can compromise the tooth's integrity.
- Curette the soft tissue lesion in its entirety: It is essential to remove all infected or necrotic tissue to promote healing and prevent recurrence of infection. This ensures that the area is clean and free of any pathological tissue.
- Be certain the apex is sealed: After the apex is resected, it is important to seal the end of the root to prevent bacteria from re-entering the root canal system. This is typically done using a biocompatible material.
What is the most appropriate initial management of a tooth which is sensitive to
percussion but responds normally to electric pulp testing?
1) Pulpectomy.
2) Occlusal assessment.
3) Pulpotomy.
4) Restoration replacement.
Percussion sensitivity may result from occlusal trauma, which can be corrected by adjusting the bite.
Which vitamin deficiency can lead to scurvy, affecting gingival tissues?
1) Vitamin A
2) Vitamin B12
3) Vitamin C
4) Vitamin D
Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by weakened collagen synthesis and can result in bleeding gums and other oral health issues.
The nerve to masseter passes 1. deep to the medial pterygoid muscle 2. posterior to temporomandibular joint 3. superior to zygomatic arch to enter the muscle on its medial surface 4. through the mandibular notch to enter the muscle on its medial surface
Anatomy Answer: 4The nerve to masseter passes through the mandibular notch to enter the muscle on its medial surface
What is the recommended prothrombin time for safe tooth extraction?
1) Less than 20 seconds
2) Within 1½ times the normal prothrombin time
3) Within 2 times the normal prothrombin time
4) More than 25 seconds
Extraction can be done if the prothrombin time is less than or equal to 1½ times the normal range to ensure adequate blood clotting.
What is the first step in the standard precautions for infection control in
dental settings?
1) Hand hygiene
2) Use of personal protective equipment
3) Sterilization of instruments
4) Environmental cleaning and disinfection
Hand hygiene is the most important and basic step in infection
control. It involves washing hands with soap and water or using an alcohol-based
hand sanitizer before and after patient contact to reduce the risk of
transmitting infections.
Which of the following statements about muscle fibers is correct?
1) The A band is made of Myosin
2) Troponin combines with calcium
3) Troponin has I, T, and C subcomponents
4) All of the above
All the statements are correct.
What is the purpose of using a biosafety cabinet during dental procedures?
1) To protect the patient from infection
2) To protect the dental staff from infection
3) To protect the environment from infection
4) To protect the instruments from contamination
A biosafety cabinet is used in the dental setting to protect the dental staff from infection by minimizing exposure to aerosols and splatter generated during procedures. It does not directly protect the patient or the environment but is part of a larger infection control strategy.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors reduce blood pressure by:
1) Increasing heart rate
2) Blocking calcium channels
3) Inhibiting angiotensin II formation
4) Blocking aldosterone receptors
ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, reducing vasoconstriction and lowering blood pressure.
What are dental records primarily used for?
1) For diagnosing dental problems
2) For treatment planning and patient management
3) For identification in forensic cases
4) All of the above
Dental records serve multiple purposes in dentistry. They are used for diagnosing dental problems based on past treatments and conditions. They are also essential for treatment planning, as they document a patient's dental and medical history, which helps dentists determine the best course of action for their care. Additionally, dental records can be used to identify individuals in forensic cases, particularly when other methods of identification are not possible.
What does muscle resistance to insulin in obesity and genetic profile usually
lead to?
1) Type I diabetes
2) Type 2 diabetes
3) Hyperpigmentation
4) Depression
Muscle resistance to insulin in obesity and genetic profile usually leads to type 2 diabetes. This is because insulin resistance occurs when the muscle cells do not respond properly to insulin, resulting in elevated blood sugar levels. Obesity and genetic factors can contribute to the development of insulin resistance, leading to the progression of type 2 diabetes. Hyperpigmentation and depression are not directly related to muscle resistance to insulin in obesity and genetic profile.
What is the difference between incipient and cavitated lesions?
1) Incipient lesions are white and cavitated lesions are brown
2) Incipient lesions are brown and cavitated lesions are white
3) Incipient lesions are reversible and cavitated lesions are irreversible
4) Incipient lesions are always cavitated
Incipient lesions are the earliest stages of enamel demineralization and can be reversed with fluoride and remineralization, whereas cavitated lesions involve a break in the enamel surface and require restorative treatment.
Jugular venous pressure is best described as:
1) Pulse pressure
2) 10 mmHg more than ventricular pressure
3) 10 mmHg less than ventricular pressure
4) 20 mmHg more than ventricular pressure
Jugular venous pressure reflects the pressure within the right atrium and is generally about 10 mmHg less than the pressure in the ventricles.
What is the most common type of dental radiograph used in a routine dental
check-up?
1) Panoramic x-ray
2) Bitewing x-ray
3) Periapical x-ray
4) Dental CT scan
Bitewing x-rays are the most commonly used radiographs in a routine dental check-up. They show the crowns of the upper and lower teeth and help dentists detect decay between the teeth and changes in bone density caused by gum disease. While panoramic x-rays and periapical x-rays provide valuable information, they are typically used for more specific diagnostic purposes. Dental CT scans are more advanced and not typically used in routine exams due to their higher radiation exposure and cost.
Optimum strength of alginate gels is obtained by using 1. small amounts of potassium sulfated 2. recommended W/P ratio 3. cold water for mixing 4. hot water for mixing
Dental Material Answer: 2Optimum strength of alginate gels is obtained by recommended W/P ratio
Supracrestal fibrotomy is done after correction of:
1) Crowding
2) Proclined incisors
3) Severely rotated teeth
4) Space closure
Solution Circumferential supracrestal fibrotomy (CSF) eliminates the pull of the stretched supracrestal gingival fibres which are the major cause of orthodontic relapse.
What enzyme assists microorganisms when they are causing dentine caries?
1) Collagenase
2) Enolase
3) Lactoferrin
4) Amylase
Enolase is involved in the glycolytic pathway of bacteria, aiding in their metabolism and contributing to the caries process.
For anterior teeth restorations, which type of material is preferred due to its esthetics?
1) Amalgam
2) Glass ionomer
3) Composite resin
4) Dental cement
Composite resin is preferred for anterior teeth restorations due to its superior esthetic qualities, allowing for natural color matching.
A patient with a recent complete denture has an ulcer in the buccal sulcus. What is the likely cause?
A. Incorrect occlusion
B. Denture stability
C. Overextended flange
D. Material reaction
An ulcer in the buccal sulcus of recent denture wearers is often a result of overextended denture flanges irritating the soft tissues, leading to ulceration.
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) The pain usually lasts for a few seconds up to a minute in the early stages of the disease
2) The pain is usually unilateral
3) Patients characteristically have sites on the skin that, when stimulated, precipitate an attack of pain
4) An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the forehead
ADC Test Answer: 4
While trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by paroxysmal pain, it is not typically associated with sweating in the forehead region.
Which of the following factors contributes to increased xerostomia in elderly
patients?
1) Increased salivary gland function
2) Systemic medications
3) Higher water intake
4) Increased oral hydration
Many medications taken by older adults, such as antihypertensives
and antidepressants, can lead to reduced saliva production, resulting in
xerostomia.
The effects of hypoglycemia is marked by
1) Warfarin
2) Beta blockers
3) Calcium channel blockers
4) Amino glycosides
Beta blockers
Hypoglycemia can occur with beta-blockade because b2- adrenoceptors normally stimulate hepatic glycogen breakdown (glycogenolysis) and pancreatic release of glucagon, which work together to increase plasma glucose.
Why do patients with heart failure bleed easily, and how should such bleeding be managed?
1) They have lower blood pressure
2) They are usually on blood thinners
3) They have a higher platelet count
4) They undergo frequent surgeries
Patients with heart failure often take anticoagulants like aspirin or warfarin to prevent thromboembolic events.
What is the most commonly used topical anesthetic in dentistry?
1) Lidocaine
2) Benzocaine
3) Articaine
4) Procaine
Benzocaine is frequently used as a topical anesthetic in dentistry due to its effectiveness and rapid onset of action.
A wound to the posterior left axillary line, between the ninth and tenth rib, and extending approximately 5 cm deep, will most likely damage which organ?
1) Ascending colon
2) Duodenum
3) Left kidney
4) Spleen
The spleen follows the long axes of ribs 9 to 11 and lies mostly posterior to the stomach, above the colon, and partly anterior to the kidney.
Most of the duodenum (choice 2) is positioned too far to the right to be affected by this injury.
Even the third part of the duodenum, which runs from right to left, would still be out of harm's way. In addition, the duodenum lies at about levels L1 to L3, placing it too low to be injured in this case.
The superior pole of the left kidney (choice 3) is bordered by the lower part of the spleen. However, it is crossed by rib 12 and usually does not extend above rib 11. It would probably be too low and medial to be injured in this case because this penetration is at the posterior axillary line.
Which of the following statements about informed consent is true?
1) It is
only necessary for surgical procedures.
2) It must always be documented in writing.
3) It is a one-time process that does not require updates.
4) It should be tailored to the individual patient's needs and understanding.
;Informed consent should be personalized to ensure that the patient fully understands the information relevant to their treatment.
'Programme Operation' in Community health care is same as:
1) Treatment
2) Approval
3) Treatment Planning
4) Diagnosis
In community health care, "Programme Operation" refers to the implementation and
execution of various health programs and interventions. This includes providing
treatment to individuals, ensuring that approved protocols and guidelines are
followed, planning and organizing treatment strategies, and diagnosing health
conditions. Therefore, "Programme Operation" can be equated to the concept of
treatment in community health care.
What is the depth of topical anesthesia?
1) 1 mm
2) 2 mm
3) 3 mm
4) 4 mm
Topical anesthesia typically penetrates to a depth of about 2 mm, providing localized pain relief for procedures involving the mucosa.
What’s the percentage of individuals over 25 years old with periodontitis in the UK?
1) 30%
2) 50%
3) 64%
4) 75%
Approximately 64% of individuals over 25 years old in the UK are affected by periodontitis, highlighting the prevalence of periodontal disease.
What is the best treatment option for replacing a missing lateral incisor?
1) Fixed partial denture
2) Removable partial denture
3) Dental implant
4) Orthodontic treatment
A dental implant is often the best option for replacing a missing lateral incisor, providing a stable and aesthetic solution.
At what stage of development does the parotid gland form in utero?
1) 20-30 days
2) 30-40 days
3) 40-44 days
4) 50-60 days
The parotid gland begins to develop around 40-44 days in utero, which is approximately 1.5 months.
Not a physical property of propofol:
1) Water based preparation
2) Colour of the solution is white
3) It contains egg lecithin
4) Used as 2% strength
Propofol is oil based preparation containing soybean oil, egg lecithin and
glycerol. The colour is milky white' AND AVAILABLE AS 1 % AND 2% STRENGTH.
What is the best approach to ensure the cooperation of a patient with autism spectrum disorder during dental treatment?
1) Sticking strictly to a predefined treatment schedule
2) Providing a structured and predictable environment
3) Using bright, flashing lights in the operatory
4) Asking the patient to hold their mouth open without support
Patients with autism may benefit from a structured environment with minimal sensory stimulation.
Cardio stable anaesthetic:
1) Etomidate
2) Propadanil
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopental
Etomidate is known for its cardiovascular stability.
What type of sedation is preferred for a patient with a severe gag reflex?
1) Oral
2) Topical
3) Inhalation or IM/IV
4) None
For patients with a severe gag reflex, sedation methods that provide deeper relaxation, such as inhalation sedation or intramuscular/intravenous (IM/IV) sedation, are preferred to help manage anxiety and facilitate treatment.
Which muscles are primarily used in swallowing?
1) Masseter and temporalis
2) Genioglossus and palatoglossus
3) Buccinator and orbicularis oris
4) Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius
The genioglossus and palatoglossus muscles play significant roles in the swallowing process by controlling the position of the tongue and the soft palate.
You are interested in finding out what the risk indicators are for a rare form of oral cancer. What type of study would be the most appropriate for addressing this issue?
1) Cohort
2) Prevalence study
3) Clinical trial
4) Case-control study
A case-control study is ideal for investigating risk factors for rare diseases, as it compares individuals with the disease to those without.
Apart from a dentigerous cyst, which other lesions are associated with the absence of teeth?
1) Adenomatous odontogenic tumor
2) Keratocyst
3) Ameloblastoma
4) Calcifying odontogenic tumor
5) All of the above
All these lesions can be associated with the absence of teeth, either due to their developmental nature or their impact on the surrounding structures.
What is the primary goal of behavioral management techniques in treating anxious patients in dentistry?
1) To eliminate all signs of anxiety
2) To reduce the patient's anxiety to a level where dental treatment can be performed comfortably
3) To induce sleep during the procedure
4) To replace the patient's fear with positive emotions
The main objective of behavioral management is to create a relaxed and cooperative atmosphere, making it possible to conduct the necessary dental procedures without causing undue distress.
What is the primary goal of a dentist when treating a patient with a history of abuse or neglect?
1) To provide comprehensive dental care
2) To determine the cause of the patient's injuries
3) To provide psychological support and referrals
4) To gather evidence for legal proceedings
The primary goal of a dentist is to provide the best possible dental treatment to their patients, while also being sensitive to their history.
Which cells are found in hepatic stomatitis?
1) Lymphocytes
2) Monocytes
3) Neutrophils
4) Macrophages
Neutrophils are typically present in hepatic stomatitis, indicating an acute inflammatory response, while multinucleate giant cells may also be observed in conditions like herpes labialis.
Hypochromic anemia is associated with
1) iron deficiency.
2) aminopyrine therapy.
3) vitamin B12 deficiency.
4) folic acid deficiency.
Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by small (microcytic), pale
(hypochromic) red blood cells due to inadequate hemoglobin synthesis.
Common causes include poor dietary intake, chronic blood loss, or malabsorption.
The primary purpose of surgical therapy for the treatment of periodontitis is to:
1) Apically position the flap.
2) Eliminate periodontal pockets.
3) Remove the ulcerated epithelium of the periodontal pocket.
4) Improve access for removal of local etiologic factors.
Periodontics Answer: 4
Explanation: Surgical
therapy aims to provide better access to
subgingival deposits, ensuring thorough removal
of calculus and bacteria.
What does a rest seat refer to in RPD design?
1) A removable part of the denture
2) A prepared tooth surface for the rest to fit
3) A framework supporting teeth
4) A type of occlusal contact
A rest seat is the prepared surface on the tooth that accommodates the rest, providing a stable support.
Do we need to change the antibiotic dose for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis taking 15 mg of prednisolone for dental treatment of a dental abscess?
1) Yes, increase the dose
2) Yes, decrease the dose
3) No, no change needed
4) Consult a specialist before proceeding
For patients on corticosteroids such as prednisolone (15 mg daily), there is typically no need to adjust the dose of antibiotics used for dental procedures.
What is the relationship between fluoride concentration and dental caries
resistance?
1) Low fluoride levels lead to greater resistance.
2) High fluoride levels lead to greater resistance.
3) There is no relationship between fluoride and caries resistance.
4) Fluoride levels do not affect caries resistance.
Higher fluoride levels can lead to the formation of fluorapatite, which is more resistant to acid attack than hydroxyapatite, thereby reducing the risk of dental caries.
What is the primary feature of the double-blind method in clinical trials?
1) Both the patient and the researcher know the treatment being administered.
2) Only the patient knows the treatment being administered.
3) Neither the patient nor the researcher knows the treatment being administered.
4) The researcher knows the treatment, but the patient does not.
The double-blind method is designed to eliminate bias by ensuring that neither the participants nor the researchers know which treatment is being given, thus maintaining the integrity of the study.
What is the recommended fluoride treatment for a geriatric patient with high
caries risk?
1) Fluoride toothpaste only
2) Fluoride varnish
3) Systemic fluoride supplements
4) No fluoride treatment
Fluoride varnish is effective in reducing caries risk and is
particularly useful for geriatric patients due to its ease of application and
retention on teeth.
Which immunoglobulin exists as both a monomer and a dimer?
1) IgG
2) IgM
3) IgE
4) IgA
Immunoglobulin A (IgA) is unique because it can exist both in a monomeric form found in serum and as a dimer (secretory IgA) predominant in mucosal areas.
The recommended level of fluoride in drinking water for temperate climate zones
is 1 ppm. This level is considered optimal for preventing tooth decay and
promoting dental health. It is important to maintain the right balance of
fluoride in drinking water as too little fluoride may not provide the desired
benefits, while too much fluoride can lead to dental fluorosis, a condition that
causes discoloration and damage to tooth enamel. Therefore, 1 ppm is the
recommended level to ensure the right amount of fluoride for dental health.
During eruption of permanent teeth, alveolar bone is resorbed and deposited intermittently
Which area should be checked for lacerations in patients with suspected mandibular fractures, particularly those with facial hair? 1) Submental area 2) Nasal septum 3) Buccal mucosa 4) Frontal sinus
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 1Lacerations in the submental area (under the chin) can be missed in patients with significant facial hair. This area should be carefully examined for any signs of trauma, especially in patients with mandibular fractures.
Which of the following is the first drug to be prescribed in status asthmaticus?
1) Salbutamol
2) Humidified oxygen inhalation
3) Hydrocortisone hemisuccinate
4) Sodium bicarbonate infusion
Pharmacology Answer: 3
Status asthmaticus/Refractory asthma Any patient of asthma is susceptible to develop acute severe asthma which may be life-threatening.
(i) Hydrocortisone hemisuccinate 100 mg (or equivalent dose of another glucocorticoid) i.v. stat, followed by 100-200 mg 4-8 hourly infusion; may take upto 6 hours to act.
(ii) Nebulized salbutamol (2.5-5 mg) + ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg) intermittent inhalations driven by O2 .
(iii) High flow humidified oxygen inhalation
(iv) Salbutamol/terbutaline 0.4 mg i.m./s.c. may be added since inhaled drug might not get to smaller bronchi owing to severe narrowing/plugging with secretions
(v) Intubation and mechanical ventilation if needed
(vi) intensive antibiotic therapy to be used for treating chest infection
(vii) Treat dehydration and acidosis with saline + sod. Bicarbonate/lactate infusion.
The point at which a stress of a material exhibits a specific limited deviation P Is called
1) Proportional limit
2) Tensile strength
3) Ultimate strength
4) Yield strength
Yield strength is the stress required to produce plastic deformation.
What’s the percentage of tooth erosion in 6-year-olds and 15-year-olds in the UK?
1) 5-10% and 15-20%
2) 5-52% and 15-27%
3) 10-30% and 20-40%
4) 15-25% and 25-35%
Studies indicate that tooth erosion affects a significant percentage of children, with varying rates between different age groups.
What is the primary purpose of maintaining dental records?
- Billing and insurance claims
- Delivery of quality patient care and follow-up
- Marketing the dental practice
- Personal reference for the dentist
Dental records are primarily kept to ensure continuity of care, facilitate good patient care, and provide a clear history of treatments.
What is the primary goal of periodontal treatment?
1) Removal of all bacteria.
2) Elimination of plaque.
3) Reduction of inflammation.
4) Regeneration of lost tissue.
E. Prevention of further bone loss.
ADC Test Answer: 3
The primary goal of periodontal treatment is to reduce the inflammation in the gum tissues, which in turn helps in controlling the progression of the disease, maintaining tissue health, and preventing further bone loss.
Which class of antihypertensive agents is contraindicated in pregnancy due to risk of fetal harm?
1) Diuretics
2) Calcium channel blockers
3) ACE inhibitors
4) Alpha-blockers
ACE inhibitors are contraindicated during pregnancy because they can harm fetal development.
What is the importance of confidentiality in dental records management?
1) It allows for open communication between dentist and patient
2) It protects the dentist from legal issues
3) It ensures that financial information is secure
4) It is not important
Confidentiality fosters trust and encourages patients to share sensitive information, which is crucial for effective treatment.
For a tooth (84) with deeper caries, the recommended treatment would be:
1) Indirect pulp capping and restoration
2) Pulpotomy and restoration
3) Pulpectomy and restoration
4) Extraction
ADC Test Answer: 3
Due to the depth of decay, a pulpectomy is indicated to remove all affected pulp tissue and disinfect the canal.
What characterizes the action of saliva on dental plaque?
1) It increases plaque pH immediately.
2) It has no effect on plaque acidity.
3) It dilutes and neutralizes plaque acidity.
4) It only coats teeth without affecting pH.
Saliva plays a crucial role in maintaining oral health by diluting and carrying away acid metabolites produced by plaque bacteria, thus helping to neutralize acidity and reduce the risk of caries development.
The chemical nature of bacterial exotoxins is, a lipopolysaccharide complex
The first thing to assess when a patient complains of pain under a denture is:
1) Occlusion
2) Soft tissue changes
3) Fit of the denture
4) Age of denture
ADC Test Answer: 1
Checking occlusion is critical, as occlusal discrepancies can be a primary cause of discomfort under dentures.
Which items should be disposed of in a sharps container?
1) Used gloves
2) Wedges
3) Cotton rolls
4) Plastic syringes
Items like wedges and silicone syringe tips can puncture typical waste bags and must be disposed of in a sharps container to prevent injury and contamination.
What neurotransmitter is responsible for closing pre-capillary sphincters?
1) Acetylcholine
2) Serotonin
3) Nor-adrenaline
4) Substance P
Nor-adrenaline is responsible for vasoconstriction and can close pre-capillary sphincters, regulating blood flow.
Example Test for type IV hypersensitivity:
1) Coagulase test
2) Mantoux test
3) Schick test
4) Elek’s test
A classic example of delayed type IV hypersensitivity is the Mantoux tuberculin test in which skin induration indicates exposure to tuberculosis. This reaction is called "delayed hypersensitivity" because it is mediated by sensitized CD4+ T lymphocytes which process antigens in association with class II HLA molecules and release lymphokines. Hypersensitivity reactions with this mode of action include: Granulomatous diseases (mycobacteria, fungi) Tuberculin skin reactions Transplant rejection Contact dermatitis Cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) mediated responses: CD8+ T cells are generated and lyse specific cells.
The lymphokines promote a reaction (especially mediated through macrophages) beginning in hours but reaching a peak in 2 to 3 days.
-
Neoplastic cell lysis
-
Transplant rejection
-
Virus-infected cell lysis
Increased cerebral O2 consumption is caused by:
1) Propofol
2) Ketamine
3) Atracurium
4) Fentanyl
Ketamine increases cerebral O2 consumption.
A positive and prolonged reaction to a heat stimulus indicates that the pulp is
1) necrotic
2) in an early hyperemic state.
3) normal.
4) irreversibly damaged
A positive and prolonged reaction to a heat stimulus typically indicates that the pulp is irreversibly damaged. This prolonged response suggests that the nerve fibers are still responding to the stimulus, but the damage is significant enough that the pulp is not capable of healing, indicating a need for endodontic treatment.
The oral lesion of warty dsykeratoma is described as a small whitish area of the mucosa with a central depression
What is the significance of the pH buffering capacity of saliva in
preventing dental caries?
1) It does not affect caries formation
2) It prevents the formation of lactic acid
3) It helps to maintain a pH above the critical threshold for demineralization
4) It promotes the formation of enamel
Saliva's buffering capacity helps to counteract the acidity produced by bacterial fermentation of sugars, maintaining a pH above the critical threshold and preventing demineralization.
Which of the following statements is not true regarding sulfonamides:
1) Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT
2) Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide administration
3) Sulfonamide administration to Newborn may cause Kernicterus
4) Sulfonamides are of value in treatment of infections due to Norcardia species
Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT Sulfasalazine is poorly absorbed (10-20%) from the GIT .
All of the following are signs of successful stellate ganglion block, except:
1) Flushing of face
2) Conjunctival congestion
3) Mydriasis
4) Nasal stuffiness
Local Anesthesia Answer: 3
Mydriasis Stellate ganglion block is sympathetic block leading to Horner syndrome, (which includes miosis, ptosis, anhydrosis, enophthalmos), flushing of face, conjunctival congestion nasal stuffiness increased skin temperature and congestion of tympanic membrane.
How often should dental records be updated?
- Annually
- With each appointment
- Only when there is a change in treatment plan
- It depends on the patient's dental insurance
Dental records should be updated at every appointment to reflect the most current information regarding the patient's oral health and treatments.
What percentage of adults in the UK are alcoholics?
1) 3%
2) 5%
3) 10%
4) 15%
Approximately 5% of adults in the UK are classified as alcoholics, indicating a significant public health concern.
When calcospherites fail to fuse during calcification of dentin matrix then
1 Interglobular dentin is formed
2 Dead tracts are found in formed dentin
3 Irregular dentin results
4 None
Sometimes, mineralization of dentin begins in small globular areas that fail to coalesce into a homogenous mass.
These zones are known as globular dentin or interglobular spaces. Thus, demonstrating defect of mineralization and not of matrix formation, the dentinal tubules pass uninterruptedly through interglobular dentin.
Which blood vessels have softer walls?
1) Arteries
2) Veins
3) Arterioles
4) Capillaries
Veins have thinner walls and are more compliant than arteries, allowing them to accommodate varying volumes of blood.
When injecting local solution in the maxilla on the buccal side, the technique is?
1) Intra osseous
2) Supra periosteal
3) Sup mucosal
4) Intra septal
The correct technique for injecting local solution in the maxilla on the buccal side is the supra periosteal technique.
What is the role of dental professionals in preventing abuse and neglect?
1) To provide legal advice to patients
2) To recognize signs and report suspicions
3) To conduct investigations into suspected cases
4) To provide therapy for victims
Dental professionals are trained to recognize signs of abuse and neglect and have a responsibility to report their suspicions to the appropriate authorities.
How long should dental radiographs be retained for adults?
1) 5 years
2) 7 years
3) 11 years
4) 15 years
Dental radiographs for adults should be retained for 11 years per guidelines, ensuring proper follow-up and legal compliance.
What is the percentage of edentulous patients in England and Scotland?
1) 10%
2) 25%
3) 50%
4) 64%
Approximately 64% of adults over 65 years are edentulous in the UK, reflecting the impact of dental health over time.
Patients with which blood pressure range should be encouraged to seek medical consultation despite being able to undergo dental treatment? 1) 110/70 mmHg 2) 120/80 to 140/90 mmHg 3) 180/110 mmHg 4) 160/110 mmHg
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2Patients with blood pressure between 120/80 and 140/90 should be encouraged to consult a doctor, even though dental treatment can proceed.
Which of the following cannot be used to slow down the setting of zinc oxide eugenol impression paste? 1. cooling mixing slab 2. adding a small amount of water 3. adding a small amount of glycerine 4. altering the amounts of the two pastes used
Dental Material Answer: 2a small amount of water acccelerates the setting of zinc oxide eugenol impression paste
What are the predisposing factors for syncope during a dental procedure?
1) High blood pressure
2) Anxiety and fear of needles
3) Severe tooth pain
4) All of the above
Syncope can be triggered by anxiety, fear, and the sight of blood, which lead to increased catecholamine release, decreased peripheral resistance, and lowered blood pressure, causing cerebral ischemia.
The increased venous return to the heart causes: 1. End diastolic volume increase 2. End systolic volume decrease 3. Decrease stroke volume 4. Decreased isovolumetric ventricular contraction.
Physiology Answer: 1The increased venous return to the heart causes End diastolic volume increase
What is the purpose of a progress note in a dental record?
1) To document the patient's current condition and the treatment provided
2) To outline the patient's future treatment needs
3) To communicate with the patient's other healthcare providers
4) To justify the fees charged for services
A progress note is used to record the patient's current condition, any changes observed since the last visit, the treatment provided during the appointment, and the dentist's observations and findings. It is an ongoing part of the patient's clinical record that helps track the patient's oral health over time.
How should a patient's refusal of treatment be documented in the dental record?
- In a separate, sealed envelope
- In the treatment plan section with a notation of refusal
- In the financial section of the record
- It does not need to be documented
Refusal of treatment should be clearly documented in the patient's medical record to ensure that all parties are aware of the decision.
What happens to the pH of the oral cavity after exposure to sugars and acids,
according to the Stephan Curve?
1) It rapidly increases.
2) It remains constant.
3) It rapidly decreases and then gradually recovers.
4) It decreases and does not recover.
The Stephan Curve shows that the oral pH drops quickly after sugar or acid exposure but gradually recovers to a neutral state within 30 minutes due to salivary buffering.
The most pronounced effect on the oral microflora of a reduction in rate of salivary flow is a 1. significant increase in number of oral bacteria 2. shift towards a more acidogenic microflora 3 significant decrease in number of oral bacteria 4 shift towards a more aerobic micro flora
Microbiology Answer: 2The most pronounced effect on the oral microflora of a reduction in rate of salivary flow is a shift towards a more acidogenic microflora
Guiding planes on abutment teeth for a removable partial denture should be prepared before the occlusal rests are prepared in order to:
1) Avoid post-insertion adjustment.
2) Facilitate surveying of the cast.
3) Finalize the location of the occlusal rest.
4) Improve the retention of the direct retainer assembly.
FPD and RPD Answer: 3
Serial extraction:
1) Involves the 4 permanent first premolars.
2) Is the treatment for Class II skeletal malocclusions with severe space shortage.
3) Is commenced with bilateral expansion of the arches.
4) Is best suited to Class I dental and skeletal malocclusions with minimal space shortage.
Oral Surgery Answer: 1Serial extraction primarily targets first premolars to address severe space discrepancies, particularly in patients with crowding in Class I dental relationships.
Which nerve is affected if the tongue deviates to the right when protruded?
1) Right hypoglossal
2) Left hypoglossal
3) Glossopharyngeal
4) Vagus
Deviation of the tongue to the right indicates weakness in the right hypoglossal nerve, which innervates the muscles of the tongue.
For a cast gold restoration, a gingival bevel is used instead of a shoulder
because a bevel
1. Protects the enamel.
2. increases retention.
3. Improves marginal adaptation.
4. Increases the thickness of gold
1) (1) (2) (3)
2) (1) and (3)
3) (2) and (4)
4) (4) only
A gingival bevel is preferred in cast gold restorations because it protects the enamel (1) by reducing the risk of enamel fracture and improves marginal adaptation (3) by allowing for a more favorable angle for the gold to fit against the tooth structure. This results in a better seal and less chance of microleakage, enhancing the longevity of the restoration.
What is the distance of the maxillary sinus from the upper canine?
1) 3.8 mm
2) 6.9 mm
3) 1.9 mm
4) 2.8 mm
The distance from the maxillary sinus to the upper canine is 6.9 mm, which is the greatest distance compared to the premolars and molars.
Contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy is all except:
1) Tumour involving pyriform sinus
2) Vocal cord fixidity
3) Tumour involving the preepiglottic spread
4) Post cricoid area expansion
Pre-epiglottic involvement is not a contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy.
The primary purpose of surgical therapy for the treatment of periodontitis is to
1) apically position the flap.
2) eliminate periodontal pockets.
3) remove the ulcerated epithelium of the periodontal pocket.
4) improve access for removal of local etiologic factors.
Surgical therapy, such as flap surgery, aims to expose root surfaces and deep
periodontal pockets.
This improves visibility and access for scaling, root planning, and debridement,
which are critical for removing the etiologic factors of periodontitis (e.g.,
plaque and calculus.
Eliminating these factors allows tissues to heal and reduces pocket depths.
The most common cause of failure in root canal treatment is:
1) Over-filling the canal
2) Under-filling the canal
3) Instrument breakage
4) Infection during treatment
ADC Test Answer: 2
Inadequate filling of the root canal system allows for persistent infection, making it the leading cause of failure in root canal procedures.
Fastest route of absorption of local anaesthetic is?
1) Intercostal
2) Epidural
3) Brachial
4) Caudal
The fastest route for absorption of LA is intercostal block, due to close location of blood vessel around the nerve, so that is why LA are rapidly taken by in intercostal block.
What is the difference between implied and verbal consent?
1) Implied consent requires no action from the patient, while verbal consent
involves the patient stating their agreement
2) Verbal consent is documented, while implied consent is not
3) Implied consent is for diagnostic procedures, and verbal consent is for
treatments
4) There is no difference between implied and verbal consent
Implied consent is inferred from the patient's passive cooperation, while verbal consent requires the patient to explicitly state their agreement to the proposed treatment.
Patient received a heavy blow to the right body of the mandible sustaining a fracture there. You should suspect a second fracture is most likely to be present in:
1) Symphysis region
2) Left body of the mandible
3) Left sub-condylar region
4) Right sub-condylar region
ADC Test Answer: 3
Due to the mechanics of jaw fractures, a blow to one side may often result in a corresponding fracture on the contralateral sub-condylar region.
What is the primary reason for taking a complete set of diagnostic radiographs for a new patient? 1) To establish a baseline for future comparisons 2) To screen for cavities 3) To assess the patient's overall oral health 4) To plan for a specific treatment
Dental Records Answer: 3Although radiographs are used for various purposes, including detecting cavities and planning treatment, the primary reason for taking a complete set of diagnostic radiographs for a new patient is to assess the patient's overall oral health and identify any underlying conditions that may require attention.
Administration of which among the following anaesthetic agent results in a state of dissociative anaesthesia?
1) Ether
2) Propofol
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopentone sodium
Dissociative Anaesthesia refers to a characteristic state which results after an induction dose of Ketamine. The patient's eyes remain open with a slow nystagmic gaze in Dissociative Anaesthesia. Its major effect is through the inhibition of the NMDA receptor complex.
What is the recommended technique for measuring blood pressure? 1) Patient should cross legs while seated 2) Patient should be seated for at least 5 minutes 3) Inflate the cuff quickly to 100 mmHg 4) Use a stethoscope on the neck artery
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2For accurate blood pressure measurement, the patient should be seated comfortably for at least 5 minutes without crossing their legs.
What type of information should be included in the patient's medical history?
1) Only dental information
2) Only medical information
3) Both dental and medical information
4) Dental, medical, lifestyle, and family history information
A comprehensive medical history should include the patient's dental information, medical conditions, current medications, allergies, and surgeries. Additionally, lifestyle factors such as tobacco and alcohol use, and family history of diseases can be relevant to the patient's oral health and treatment decisions.
Which type of rest is often used for additional support or indirect retention?
1) Primary rest
2) Secondary rest
3) Occlusal rest
4) Cingulum rest
Secondary or auxiliary rests provide additional support and help in maintaining retention in the RPD.
How much lidocaine is in 3 cartridges of 2% lidocaine?
1) 66 mg
2) 132 mg
3) 44 mg
4) 88 mg
Each cartridge contains 36 mg of lidocaine (1.8 ml x 20 mg/ml), so 3 cartridges contain 108 mg (3 x 36 mg).
Rapid induction of anaesthesia occurs with which of the following inhalational anaesthetics
1. Isoflurane
2. Halothane
3. Desflurane
4. Sevoflurane
less solublity in blood means more rapid induction, however quicker emergence after discontinuing depends upon solublity and redistribution in lipids of body as well
A permanent tooth erupting in the mouth of an 11 years old child is most likely 1. maxillary lateral incisor 2. mandibular second bicuspid 3. maxillary third molar 4. rnandibular central incisor
Dental Anatomy Answer: 2A permanent tooth erupting in the mouth of an 11 years old child is most likely mandibular second bicuspid
MAO inhibitors are contraindicated in a patient taking?
1) Pethidine
2) Buprenorphine
3) Morphine
4) Pentazocine
first choice pethidine Use of MAO inhibitors in patient taking pethidine / pentazocine can precipitate serotonin syndrome.
To minimize fractures of amalgam restorations in primary teeth, cavity
preparations should have
1) concave pulpal floors.
2) rounded axiopulpal line angles.
3) bevelled cavosurface margins.
4) lateral walls parallel to the external surface of the tooth.
Rounded line angles reduce stress concentrations in the amalgam, enhancing its
strength and resistance to fractures.
Digoxin:
1) clearance is by the liver
2) increases conduction of the AV node
3) decreases the force of myocardial contraction
4) may cause atrial tachycardia in overdosage
Digoxin is a positive inotrope, hence it increases the force of myocardial contraction and may be effective in heart failure.
Digoxin has a long half-life and is given once daily. It is cleared by the renal system and hence renal impairment requires the reduction of digoxin dose.
Arrhythmias, such as atrial tachycardia, may be a sign of digoxin toxicity.
Digoxin toxicity is enhanced if there are 67 electrolyte disturbances, especially hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia and hypercalcaemia.
A 65-year-old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The problem that can be anticipated in the routine dental therapy is:
1) Extreme susceptibility to pain
2) Tendency towards prolonged hemorrhage
3) Recurring oral infection
4) Increased tendency to syncope
ADC Test Answer: 2
Severe cirrhosis affects blood clotting abilities, which can lead to increased risk of hemorrhage during dental procedures.
What is the primary cause of enamel hypoplasia?
1) Genetic factors
2) Nutritional deficiencies
3) Environmental factors
4) All of the above
Enamel hypoplasia can result from a combination of genetic, nutritional, and environmental factors affecting tooth development.
A 4 year old has generalized bone loss, mobile teeth and generalized calculus.
Which condition should NOT be included in the differential diagnosis?
1) Cyclic neutropenia
2) Papillon-Lefevre syndrome.
3) Chediak-Higashi syndrome.
4) Crouzon syndrome.
Crouzon syndrome is associated with craniofacial abnormalities, not generalized
bone loss or periodontal issues.
Crouzon syndrome is caused by a mutation in the FGFR2 gene, which is important for bone formation
Which legislation governs the processing of personal data, including dental records, in the UK?
1) Health and Social Care Act 2008
2) Data Protection Act 2018
3) Access to Health Records Act 1990
4) NHS Records Management Code of Practice
The Data Protection Act 2018 supplements the GDPR and outlines the conditions for processing personal data, including health-related data.
What immunoglobulin is predominantly associated with mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)?
1) IgG
2) IgA
3) IgM
4) IgE
IgA is the predominant immunoglobulin associated with mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT).
What is the primary reason for taking a complete set of diagnostic radiographs for a new patient?
- To establish a baseline for future comparisons
- To screen for cavities
- To assess the patient's overall oral health
- To plan for a specific treatment
Although radiographs are used for various purposes, including detecting cavities and planning treatment, the primary reason for taking a complete set of diagnostic radiographs for a new patient is to assess the patient's overall oral health and identify any underlying conditions that may require attention.
What is the advantage of digital dental records over traditional paper records?
1) They are more environmentally friendly
2) They are easier to store and retrieve
3) They can be easily shared with other healthcare providers
4) They reduce the risk of loss or damage
Digital dental records are stored electronically, which makes them easier to store, retrieve, and organize compared to paper records.
Which of the following calcium channel blockers is commonly used to treat hypertension?
1) Losartan
2) Nifedipine
3) Furosemide
4) Clonidine
Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used in hypertension, while Losartan is an ARB, Furosemide is a diuretic, and Clonidine is a central alpha2-agonist.
Sterilization of carious dentin without pulp injury is assured by the
application of
1) phenol.
2) 70% ethyl alcohol.
3) chlorhexidine.
4) None of the above.
Sterilizing carious dentin while preserving pulp vitality is a delicate balance:
- Phenol: While it has antibacterial properties, it can be toxic to pulp tissue and is not recommended for use in vital pulp therapy.
- 70% ethyl alcohol: This concentration is effective for disinfection but can also cause dehydration and damage to pulp tissue.
- Chlor hexidine: Although it is an effective antimicrobial agent, it may not be suitable for direct application on carious dentin close to the pulp due to potential cytotoxic effects.
- Absolute alcohol: This can cause desiccation and damage to the pulp tissue, making it unsuitable for use in this context.
What is the most appropriate first-line investigation for suspected mandibular fractures? 1) MRI 2) Orthopantomogram 3) CT scan 4) Lateral cephalogram
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 2The orthopantomogram (OPG) is the first-line radiographic investigation for suspected mandibular fractures. It provides a panoramic view of the mandible, making it ideal for fracture assessment.
What is the most common microorganism associated with root surface caries?
1) Actinomyces viscosus.
2) Streptococcus mutans.
3) Streptococcus salivarius.
4) Lactobacillus acidophilus.
ADC Test Answer: 1
Actinomyces viscosus is often associated with root surface caries due to its ability to adhere to and colonize the root surface under conditions of reduced salivary flow and increased carbohydrate exposure.
Which of the following is contraindicated in hypertensive patients for gingival retraction?
1) Plain retraction cord
2) Adrenalin-impregnated cord
3) Saline solution
4) None of the above
Adrenalin-impregnated cords can cause significant blood pressure spikes, which are risky in hypertensive patients.
Informed consent for geriatric patients should consider:
1) Only the patient/’s preferences
2) The patient/’s cognitive function and capacity
3) Family members’ opinions exclusively
4) Standard treatment protocols
The patient/’s cognitive function and capacity
Explanation: It is crucial to assess a geriatric patient's cognitive function to
ensure they can give informed consent, recognizing that some patients may have
diminished capacity due to age-related cognitive decline.
In the extended ecological caries hypothesis, what is the primary
factor that influences microbial adaptation and selection in the dental biofilm?
1) The presence of fermentable carbohydrates.
2) Environmental acidification.
3) The host's immune response.
4) The availability of oxygen.
The extended ecological caries hypothesis posits that acidic environments created by dietary sugars and acids are the main drivers for microbial adaptation and selection in the dental biofilm, particularly favoring the growth of aciduric and acidogenic bacteria like mutans streptococci.
A removable partial denture rest should be placed on the lingual surface of a canine rather than on the incisal surface because:
1) Less leverage is exerted against the tooth by the rest.
2) The enamel is thicker on the lingual surface.
3) Visibility and access are better.
4) The cingulum of the canine provides a natural recess that does not need to be prepared.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1Lingual rests provide better mechanical advantage by minimizing leverage and torque forces on the abutment teeth, preserving their health and stability.
What is the significance of obtaining informed consent and documenting it in a patient's record?
- It serves as legal proof of the treatment provided
- It is a requirement for insurance reimbursement
- It demonstrates that the patient has understood and agreed to the proposed treatment plan
- It is a mandatory step for all types of dental treatments
Informed consent is critical in dentistry as it ensures that patients are fully aware of their treatment options, the potential risks, and the benefits before making a decision.
Which of the following is considered a biological hazard in a dental practice? 1) Chemical spills 2) Noise from dental equipment 3) Bloodborne pathogens 4) Ergonomic strain
Occupational Hazards Answer: 3Biological hazards include exposure to infectious agents such as bloodborne pathogens (e.g., HIV, Hepatitis B and 3) that can pose risks to dental professionals.
What is the natural buffer in saliva that helps neutralize acidity and combat
demineralization?
1) Phosphoric acid (H3PO4)
2) Bicarbonate (HCO3-)
3) Carbonic acid (H2CO3)
4) Lactic acid
Saliva contains bicarbonate, which acts as a natural buffer to help maintain oral pH equilibrium and protect against demineralization.
A patient who had epilepsy 10 years ago but is now in control. Which technique will you use?
1) Inhalation sedation
2) IV sedation
3) Carry on with treatment
If the patient's epilepsy is well-controlled, routine dental treatment can proceed without special precautions.