Dentist Abroad
The largest and longest root canal of the maxillary second molar is the 1. lingual 2. mesiobuccal 3. distobuccal 4. distal
Dental Anatomy Answer: 1The largest and longest root canal of the maxillary second molar is the lingual
The canine eminence is 1. associated with the mandibular canine only 2. the labial ridge on the crown of canine 3. an osseous structure surrounding the root of a canine on the facial aspect 4. the prominent ridge on the lingual surface of a maxillary canine
Dental Anatomy Answer: 3The canine eminence is an osseous structure surrounding the root of a canine on the facial aspect
What happens to the solubility of hydroxyapatite when it undergoes carbonate
substitution?
1) It increases
2) It decreases
3) It remains the same
4) It becomes insoluble
Carbonate substitution in hydroxyapatite increases its solubility, making it more susceptible to decay.
Which antihypertensive class includes drugs that may cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect?
1) Beta-blockers
2) ACE inhibitors
3) Calcium channel blockers
4) ARBs
Calcium channel blockers, such as Amlodipine, are associated with gingival hyperplasia.
The gingival aspect of a pontic which touches the alveolar ridge should be:
1) Convex only in the mesiodistal direction.
2) Concave faciolingually and convex mesiodistally.
3) Small and convex in all directions.
4) Fabricated to produce slight tissue compression.
FPD and RPD Answer: 3A small and convex gingival surface facilitates hygiene maintenance and minimizes irritation to the underlying soft tissues.
Which of the following is NOT a component of a comprehensive dental record?
1) Patient medical and dental history
2) Clinical examination findings
3) Treatment plans and consent forms
4) Social security number of the patient's next of kin
E. Financial information
While it's essential to have emergency contact information, including the next of kin, a social security number is not typically considered a necessary part of a comprehensive dental record. The primary components of a comprehensive dental record include the patient's personal and medical/dental history, clinical examination findings, diagnoses, treatment plans, consent forms, and radiographs/images.
Which type of defect is most prevalent?
1) 1-wall defect
2) 2-wall defect
3) 3-wall defect
4) None of the above
One-wall defects, also known as infrabony defects, are indeed the most common type of osseous defects found in periodontal disease. These defects are characterized by the loss of alveolar bone on one side of the tooth root, leaving a bony depression or "cup" that can harbor plaque and bacteria, contributing to the progression of periodontal disease.
What is the primary goal of a dentist when treating a patient with a history of abuse or neglect?
1) To provide comprehensive dental care
2) To determine the cause of the patient's injuries
3) To provide psychological support and referrals
4) To gather evidence for legal proceedings
The primary goal of a dentist is to provide the best possible dental treatment to their patients, while also being sensitive to their history.
Which of the following is a loop diuretic used to manage hypertension?
1) Amiloride
2) Furosemide
3) Chlorothiazide
4) Spironolactone
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine output, thereby lowering blood pressure.
Dry heat sterilization of paper points without incineration is accomplished at 1. 160°C for 2hours 2. 120°C for l hour 3. 100°C for 2 hours 4. 200°C for 1 hour
Microbiology Answer: 1Dry heat sterilization of paper points without incineration is accomplished at 160°C for 2hours
Which of the following is a pharmacologic effects of cocaine:
1) It increases the uptake of catecholamines at adrenergic nerve endings
2) It increases the body temperature
3) It causes bradycardia in large doses
4) It causes tachycardia is small doses
Cocaine releases noradrenaline, adrenaline and dopamine as well as blocks their uptake.
Which type of blood vessel is classified as an elastic artery?
1) Vein
2) Artery
3) Capillary
4) Arteriole
Elastic arteries, such as the aorta, have a high content of elastic fibers, allowing them to stretch and recoil with blood flow.
What are fibrin degradation products (FDPs) indicative of in the context of DIC?
1) Normal coagulation
2) Active fibrinolysis
3) Increased platelets
4) Stable hemostasis
Elevated levels of fibrin degradation products suggest that fibrinolysis is happening in response to excessive clotting activity typical of DIC.
Which of the following is NOT a type of cognitive-behavioral therapy used in managing dental anxiety?
1) Systematic desensitization
2) Guided imagery
3) Dental hypnosis
4) Exposure therapy
While hypnosis can be used in dentistry for pain management and relaxation, it is not typically classified as a form of cognitive-behavioral therapy. Exposure therapy, systematic desensitization, and guided imagery are examples of cognitive-behavioral techniques.
What is the primary function of the palatal cusp of a premolar?
1) Incisal guidance.
2) Lateral support.
3) Anterior guidance.
4) Posterior guidance.
ADC Test Answer: 4
The palatal cusp of a premolar primarily serves as a guide for the opposing molar during lateral excursive movements, providing posterior guidance in the occlusion.
What is the role of Campylobacter rectus in dental biofilm
metabolism?
1) It produces formate and hydrogen gas as metabolic byproducts.
2) It has no role in biofilm formation.
3) It is exclusively an aerobic organism.
4) It utilizes formate and hydrogen gas as energy sources.
Campylobacter rectus is capable of using formate and hydrogen gas as energy sources and electron donors for its metabolic activities, which contributes to its role in dental biofilm ecology and metabolism.
What is the primary cause of suppuration in periodontal disease?
1) Presence of lymphocytes
2) Collection of neutrophils
3) Necrosis
4) Accumulation of tissue fluid
Suppuration is primarily due to the accumulation of neutrophils at the site of infection, which leads to the formation of pus.
What enzyme assists microorganisms in the dentin caries process?
1) Enolase
2) Collagenase
3) Amylase
4) Lactoferrin
Enolase plays a crucial role in the metabolic processes of bacteria involved in dentin caries, facilitating their growth and acid production.
The sulphur containing amino acid is: 1. Cystine 2. Proilne 3. Arginine 4. Isoleucine
Biochemistry Answer: 1Cystine is sulphur containing amino acid
The minimum and maximum temperature for normal metabolic activity microorganisms that live on or within the human body is 1 5°to 30° 2 20° C to 45°C 3. 30°C to 40°C 4. 15°C to 6O°C
Microbiology Answer: 2The minimum and maximum temperature for normal metabolic activity microorganisms that live on or within the human body is 20° C to 45°C
What factor can enhance the bicarbonate-mediated acid-neutralizing effect of saliva?
1) High-fat diet
2) Decreased salivary flow
3) Increased salivary flow
4) Sleep
Increased salivary flow naturally raises bicarbonate levels in the saliva, which helps to neutralize acids in plaque more effectively, protecting against enamel demineralization and promoting oral health.
The placement of a retentive pin in the proximal regions of posterior teeth
would most likely result in periodontal ligament perforation in the
1) mesial of a mandibular first premolar.
2) distal of a mandibular first premolar.
3) distal of a mandibular first molar.
4) mesial of a mandibular first molar.
The mesial aspect of the mandibular first molar is often more prone to periodontal ligament perforation when placing retentive pins due to the anatomy of the tooth and the proximity of the root to the periodontal ligament. The mesial root is typically larger and has a more complex canal system, which can increase the risk of perforation if the pin is not placed carefully.
Which maxillary tooth is most prone to fracture during extraction?
1) Maxillary first molar
2) Maxillary first premolar
3) Maxillary canine
4) Maxillary second premolar
Maxillary second premolars are more likely to fracture due to their two curved and divergent roots.
What should be avoided when documenting patient records?
1) Using clear language
2) Omitting relevant information
3) Keeping records up to date
4) Documenting consent
It is crucial to provide a complete picture of the patient's dental health to ensure proper care and treatment planning.
Choose correct statements about flowable composite:
1) Low modulus of elasticity.
2) Lower filler content.
3) Higher polymerization shrinkage.
4) All of the above.
ADC Test Answer: 4
Flowable composites generally exhibit a low modulus of elasticity, lower filler content, and increased polymerization shrinkage compared to traditional composites, making them suitable for specific applications but requiring careful consideration regarding their use.
Epinephrine causes increased blood glucose level due to: 1. Increased glycogenolysis in liver and muscle 2. Activation of phosphorylase 3. Inhibition of glycogen synthesis in liver
What is the primary histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Acanthosis
2) Acantholysis
3) Hyperkeratosis
4) Dyskeratosis
Acantholysis is the key histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris, leading to the formation of vesicles and ulcers in the oral mucosa.
Only pure hinge movementsof the mandible occur at
1) centric occlusion
2) centric relation
3) lateral exursion
4) terminal hinge position
The functional movements of the mandible are combinations of hinge and glide movements. Within vertical limits, the mandible may make a pure hinge movement without a simultaneous glide. The one relation of the condyle to the fossae in which this pure hinge movement is possible is called terminal hinge position
What is the primary concern during the third trimester of pregnancy?
1) Organogenesis of the fetus
2) The risk of preterm labor
3) Fetal movement
4) The development of the baby's teeth
The third trimester is marked by the secretion of large quantities of steroids into the blood, which can stimulate premature uterine contractions.
A retrograde filling is indicated
1) when the apical foramen cannot be sealed by conventional endodontics.
2) when a root perforation needs to be sealed
3) when conventional endodontics is impractical.
4) All of the above.
Retrograde filling is a procedure used in endodontics to seal the root canal system from the apex when conventional methods are not feasible. This can occur in various situations:
- Apical foramen sealing issues: If the conventional approach fails to adequately seal the apex, a retrograde filling can provide an alternative solution.
- Root perforation: In cases where there is a perforation in the root, retrograde filling can help seal the area and prevent contamination.
- Impracticality of conventional methods: Situations such as complex anatomy or previous failed treatments may necessitate a retrograde approach to ensure proper sealing and treatment success.
Which component of amalgam gives strength?
1) Copper
2) Silver
3) Tin
4) Zinc
Copper enhances the strength and hardness of dental amalgam, making it a critical component in its formulation.
Surface activity and low toxic potential?
1) Cocaine
2) Bupivacaine
3) Benzocaine
4) Procaine
Benzocaine is the correct answer because it has surface activity and low toxic potential.
Which diuretic class is most commonly used as first-line therapy in hypertension?
1) Loop diuretics
2) Thiazide diuretics
3) Potassium-sparing diuretics
4) Aldosterone antagonists
Thiazide diuretics are often the first-line choice in managing hypertension because of their efficacy and fewer side effects.
Clinical examination of a 42 year old heavy smoker reveals a white patch in the retromolar/tonsillar pillar region. The patch cannot be wiped off. The most likely diagnosis is
1) lichen planus.
2) leukoplakia.
3) white sponge nevus.
4) frictional hyperkeratosis.
E. pseudomembranous candidiasis.
Explanation: Leukoplakia is a common oral mucosal lesion that presents as a
white, non-wipable patch or plaque. It is often associated with chronic
irritation, such as that caused by tobacco use. While it is not cancerous,
leukoplakia can be a precancerous condition that requires monitoring for
potential malignant transformation, especially in patients with high-risk
factors like heavy smoking.
Slightly raised vesicles rupturing to form ulcers are a feature of
1) Rubeola
2) Rubella
3) Condyloma acuminatum
4) Chicken pox
Chicken pox presents with multiple dermal lesions characteristically with vesicles, pustules which may secondarily ulcerate
What is the primary ethical concern regarding informed consent in dental
tourism?
1) Cost of treatment
2) Quality of care
3) Patient autonomy and safety
4) Availability of specialists
Informed consent in dental tourism raises ethical concerns about ensuring that patients are fully informed about the risks, benefits, and continuity of care when seeking treatment abroad.
Which of the following is NOT an infrahyoid muscle?
1) Digastric
2) Mylohyoid
3) Geniohyoid
4) Omohyoid
The infrahyoid muscles are the mylohyoid, hyoglossus, stylohyoid,
thyrohyoid, and omohyoid muscles. The infrahyoid muscles are a group of muscles found in the neck that are
situated below the hyoid bone.
2) Mylohyoid: This muscle runs obliquely from the body and greater horn of the
hyoid bone to the inner surface of the mandible. It is involved in elevating the
hyoid bone, which occurs during swallowing and tongue movement.
3) Geniohyoid: The geniohyoid muscle originates from the lower mental spine and
genial tubercle of the mandible and inserts into the body and greater horn of
the hyoid bone. It plays a role in depressing the hyoid bone, which occurs
during swallowing and tongue protrusion.
4) Omohyoid: The omohyoid muscle originates from the scapula and passes upward
and medially to insert into the lower part of the hyoid bone. It also helps in
depressing the hyoid bone and can assist in raising the larynx during
swallowing.
The Digastric muscle is not an infrahyoid muscle. The digastric muscle is
actually a suprahyoid muscle, which means it is located above the hyoid bone. It
has two bellies: the anterior belly originates from the digastric fossa of the
mandible and inserts into the hyoid bone, while the posterior belly originates
from the mastoid process of the temporal bone and inserts into the hyoid bone. The digastric muscle functions in opening the jaw and raising the hyoid bone
during swallowing.
In root resection (apicoectomy) it is appropriate to
1) remove as little of the root as possible.
2) curette the soft tissue lesion in its entirety.
3) be certain the apex is sealed
4) All of the above.
An apicoectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the apex (tip) of a tooth root along with any associated infected tissue. The goals of the procedure include:
- Remove as little of the root as possible: Preserving as much of the root structure as possible is crucial for maintaining tooth stability and function. Excessive removal can compromise the tooth's integrity.
- Curette the soft tissue lesion in its entirety: It is essential to remove all infected or necrotic tissue to promote healing and prevent recurrence of infection. This ensures that the area is clean and free of any pathological tissue.
- Be certain the apex is sealed: After the apex is resected, it is important to seal the end of the root to prevent bacteria from re-entering the root canal system. This is typically done using a biocompatible material.
What is the recommended technique for removing bone during an extraction to prevent bone necrosis?
1) High-speed handpiece with continuous coolant irrigation
2) Chisel and mallet with manual pressure
3) Surgical bone saw
4) Laser bone removal
Using a high-speed handpiece with continuous coolant irrigation allows for precise bone removal and minimizes thermal necrosis of the bone.
What is the significance of the Stephan Curve in dentistry?
1) It illustrates changes in oral pH after sugar exposure.
2) It describes the process of remineralization.
3) It indicates the types of bacteria present in the mouth.
4) It shows the composition of saliva.
The Stephan Curve describes how the pH of the oral cavity changes in response to sugar and acid exposure over time.
Rapid induction of anaesthesia occurs with which of the following anaesthetic:
1) Isoflurane
2) Halothane
3) esflurane
4) Sevoflurane
Desflurane has the lowest blood gas partition coefficient of 0.42, so has fastest induction and recovery.
The alpha-1 function post-synaptically at the neuromuscular junction
is responsible for:
1) Smooth muscle contraction
2) Skeletal muscle contraction
3) Cardiac muscle contraction
4) Inhibition of muscle contraction
Alpha-1 receptors mediate the contraction of skeletal muscles.
Typical features of Down’s syndrome (Mongolism) do not include:
1) Multiple immunodeficiencies
2) Severe caries but minimal periodontal disease
3) Susceptibility to infections
4) Multiple missing teeth and malocclusion
ADC Test Answer: 2
Individuals with Down syndrome often exhibit a higher incidence of periodontal disease rather than minimal periodontal issues.
What is the purpose of the American with Disabilities Act (ADA) as it relates to dental care?
1) To set minimum standards for accessibility in dental offices
2) To require dentists to provide free care to patients with disabilities
3) To mandate that all dental procedures must be performed under general anesthesia for patients with special needs
4) To establish a government-funded program for special needs dentistry
The ADA requires that dental offices provide equal access to care for individuals with disabilities.
If a cut is made below the cricoid cartilage, which structure might be injured?
1) Inferior laryngeal nerve
2) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
3) Superior laryngeal nerve
4) Both A and B
The recurrent laryngeal nerve runs below the cricoid cartilage and
supplies all the intrinsic laryngeal muscles except for the cricothyroid muscle,
which is supplied by the superior laryngeal nerve. Inferior laryngeal nerve (which supplies the cricothyroid muscle) Recurrent laryngeal nerve (which supplies all other intrinsic laryngeal
muscles except the cricothyroid muscle)
Internal resorption is:
1) Radiolucency over unaltered canal
2) Usually in response to trauma
3) Radiopacity over unaltered canal
4) Associated with carious lesions
ADC Test Answer: 2
Internal resorption occurs due to trauma or other factors that stimulate the pulp, leading to resorption of the dentin from within, resulting in a characteristic appearance.
Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication that functions as a:
1) Vasodilator
2) ACE inhibitor
3) Beta-blocker
4) Calcium channel blocker
Hydralazine is a direct vasodilator that helps reduce blood pressure by relaxing vascular smooth muscle.
An unstable membrane potential that will spontaneously depolarize is a property of which type of muscle? 1. Cardiac only 2. Cardiac and smooth 3. Skeletal and smooth 4. Skeletal and cardiac
Physiology Answer: 2An unstable membrane potential that will spontaneously depolarize is a property of Cardiac and smooth muscles
Prothrombin production in the liver is dependent upon an adequate dietary supply of 1 Vitamin A 2 Vitamin E 3 Vitamin K 4 None of the above
Biochemistry Answer: 3Prothrombin production in the liver is dependent upon Vitamin K intake
Which behavior should a dentist encourage to help reduce anxiety in patients?
1) Withholding information about the procedure
2) Encouraging patients to express their fears
3) Telling jokes unrelated to the procedure
4) Dismissing the patient's concerns as minor
Allowing patients to voice their concerns creates a supportive environment and can help alleviate anxiety.
A 22-year-old woman presents with acute gingival hypertrophy and spontaneous bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1) Myelogenous leukaemia
2) Infectious mononucleosis
3) Thrombocytopenic purpura
4) Gingivitis of local aetiological origin
The symptoms and blood analysis suggest a hematological disorder, with myelogenous leukaemia being a strong possibility.
What is Sunday bite related to?
1) Angle’s class I with anterior open bite
2) Angle’s class I with anterior deep bite and posterior cross bite (unilateral)
3) Angle’s class II
4) Angle’s class III
SOLUTION Children and adults with a skeletal Class II relationship and an underlying skeletal Class II jaw relationship position the mandible forward in a “Sunday bite,” making the occlusion look better than it really is.
Cardio stable anaesthetic:
1) Etomidate
2) Propadanil
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopental
Etomidate is known for its cardio stability, making it a preferred choice in patients with cardiovascular issues.
What is a primary rest?
1) Additional support for indirect retention
2) The rest part of a direct retainer
3) A support for the denture base
4) A type of occlusal contact
A primary rest is part of the direct retainer that provides essential support in an RPD.
What is the role of lactoferrin in the prevention of dental caries?
1) It produces fluoride
2) It binds to iron, inhibiting bacterial enzymes
3) It forms a protective layer on the tooth surface
4) It produces bicarbonate
Lactoferrin is a protein in saliva that binds to iron, making it unavailable for bacterial enzymes that require iron to function, thus inhibiting their growth and acid production.
What is the recommended position for a pregnant patient during oral surgery to avoid pressure on the inferior vena cava?
1) Supine position
2) Semi-reclined position
3) Sitting position
4) Left lateral position
The patient should be placed in the left lateral position to reduce pressure on the inferior vena cava and ensure adequate venous return, preventing hypotension.
What is the danger zone in dental surgery?
1) The area around the maxilla
2) The region of the face where infections could pass to the cavernous sinus
3) The area around the mandible
4) The region of the neck
The danger zone is a triangular area of the face where infections can spread to the cavernous sinus, posing serious health risks.
All of the following statements are true regarding the cephalosporin antibiotics except 1. they are bactericidal 2. they are ineffective against gram negative microorganisms 3. they are potentially cross allergenic with penicillin 4. they are resistant to penicillinase
Pharmacology Answer: 2cephalosporin are bactericidal, are potentially cross allergenic with penicillin, resistant to penicillinase
Ultrashort acting blocker most commonly used in anaesthesia is:
1) Esmolol
2) Nadolol
3) Propranolol
4) Atenolol
Esmolol is metabolized by RBC esterase, making it very short-acting with a half-life of only 8-10 minutes.
A zinc-containing amalgam that has been contaminated by moisture will manifest A. higher setting expansion B. a gross delayed expansion C. reduced compressive strength D. an increase in the amount of gamma phase 1. A and B 2. B and C 3. C 4. C and D
Dental Material Answer: 2A zinc-containing amalgam that has been contaminated by moisture will result in delayed expansion and reduced compressive strength
Which of the following cannot be used to slow down the setting of zinc oxide eugenol impression paste? 1. cooling mixing slab 2. adding a small amount of water 3. adding a small amount of glycerine 4. altering the amounts of the two pastes used
Dental Material Answer: 2a small amount of water acccelerates the setting of zinc oxide eugenol impression paste
What is the primary cause of a dry socket?
1) Infection
2) Clot dislodgment
3) Blood vessel damage
4) Bone necrosis
Dry socket occurs when the blood clot in the tooth socket is dislodged, exposing the bone and causing pain.
Two important factors for initiation of caries by oral streptococci are 1 production of glucosyl transferase and synthesis of insoluble dextran 2. production of acid and production or protease 3. production of collagenase and pro- duct ion of hyaluronidase 4. fermentation of mannitol and sorbitol and production of protease.
Microbiology Answer: 1Two important factors for initiation of caries by oral streptococci are production of glucosyl transferase and synthesis of insoluble dextran
What is the primary purpose of maintaining accurate dental records according to the GDC?
- To ensure patient care and safety
- To facilitate communication among dental professionals
- To meet legal and regulatory requirements
- To support marketing and advertising efforts
The General Dental Council (GDC) emphasizes that the primary function of dental records is to ensure patient care and safety.
Ketamine is contraindicated in
1) Hypertension
2) Raised intracranial tension
3) Raised intraocular tension
4) All of the above
a. Ketamine raises both systolic and diastolic blood pressures and is thus
contraindicated in hypertension.
b. Ketamine increases cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure and is thus
contraindicated in raised intracranial tension
c. Ketamine raises intraocular tension and is thus contraindicated in glaucoma.
Ante’s Law states that:
1) The pericemental area of the abutment teeth must exceed that of the replaced tooth
2) The abutments must be anatomically similar to the replaced tooth
3) The root length of abutments should be equal to the replaced tooth
4) There should be no mobility in abutment teeth
ADC Test Answer: 1
Ante's Law asserts that the combined periodontal support of the abutment teeth must be greater than that of the teeth being replaced to ensure stability.
Which immunoglobulin increases in gingival inflammation?
1) IgA
2) IgM
3) IgG
4) IgE
IgG levels increase in response to gingival inflammation, indicating an immune response to periodontal pathogens.
Which cement is more susceptible to failure if contaminated with saliva?
1) Resin cement
2) Glass ionomer cement
3) Zinc phosphate cement
4) Glass ionomer cement (GIC)
GIC is particularly sensitive to contamination with saliva, which can compromise its bonding ability.
The cricothyroid artery is a branch of the 1. occipital artery 2. superior thyroid artery 3. facial artery 4. superficial temporal artery
Anatomy Answer: 2The cricothyroid artery is a branch of the superior thyroid artery
In which type of mandibular fracture is there commonly associated bilateral condyle fractures? 1) Coronoid fracture 2) Parasymphysis fracture 3) Guardsman’s fracture 4) Ramus fracture
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 3A Guardsman’s fracture involves a true symphyseal fracture in combination with bilateral condyle fractures, typically resulting from a fall onto the chin, driving the condyles into their fossae.
What does Stephan's curve primarily represent?
1) Change in pH of saliva over time
2) Change in pH of plaque over time
3) Change in pH of saliva with sugar intake
4) Change in pH of blood with exercise
Stephan's curve illustrates how the pH of dental plaque changes over time following sugar intake.
Which type of bridge is not ideal for posterior cantilever due to heavy
occlusal forces?
1) Single retainer cantilever
2) Multiple-splinted abutment
3) Cantilever with two abutment teeth
4) Fixed-fixed bridge
a single retainer cantilever is not ideal for posterior cantilever due to heavy occlusal forces, which can cause increased stress on the abutment tooth.
A man who smokes 2 packets of cigarettes a day and drinks would have an increased risk of developing oral cancer of:
1) 11 times
2) 13 times
3) 47 times
4) 25 times
Smoking and alcohol consumption significantly increase the risk of oral cancer, with studies showing a risk increase of up to 47 times for heavy users.
A 64-year-old patient with a history of metastatic breast cancer presents with loose teeth, dental pain, and swollen gums. What is the most likely causative agent?
1) Osteonecrosis of the left mandible
2) Long-term use of bisphosphonates
3) Osteomyelitis
4) Periodontal disease
Patients on long-term bisphosphonates for metastatic cancer are at risk for osteonecrosis of the jaw, which can present with loose teeth and swelling.
What is the typical sequence of events during the eruption of a permanent tooth?
1) Resorption of the overlying alveolar bone, followed by movement of the tooth through the gum tissue.
2) Resorption of the deciduous tooth root, followed by movement of the permanent tooth into the socket.
3) Inflammation of the gum tissue, followed by resorption of the deciduous tooth crown.
4) Movement of the tooth through the gum tissue, followed by resorption of the deciduous tooth root.
ADC Test Answer: 2
Eruption of a permanent tooth involves the resorption of the primary tooth root, allowing the permanent tooth to move into the correct position within the alveolar bone.
Which of the following drug can be accumulated in foetus in very significant amount if given to pregnant mother:
1) Thiopentone
2) Propofol
3) Midazolam
4) Lignocaine
Local Anesthesia Answer: 4
Lignocaine Local anaesthetic and opioids are bases.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the attachment of the mylohyoid muscle?
1) It attaches superiorly at the lateral border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid.
2) It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the lesser horn of the hyoid
3) It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the greater horn of the hyoid
4) It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid
It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid
What fluoride treatment is recommended for a child with a high caries rate?
1) 2,800 ppm toothpaste
2) 5,000 ppm toothpaste
3) Application of 2.2% Duraphat 2 times yearly
4) Application of 2.2% Duraphat 3-4 times yearly
For children with a high caries rate, more frequent applications of fluoride varnish like Duraphat are recommended to provide additional protection.
Nonselective beta blocker possessing quinidine-like membrane stabilizing effects.
1) pindolol
2) acebutolol
3) sotalol
4) esmolol
Beta-blockers, such as propranolol, labetalol, and pindolol, can have membrane stabilizing effects (eg, quinidinelike effects, Vaughan-Williams class I antiarrhythmic effects).
Which type of tumor is characterized by having a "cribriform" or "Swiss cheese" pattern?
1) Acinic cell carcinoma
2) Adenocystic carcinoma
3) Burkitt's lymphoma
4) Pleomorphic adenoma
Adenocystic carcinoma is known for its cribriform pattern and often invades surrounding tissues, including nerve sheaths.
What is the purpose of a pulp vitality test before a restorative procedure?
1) To determine the presence of pulp infection.
2) To assess the depth of the cavity preparation.
3) To evaluate the need for endodontic treatment.
4) To ensure that the patient is not allergic to the restorative material.
ADC Test Answer: 1
Pulp vitality tests are conducted to assess the health of the tooth's pulp and identify any signs of infection before proceeding with a restorative treatment.
What is the most common cause of malignant hyperthermia during GA?
1) Halothane.
2) Ketamine.
3) Sevoflurane.
4) Desflurane.
ADC Test Answer: 1
Malignant hyperthermia is a life-threatening condition triggered by certain anesthetic agents, most commonly halothane, which leads to hypermetabolism in skeletal muscles and can cause muscle rigidity, high temperature, and acidosis.
What cells are found in herpetic stomatitis and lichen planus?
1) Neutrophils
2) Eosinophils
3) Lymphocytes
4) Macrophages
Lymphocytes are typically present in the inflammatory response associated with herpetic stomatitis and lichen planus.
Dopamine is preferred in treatment of shock because of
1) Renal Vasodilatory effect
2) Increased Cardiac Output
3) Peripheral Vasoconstriction
4) Prolonged action
Dopamine as a first line of drug in patients with shock
Dopamine in low doses can dilate renal vasculature therefore maintaining glomerular filtration.
Activates adenylate cyclase - cAMP – relaxation of vascular smooth muscle
For a cantilever bridge replacing a missing maxillary canine, the best abutments are:
1) Both premolars
2) Incisor and premolar
3) Lateral and central incisors
4) Single central incisor
ADC Test Answer: 1
A cantilever bridge requires support from adjacent teeth on one side of the space, making both premolars ideal abutments for the missing canine.
What does the acronym "CQC" stand for in the context of dental record keeping?
1) Care Quality Commission
2) Clinical Quality Control
3) Comprehensive Quality Care
4) Centralized Quality Compliance
The Care Quality Commission (CQC) is responsible for regulating health and social care services in England, including dental practices.
In a standard dental cartridge containing 1.8ml of 2% lidocaine with epinephrine 1/100000, what is the amount of vasoconstrictor?
1) 18.0mg.
2) 0.018mg.
3) 1.8mg.
4) 0.18mg.
E. 180.0mg.
ADC Test Answer: 2
In a 1.8ml solution of 2% lidocaine, there is 0.018mg of epinephrine present for every 1ml of solution.
What is the primary purpose of using a rubber dam in dentistry?
1) To improve visibility
2) To isolate the tooth
3) To prevent contamination
4) All of the above
A rubber dam is used to improve visibility, isolate the tooth from saliva, and prevent contamination during procedures.
Which of the following is not an intravenous anaesthetic agent?
- Cyclopropane
- Barbiturates
- Propofol
- Etomidate
Cyclopropane is not an intravenous anaesthetic agent.
Hyperthermia can be seen with:
1) Lithium toxicity
2) Opium withdrawal
3) Malignant neuroleptic syndrome
4) Eclampsia
Malignant neuroleptic syndrome (caused by phenothiazine) is one of the usual causes of hyperthermia in anaesthesia.
What is the difference between a horizontal mattress suture and a simple interrupted suture?
1) A horizontal mattress suture has a single loop, while a simple interrupted suture has multiple loops.
2) A horizontal mattress suture is used to compress tissues, while a simple interrupted suture is not.
3) A simple interrupted suture is used to approximate tissues in a straight line, while a horizontal mattress suture is used for more complex tissue relationships.
4) Both sutures have the same function and are used interchangeably.
ADC Test Answer: 2
A horizontal mattress suture is designed to compress tissues against each other, promoting healing and reducing tension.
What is the primary function of salivary IgA?
1) To neutralize bacterial toxins
2) To prevent bacterial adhesion to tooth surfaces
3) To initiate the immune response against caries-causing bacteria
4) To provide a source of calcium for remineralization
Salivary IgA is an antibody that specifically targets bacteria in the mouth, helping to prevent their colonization and the initiation of the caries process.
You wish to purchase a dental X-ray machine and have the choice between 60kVp and 70kVp machines. With a single change from 60kVp to 70kVp, what would the approximate effect on exposure time be?
1) No effect
2) Half the time
3) Double
4) Quarter
ADC Test Answer: 2
Increasing the kilovoltage (kVp) increases the energy of the x-rays, which increases the penetrating power and film blackening.
Immediately following the closure of the A-V valves is the period of 1. Isotonic contraction 2. Isometric contraction 3. Isometric relaxation 4. Isotonic relaxation
Anatomy Answer: 3Immediately following the closure of the A-V valves is the period of Isometric relaxation
Possible thin dentin with normal enamel thickness and cervical fractures are
symptoms of which option?
1) Dentin dysplasia
2) Hypercementosis
3) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
4) Hypo plastic Amelogenesis
Possible thin dentin with normal enamel thickness and cervical fractures are symptoms of Dentinogenesis imperfect1) This condition is characterized by the abnormal development of dentin, which is the hard tissue that forms the majority of the tooth. In Dentinogenesis imperfecta, the dentin is not properly formed, leading to weak and brittle teeth that are prone to fractures. The enamel, on the other hand, is typically normal in thickness.
Lignocaine with adrenaline is contra-indicated for ring block of:
1) Penis
2) Toes
3) Pinna
4) All of the above
Xylocaine with adrenaline is contraindicated in ring block of finger, toes, penis, pinna (because these structures have end arteries) and Beta block (intravenous regional anaesthesia).
Which of the following is a crucial step in the pulpotomy procedure?
1) Directly place IRM after pulpal amputation.
2) Amputation of the coronal pulp with a bur.
3) Use a rubber dam to isolate the tooth.
4) Immediate placement of a stainless steel crown.
A rubber dam is essential for isolating the tooth during pulpotomy, ensuring a clean and sterile field.
Why do patients with heart failure bleed easily, and how should such bleeding be managed?
1) They have lower blood pressure
2) They are usually on blood thinners
3) They have a higher platelet count
4) They undergo frequent surgeries
Patients with heart failure often take anticoagulants like aspirin or warfarin to prevent thromboembolic events.
First local anaesthetic used was:
1) Lignocaine
2) Mepivacaine
3) Cocaine
4) Bupivacaine
Cocaine was the first local anaesthetic used by Carl Koller for anaesthetizing the cornea.
Disto buccal root of upper first molar is supplied by:
1) Buccal nerve
2) Middle superior alveolar nerve
3) Posterior superior alveolar nerve
4) Infra orbital nerve
The disto buccal root of the upper first molar is supplied by the posterior superior alveolar nerve.
In concentrations usually applied for sterilization purposes, ethylene oxide is preferable to formaldehyde becuase it is more penetrating
The cause of death with opioid intoxication is 1. respiratory depression 2. cardiac arrest 3. terminal convulsions 4. oxygen apnea
Pharmacology Answer: 1The cause of death with opioid intoxication is respiratory depression
The two major local causes of root resorption are
1) inflammation and excessive pressure
2) inflammation and cementoclast-activating factor
3) excessive pressure and increased pH of ground substance
4) cementoclast-activating factor and increased pH of ground substance
If a patient is unable to give informed consent due to a medical condition,
who can provide consent on their behalf?
1) Any family member
2) A legal guardian or surrogate decision-maker
3) The healthcare provider
4) The patient's friends
If a patient lacks the capacity to consent, a legal guardian or designated surrogate can provide consent in their best interest.
What is the purpose of using articulating paper during a stainless steel crown procedure?
1) To remove caries.
2) To reduce occlusal surface.
3) To check occlusion.
4) To mix cement.
Articulating paper is used to check occlusion during a stainless steel crown procedure.
Which of the following is the drug of choice in bupivacaine induced VT:
1) Lidocaine
2) Phenytoin
3) Digoxin
4) Quinidine
The drug of choice is bretylium but in its absence lignocaine can be used.
What is the recommended method for labeling the outside of a patient's dental record?
- With the patient's full name, date of birth, and social security number
- With the patient's initials and the first three digits of their phone number
- With the patient's full name and a unique identifier
- With the patient's full name and medical history
The outside cover of the chart should only display the patient's name to maintain confidentiality.
Which of the following are anti-fungal drugs?
1) Cloxacillin
2) Aciclovir
3) Chlorhexidine
4) Nystatin
Miconazole is an imidazole anti-fungal drug, Nystatin is a polyene anti-fungal drug and itraconazole is a triazole anti-fungal.
Aciclovir is an anti-viral drug and chlorhexidine is an antiseptic.cloxacillin is penicillin derivative.
In the mandible, the main growth site is in the:
1) Gonial angle.
2) Condylar cartilage.
3) Posterior border of the ramus.
4) Inferior and lateral aspects of the body of the mandible.
Orthodontics Answer: 2Excessive overjet is a hallmark of Angle Class II occlusion due to mandibular retrusion or maxillary protrusion, leading to an increased horizontal distance between the arches.
Contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy is all except:
1) Tumour involving pyriform sinus
2) Vocal cord fixidity
3) Tumour involving the preepiglottic spread
4) Post cricoid area expansion
Tumour involving the preepiglottic spread is not a contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy.
What is the most commonly used topical anesthetic in dentistry?
1) Lidocaine
2) Benzocaine
3) Articaine
4) Procaine
Benzocaine is frequently used as a topical anesthetic in dentistry due to its effectiveness and rapid onset of action.
What is the first line of treatment for a patient with a lower lateral tooth extracted while the alveolus heals to cover the gap?
1) Conventional cantilever
2) Partial denture
A partial denture is often the preferred option to replace missing teeth during the healing process, providing functional and aesthetic support.
During eruption of permanent teeth, alveolar bone is resorbed and deposited intermittently
What’s the percentage of individuals over 25 years old with periodontitis in the UK?
1) 30%
2) 50%
3) 64%
4) 75%
Approximately 64% of individuals over 25 years old in the UK are affected by periodontitis, highlighting the prevalence of periodontal disease.
The neuromuscular blocker that does not need reversal of action by neostigmine at the end of the operation is :
1) d–Tubocurarine
2) Doxacurium
3) Pipecuronium
4) Mivacurium
Long acting non-depolarizing (competitive) NM blocking agents require reversal with neostigmine.
Mivacurium is the shortest acting NDMR.
Mivacurium can be used in day care surgery.
Which investigation is most commonly used to rule out aspiration in mandibular fracture patients with missing teeth? 1) Chest X-ray 2) Orthopantomogram 3) PA mandible 4) CT scan
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 1A chest X-ray is commonly performed when missing teeth or denture fragments cannot be accounted for in a mandibular fracture patient. This helps to rule out aspiration of foreign bodies.
What hormone increases blood glucose and decreases serum potassium?
1) Insulin
2) Cortisol
3) Glucagon
4) Adrenaline
Cortisol increases blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreases serum potassium levels by enhancing renal excretion.
About lidocaine all are true, except:
1) Dose need to altered in renal failure
2) Loading dose before infusion
3) It is little effected by heat & pH
4) Prolongs refractory period
Local anesthetics are poorly water soluble and this limits their renal excretion (of unchanged drug) to less than 5%.
A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might show increased postoperative bleeding because aspirin inhibits:
1) Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation
2) Synthesis of prostacyclin and prevents platelet aggregation
3) Synthesis of prostaglandin and prevents production of blood platelets
4) Thrombin and prevents formation of the fibrin network
ADC Test Answer: 1
Aspirin irreversibly inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis, which is crucial for platelet aggregation, leading to increased bleeding risk.
A component of the coenzyme required in a transamination process is 1. Thiamine 2 Folic acid 3 Pyridoxine 4 Riboflavin
Biochemistry Answer: 3A component of the coenzyme required in a transamination process is Pyridoxine
Which of the following is a critical component of a patient's medical history in dental records?
1) Patient's favorite color
2) List of systemic diseases
3) Patient's social media accounts
4) Financial status
A thorough medical history should include relevant health information, such as systemic diseases, to inform treatment decisions.
N-acetyl muramic is intermediate in the biosynthesis the cell wall
Which class of antihypertensive agents is contraindicated in pregnancy due to risk of fetal harm?
1) Diuretics
2) Calcium channel blockers
3) ACE inhibitors
4) Alpha-blockers
ACE inhibitors are contraindicated during pregnancy because they can harm fetal development.
What is the GDC's requirement for the storage of patient records?
- They must be kept in a secure, locked cabinet
- They must be kept in a fireproof safe
- They must be kept in a format that is easily accessible and understandable
- They must be kept in a location that is accessible only to the dentist
The GDC requires that patient records be kept in a format that is easily accessible and understandable to ensure that dental professionals can provide effective care based on accurate and up-to-date information.
Which of the following cements bonds to tooth structure, which has an anticariogenic effect, has a degree of translucency and does not irritate the pulp?
1) Polycarboxylate cement
2) Resin cement
3) Silicate Cement
4) Glass ionomer cement
Chelation of carboxyl groups of the polyacids with the calcium in the apatite of enamel and dentin is the main mechanism through which glass ionomer bonds to tooth structure. Glass ionomers release fluoride which results in the inhibiton of the progression of secondary caries.
They elicit a greater pulp reaction as compared to ZnoE but generally less compared to zinc phosphate cement.
Which of the following new technologies uses light to detect dental caries?
1) Digital Imaging Fibre-Optic Transillumination (DIFOTI)
2) Laser fluorescence (DIAGNOdent)
3) Quantitative Light-Induced Fluorescence (QLF)
4) All of the above
DIFOTI, DIAGNOdent, and QLF are all new technologies that utilize light to detect dental caries. They work by identifying changes in light transmission or fluorescence caused by the presence of carious lesions.
What is the most common reason for the failure of an approximal amalgam filling?
1) Marginal leakage
2) Secondary caries
3) Isthmus fracture
4) Overhang
Isthmus fractures are a common reason for the failure of approximal amalgam fillings, often due to stress and occlusal forces.
What is a common consequence of prolonged exposure to loud noises in a dental office? 1) Increased risk of infection 2) Hearing loss 3) Skin irritation 4) Respiratory issues
Occupational Hazards Answer: 2Prolonged exposure to loud noises from dental equipment can lead to noise-induced hearing loss, making it important to use hearing protection when necessary.
The working time of zinc-phosphate cement:
1) Is shortened if moisture condenses on the mixing slab during the mixing process.
2) Is lengthened if the powder is mixed with the liquid as quickly as possible.
3) Is shortened if the mixing slab is cooled.
4) Is shortened by adding a small quantity of powder to the liquid a minute prior to start mixing.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1
Explanation: Moisture
condensation increases the reactivity of
zinc-phosphate cement, accelerating the setting
reaction and shortening the working time.
Which condition is characterized by the presence of intraoral fibromas?
1) Lichen planus
2) Fibromatosis
3) Pemphigus vulgaris
4) Epulis
An epulis is a benign tumor characterized by fibrous tissue growth in the gingiva that can present as intraoral fibromas.
Heparin
1) is a glycosaminoglycan
2) potentiates thrombin
3) has a half life of 3-4 hours
4) is normally given IM
GlycosaminoglycAnswer (GAGs) are heteropolysaccharides.
What causes clasp breakage in removable partial dentures
(RPD)?
1) Excessive force
2) Work hardening
3) Poor design
4) Material fatigue
Clasp breakage in removable partial dentures (RPDs) is often attributed to work hardening of the metal used in the clasps. Work hardening occurs when the metal is subjected to repeated stress, causing it to become more brittle and less ductile. This increased brittleness can lead to fractures under normal functional loads, making proper design and material selection critical in RPD construction.
Proximal caries on X-rays appear:
1) Smaller than clinically seen
2) Larger than clinically seen
3) The same size as clinically seen
4) Not visible on X-rays
ADC Test Answer: 1
Proximal caries typically appear smaller on radiographs due to the limitations of two-dimensional imaging.
What cement do you use to bond an alumina core ceramic crown?
1) Panavia
2) Resin modified glass ionomer cement
3) Zinc phosphate
4) Glass ionomer cement
Panavia is a resin cement specifically designed for bonding ceramic restorations, providing strong adhesion to alumina cores.
How would you treat exposed and softened cementum due to gingival recession of several anterior teeth?
1) Scrap the soften cementum and apply fluoride.
2) Scrap the soften cementum and use GIC.
3) Class V amalgam.
4) None of the above.
ADC Test Answer: 2
Glass ionomer cement (GIC) is commonly used for class V restorations to protect the exposed root surfaces and cementum.
What is the purpose of a biosafety cabinet in a dental laboratory?
1) To provide a sterile work environment
2) To protect the technician from inhaling dust
3) To prevent cross-contamination
4) To store sterile materials
A biosafety cabinet provides a controlled environment with laminar
airflow to protect the technician and the materials from cross-contamination
during procedures involving infectious materials.
What suture material is used on lips?
1) Prolene
2) Nylon
3) Vicryl
4) Both 1 and 2
Prolene and nylon are both commonly used suture materials for lip closures due to their strength and minimal tissue reaction.
What is the age of majority for giving informed consent?
1) 16 years
2) 18 years
3) 21 years
4) Varies by country
In most jurisdictions, the age of majority is 18 years, which means
individuals below this age are considered minors and typically require parental
or guardian consent for medical or dental treatment, except in cases of
emergency.
Position of needle in relation to medial pterygoid during IANB?
1) Lateral and posterior.
2) Medial and anterior.
3) Lateral and anterior.
4) Medial and posterior.
ADC Test Answer: 1
During an Inferior Alveolar Nerve Block (IANB), the needle is positioned laterally and posteriorly to the medial pterygoid, which is critical for successful anesthesia of the mandibular teeth.
Which of the following is NOT a key component of the principle of justice in
dental ethics?
1) Fair treatment of all patients
2) Equitable distribution of dental resources
3) Provision of the best possible care regardless of cost
4) Recognition of the patient's right to refuse treatment
Justice in dental ethics involves fair treatment and equitable distribution of resources, but it does not require dentists to provide the most expensive or advanced care if it is not warranted or if it would unfairly consume resources needed by others.
Aromatic amino acid is: 1. Tyrosine 2. Histidine 3. Arginine 4. Lysine
Biochemistry Answer: 1Tyrosine is Aromatic amino acid
Hardness number which does not depend on the ductility of metal
1) KHN
2) VHN
3) RHN
4) BHN
Knoop hardness test - Diamond of rhombic shape (The long axis of indentotion is measured) The Knoop hardness test is used to obtain the values for both exceedingly hard and soft materials.
Vickers (Diamond pyramid test) - Diamond of square base shape (The diagonal length of the indentation is measured)
Rockwell - Diamond of conical shape (The penetration depth is measured)
Brinells - Steel ball (The diameter of indentation is measured)
hardness value is independent of the ductility of the material.
What is the most common type of dental radiograph used in a routine dental
check-up?
1) Panoramic x-ray
2) Bitewing x-ray
3) Periapical x-ray
4) Dental CT scan
Bitewing x-rays are the most commonly used radiographs in a routine dental check-up. They show the crowns of the upper and lower teeth and help dentists detect decay between the teeth and changes in bone density caused by gum disease. While panoramic x-rays and periapical x-rays provide valuable information, they are typically used for more specific diagnostic purposes. Dental CT scans are more advanced and not typically used in routine exams due to their higher radiation exposure and cost.
During setting, a gypsum-bonded investment material will undergo an additional expansion if it occurs:
1) Under water.
2) Under vacuum.
3) In a cold environment.
4) In a dry environment.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1
During setting, a gypsum-bonded investment
material will undergo an additional expansion if
it occurs:
Drugs mostly cross biological membranes by
1) Passive diffusion
2) Active diffusion
3) Active transport
4) Carrier mediated transport
Passive diffusion: The movement of drug across a membrane in a manner driven solely by the concentration gradient.
Which of the following series of cements have anticariogenic properties? 1. zinc phosphate, silicate, and polycarboxylate cements 2. silicophosphate, glass ionomer, and silicate cements 3. zinc oxide eugenol, ethoxybenzoic, and zinc oxide eugenol polymer reinforced cements 4. calcium hydroxide and ethoxybenzoic cements
Dental Material Answer: 2Cements with anticariogenic properties are silicophosphate, glass ionomer, and silicate cements
What is the most common occupational health problem among dentists ?
1) Tinnitus
2) Musculoskeletal pain
3) Hypertension
4) Hearing loss
Musculoskeletal pain was the most common occupational health problem, with 78% of the dentists reporting it. This is consistent with findings from other studies that highlight the prevalence of musculoskeletal disorders in the dental profession due to prolonged sitting postures, repetitive movements, and manual dexterity required in dental practice.
Which type of caries is characterized by a brown or black appearance and is
resistant to caries?
1) Acute caries
2) Chronic caries
3) Arrested caries
4) Incipient caries
Arrested caries are brown or black and become caries-resistant, especially when exposed to fluoride.
The mucosa of the hard palate is?
1) Non-keratinised and lacks submucosa and minor salivary glands.
2) Non-keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posteromedially
3) Keratinised and lacks submucosa and minor salivary glands.
4) Keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posterolaterally
The correct answer is "keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posterolaterally." The hard palate is the bony structure that forms the roof of the mouth.
A tooth makes its appearance in the oral cavity usually when 1. all of the crown is completed 2. all of the root is completed 3. one half of the root is completed 4. one half of the crown is completed
Dental Anatomy Answer: 3A tooth makes its appearance in the oral cavity usually when one half of the root is completed
What is the average number of 15-year-olds who have lost 6-7 teeth?
1) 1.1
2) 3.1
3) 4.7
4) 5.5
Current statistics indicate that approximately 3.1% of 15-year-olds have lost 6-7 teeth due to caries or other dental issues.
What is the term for the psychological process in which patients learn to associate the dental environment with a positive experience?
1) Counterconditioning
2) Operant conditioning
3) Classical conditioning
4) Systematic desensitization
Counterconditioning involves replacing the negative association with a positive one, which can help reduce dental anxiety over time.
Local anesthetic which produces localized vasoconstriction and anesthesia?
1) Cocaine
2) Tetracaine (pontocaine)
3) Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
4) Prilocaine (Citanest)
Cocaine is a local anesthetic that produces localized vasoconstriction and anesthesia.
Which of the following is the most commonly associated benign parotid gland tumor?
1) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
2) Pleomorphic adenoma
3) Adenocystic carcinoma
4) Acinic cell carcinoma
Pleomorphic adenoma, also known as a benign mixed tumor, is the most common type of parotid gland tumor and represents around 75% of all cases.
What is the primary treatment for pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Topical steroids
2) Systemic corticosteroids
3) Antihistamines
4) Antibiotics
Systemic corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for pemphigus vulgaris to control the autoimmune response and reduce blister formation.
Slowest induction and recovery is with:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Desflurane
Methoxyflurane has the highest blood gas partition coefficient (15), resulting in the slowest induction and recovery.
Which of the following is NOT an indication for a pulpotomy?
1) Primary teeth with carious pulpal exposure.
2) Presence of deep pits/fissure.
3) Extensive loss of tooth structure in primary molars.
4) Questionable or confirmed enamel caries.
A pulpotomy is not indicated for questionable or confirmed enamel caries.
Trichloroacetic acid, a strong acid, has been used by dentists for chemical cautery of hypertrophic tissue and aphthous ulcers; its mechanism of action is:
1) Thermodynamic action
2) Activation of tissue enzymes
3) Osmotic pressure
4) Protein precipitation
ADC Test Answer: 4
Trichloroacetic acid works by precipitating proteins, which helps in cauterizing tissues and managing lesions.
Which of these is the ideal appliance for correction of posterior cross bite due to digit sucking habit?
1) Tongue spikes
2) Hay rakes
3) Maxillary lingual arch with palatal crib
4) Quad helix
Classification of appliances for thumb-sucking
1.
a. Tongue spikes
b. Tongue guard
c. Spurs/rake
2 Fixed appliances
a. Quad helix
b. Hay rakes
c. Maxillary lingual arch with palatal crib
The ideal appliance to correct posterior cross-bite caused due to digit sucking is Quad Helix. It is a lingual arch which is adjustab and needs very little patient cooperation because it is fixed and is reliable and easy to use.
Which of the following is not a function of a rest in a removable partial denture (RPD)?
1) To provide resistance against occlusal load
2) To maintain occlusal contact with opposing teeth
3) To act as a direct retainer
4) To prevent extrusion of abutment teeth
The primary functions of a rest in a removable partial denture include providing vertical support, resisting occlusal load, maintaining occlusal contact, directing forces along the long axis of the abutment, preventing impingement of soft tissue, and preventing the extrusion of abutment teeth.
Which of the following is a physical sign that a dental patient may be a victim
of abuse?
1) A history of poor oral hygiene
2) Multiple missing teeth
3) Evidence of previous dental restorations
4) Inconsistent explanations of dental injuries
Explanation: While poor oral hygiene and missing teeth can be indicators of
neglect, they are not exclusively signs of abuse. However, if a patient provides
inconsistent explanations for their injuries, it may raise suspicion of abuse. Dentists should be attentive to the patient's history and any inconsistencies
that could suggest intentional harm.
What happens to the pH of the mouth after exposure to cariogenic foods?
1) It increases
2) It decreases
3) It remains the same
4) It fluctuates
Cariogenic bacteria ferment sugar, producing lactic acid that lowers the pH of the mouth, leading to demineralization of tooth structure.
What is a common reason why a ten-year-old amalgam filling has become raised above the tooth surface?
1) Wear
2) Creep
3) Improper placement
4) Over-carving
Creep is the tendency of dental amalgam to deform under constant stress, often leading to a raised filling surface as it continues to flow slowly over time.
On inspection of the lateral border of the tongue at the base, which structure would you expect to find?
1) Filiform papillae
2) Fungiform papillae
3) Circumvallate papillae
4) Lymph nodes
ADC Test Answer: 3
Circumvallate papillae are located at the posterior part of the tongue and are involved in taste sensation.
A 50 kg man with severe metabolic acidosis has the following parameters, pB 7.05, pCO2 12 mm/lg, pO2 108 mmHg, BCO) 5 mEq/L, base excess -30 mEq/L. The appropriate quantity of sodium bicarbonate that he should receive in half hour is:
1) 250 mEq
2) 350 mEq
3) 500 mEq
4) 750 mEq
Local Anesthesia Answer: 1
250 mEq Sodium bicarbonate requirement is calculated by the formula: 0.3 x body weight x base excess (deficit) = 0.3 x 50 x 30 = 500 mEq. Half correction should be done i.e., 500/2 = 250 mEq.
What is the purpose of the principle of nonmaleficence in dental practice?
1) To ensure dentists do not cause harm to patients
2) To justify the use of painful procedures for therapeutic purposes
3) To require dentists to provide only the most expensive treatments
4) To prioritize the dentist's financial success
Nonmaleficence is the principle that guides healthcare professionals, including dentists, to avoid causing harm to patients. It is often paired with beneficence and requires that treatments and care are provided with the intent to do no harm.
What is the significance of obtaining informed consent and documenting it in a patient's record?
- It serves as legal proof of the treatment provided
- It is a requirement for insurance reimbursement
- It demonstrates that the patient has understood and agreed to the proposed treatment plan
- It is a mandatory step for all types of dental treatments
Informed consent is critical in dentistry as it ensures that patients are fully aware of their treatment options, the potential risks, and the benefits before making a decision.
Beta-blockers reduce blood pressure primarily by:
1) Blocking angiotensin II receptors
2) Reducing heart rate and cardiac output
3) Increasing diuresis
4) Vasodilation
Beta-blockers lower blood pressure by decreasing heart rate and the force of contraction, which reduces cardiac output.
The nerve to masseter passes 1. deep to the medial pterygoid muscle 2. posterior to temporomandibular joint 3. superior to zygomatic arch to enter the muscle on its medial surface 4. through the mandibular notch to enter the muscle on its medial surface
Anatomy Answer: 4The nerve to masseter passes through the mandibular notch to enter the muscle on its medial surface
Which of the following can be caused by excessive consumption of soft drinks?
1) Digestive disorder
2) Tooth erosion
3) Tooth decay
4) Colorization of the tongue
Excessive consumption of soft drinks can cause tooth erosion. Soft drinks are
high in sugar and acid, which can weaken the enamel on the teeth over time. This
erosion can lead to tooth sensitivity, discoloration, and even tooth loss if not
addressed It is important to limit the consumption of sugary and acidic
beverages and maintain good oral hygiene to prevent tooth erosion.
A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12-week period following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by:
1) Further review and reassurance since it will most probably heal spontaneously
2) Antibiotic therapy and nasal decongestants
3) Curettage and dressing of the defect
4) Excision of the fistula and surgical closure
ADC Test Answer: 4
Surgical closure is the most effective treatment for a persistent oroantral fistula, especially after 12 weeks, as spontaneous healing is unlikely.
Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect pulp capping?
1) Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure
2) Removal of caries has exposed the pulp
3) When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ
4) Deep caries without symptoms
ADC Test Answer: 1
Indirect pulp capping is indicated when some softened dentin remains over the pulp but further excavation could risk exposing it, thus preserving pulp vitality.
What is the typical pH of a healthy oral environment?
1) 5.0-5.5.
2) 6.0-6.5.
3) 7.0.
4) 7.5-8.0.
ADC Test Answer: 3
A healthy oral environment has a neutral pH of around 7.0, which helps maintain the integrity of the tooth structure and prevent dental decay.
Contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy is all except:
1) Tumour involving pyriform sinus
2) Vocal cord fixidity
3) Tumour involving the preepiglottic spread
4) Post cricoid area expansion
Pre-epiglottic involvement is not a contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy.
What’s the percentage of tooth erosion in 6-year-olds and 15-year-olds in the UK?
1) 5-10% and 15-20%
2) 5-52% and 15-27%
3) 10-30% and 20-40%
4) 15-25% and 25-35%
Studies indicate that tooth erosion affects a significant percentage of children, with varying rates between different age groups.
A 30-year-old man with an unknown allergy to latex goes into anaphylactic shock whilst being treated in the dental surgery. Which drug and route of administration is of most benefit in this situation?
A. Hydrocortisone - orally
B. Epinephrine – intramuscularly
C. Chlorphenamine - orally
D. Epinephrine - intravenously
In anaphylactic shock, immediate administration of epinephrine is crucial as it acts quickly to reverse bronchoconstriction, vasodilation, and subsequent hypotension.
What is the significance of erosive lichen planus?
1) High malignant potential
2) Some malignant potential
3) No malignant potential
4) Always requires surgical intervention
ADC Test Answer: 2
Erosive lichen planus can carry an increased risk for malignant transformation, but this potential varies among individuals.
Where in the periodontal ligament fibers are the fibers thinner?
1) Apical third
2) Middle third
3) Cervical third
4) None
The fibers in the middle third of the periodontal ligament are generally thinner than in the apical or cervical thirds, leading to reduced tensile strength and an area that is more susceptible to damage.
What treatment is indicated for severe cases of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)?
1) Increased platelet count
2) Supportive care and treating underlying causes
3) Administration of antibiotics
4) Hormonal therapy
Management of severe cases of DIC involves supportive care and addressing the underlying condition that has triggered the coagulopathy.
What is the most common complication associated with the extraction of an impacted third molar?
1) Nerve damage
2) Infection
3) Prolonged bleeding
4) Dry socket
Pericoronitis is the most common complication associated with impacted third molars, which can occur before or after extraction if proper care is not taken.
What is the primary responsibility of a healthcare provider when they suspect abuse?
1) Confront the abuser
2) Document findings and report to authorities
3) Discuss with the patient’s family
4) Ignore the signs if the patient is an adult
Healthcare providers must document findings and report suspicions of abuse to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.
Which of the following dental cements is a luting agent that provides adhesion to calcified dental tissues? 1. ZOE cement 2. Silicate cement 3. Zinc phosphate cement 4. Polycarboxylate cement
Dental Material Answer: 4Polycarboxylate cement is a luting agent that provides adhesion to calcified dental tissues
Which of the following areas cannot be determined by survey analysis of a partially edentulous cast?
1) Areas to be blocked out for framework
2) Areas shaped for clasp retention
3) Areas used for guideline planes
4) Depth of rest seats
ADC Test Answer: 4
Survey analysis assists in determining areas suitable for clasp retention, framework design, and guiding planes, but it cannot measure the depth of rest seats directly.
Which of the following is a psychologically acceptable method for bone removal during an extraction?
1) High-speed handpiece and bur technique
2) Chisel and mallet technique
3) Laser surgery
4) All of the above
The high-speed handpiece and bur technique is generally more accepted by patients due to its precision and controlled removal of bone.
What is the primary legal concern regarding dental records?
- Data protection
- Patient confidentiality
- Consent management
- All of the above
Dental records are subject to legal regulations concerning data protection, patient confidentiality, and consent management.
The flexibility of a retentive clasp arm is affected by the
1). location of the reciprocal arm.
2). length of the retentive arm.
3). position on the abutment tooth.
4). location of the occlusal rest.
The flexibility of a retentive clasp arm is affected by several factors, including: Length: Longer clasps are more flexible. Diameter: A smaller diameter
is less flexible. Cross-sectional form: Round cross-sections are more
flexible than half-round cross-sections. Alloy: The alloy used to
construct the clasp affects its flexibility.
Width-thickness ratio: The width-thickness ratio of the clasp arm affects its flexibility
During which phase does the formation of dentin primarily occur?
1) Bud stage
2) Cap stage
3) Bell stage
4) Maturation stage
The bell stage of tooth development is when the formation of dentin primarily occurs, along with enamel development.
Agent of choice for day care surgery:
Propofol
Etomidate
Ketamine
Midazolam
The elimination half life of propofol is 2-4 hours.
What is the first line of treatment for a patient with a lower lateral tooth extracted while the alveolus heals to cover the gap?
1) Conventional cantilever
2) Partial denture
3) Both
4) None
A partial denture is often the preferred option to replace missing teeth during the healing process, providing functional and aesthetic support.
What is the typical microorganism found in localized aggressive periodontitis?
1) Porphyromonas gingivalis.
2) Fusobacterium nucleatum.
3) Aggregatobacter actinomycetemcomitans.
4) Prevotella intermedia.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Aggregatobacter actinomycetemcomitans is frequently associated with localized aggressive periodontitis, contributing to the rapid destruction of periodontal tissues.
The epithelium which covers a healed ulcer is derived from 1. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells of the ulcer 2. intact epithelium at the ulcer margin 3. transformation of fibroblasts to epithelial cells 4. endothelial cells via the blood stream
Oral Pathology Answer: 2The epithelium which covers a healed ulcer is derived from intact epithelium at the ulcer margin
Which of the following has highest minimum alveolar concentration?
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Nitrous oxide
Nitrous oxide has the highest MAC value of 104 among all inhalational anaesthetics.
The artery chiefly responsible for blood supply to the mandible is inferior alveolar artery
What is one of the main advantages of using templates for dental records?
1) They eliminate the need for documentation
2) They provide a structured format for organizing information
3) They are always flexible for individual cases
4) They reduce the need for training
Templates can help standardize record keeping and ensure that essential information is consistently documented, although they should be used with caution to avoid limitations.
What is the suitable restoration approach for a Class III jaw relationship with limited coronal height?
1) Provide a gold onlay
2) Provide a full crown
3) Increase vertical dimension
4) Crown lengthening
An adhesively retained gold onlay is ideal for teeth with limited coronal height due to its ability to conserve tooth structure while providing durability.
What is the legal obligation of a dentist when they suspect a patient is a victim of abuse or neglect?
1) To report the suspicion to the authorities immediately
2) To advise the patient to report the abuse themselves
3) To maintain confidentiality and not take any action
4) To conduct a thorough investigation before reporting
Dentists are mandated reporters and must report any suspicion of abuse or neglect to the appropriate authorities immediately.
White coat hypertension refers to: 1) Low blood pressure when seeing a doctor 2) Elevated blood pressure only in a medical setting 3) Consistently high blood pressure at all times 4) Normal blood pressure at all times
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2White coat hypertension occurs when blood pressure is elevated only in the presence of healthcare workers.
What is the advantage of digital dental records over traditional paper records?
1) They are more environmentally friendly
2) They are easier to store and retrieve
3) They can be easily shared with other healthcare providers
4) They reduce the risk of loss or damage
Digital dental records are stored electronically, which makes them easier to store, retrieve, and organize compared to paper records.
In which condition is the prothrombin time typically prolonged?
1) Hemophilia
2) Vitamin K deficiency
3) Use of salicylates or anticoagulants
4) Platelet disorders
Both salicylates and anticoagulants can interfere with blood clotting mechanisms and prolong prothrombin time.
The most appropriate management for a child with a primary tooth that caused a
severe, throbbing toothache the previous night is to
1) prescribe an analgesics.
2) perform a pulpectomy
3) remove caries and place a temporary restoration.
4) perform a pulpotomy.
Pulpectomy removes necrotic or infected pulp tissue, resolving pain while preserving the tooth's functionality.