Dentist Abroad
How would you treat exposed and softened cementum due to gingival recession of several anterior teeth?
1) Scrap the soften cementum and apply fluoride.
2) Scrap the soften cementum and use GIC.
3) Class V amalgam.
4) None of the above.
ADC Test Answer: 2
Glass ionomer cement (GIC) is commonly used for class V restorations to protect the exposed root surfaces and cementum.
Activation of muscle contraction is promoted by : Opening of the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca channel. Ca2+ binding to troponin C. Opening of Na channels Ca2+ binding to the Ca2+-ATPase
A patient expresses extreme anxiety about getting needles. What is the most appropriate response?
1) Tell them not to worry
2) Avoid discussing needles altogether
3) Explain the procedure and show the needle in a non-threatening way
4) Schedule their appointment without discussing their fears
Providing clear information and familiarizing the patient with the process can help reduce anxiety associated with needles.
What is the effect of saliva containing fluoride, calcium, and
phosphate on enamel solubility?
1) It increases enamel solubility and promotes demineralization.
2) It varies depending on the concentration of each component.
3) It has no effect on enamel solubility.
4) It decreases enamel solubility and prevents demineralization.
Fluoride, calcium, and phosphate work together in saliva to remineralize enamel, making it more resistant to acid attacks by forming fluorapatite, which is less soluble than hydroxyapatite.
When considering local anesthesia for geriatric patients, which factor is
most important?
1) Pain tolerance
2) Anxiety levels
3) Systemic health status
4) Personal preference
Geriatric patients often have comorbidities that can influence
the choice and dosage of local anesthetics, therefore assessing systemic health
is crucial.
What is the best approach regarding sedation for pregnant women?
1) Mandatory sedation
2) Always use benzodiazepines
3) Best to avoid sedation
4) Only use nitrous oxide
The use of sedation, particularly benzodiazepines, during pregnancy carries risks that could harm the fetus.
What is the difference between fluorapatite and carbonate substituted
hydroxyapatite?
1) Fluorapatite is less soluble than carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite
2) Fluorapatite is more soluble than carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite
3) They have the same solubility
4) Fluorapatite does not occur in tooth structure
Fluorapatite is a form of hydroxyapatite that has incorporated fluoride ions, which makes it more resistant to acid attacks and thus less soluble compared to carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite.
What is the significance of the pH buffering capacity of saliva in
preventing dental caries?
1) It does not affect caries formation
2) It prevents the formation of lactic acid
3) It helps to maintain a pH above the critical threshold for demineralization
4) It promotes the formation of enamel
Saliva's buffering capacity helps to counteract the acidity produced by bacterial fermentation of sugars, maintaining a pH above the critical threshold and preventing demineralization.
Which of the following medications is NOT associated with angioedema?
1) Ramipril
2) Ibuprofen
3) Furosemide
4) Paracetamol
Paracetamol is generally not associated with causing angioedema, while other medications like ACE inhibitors and certain NSAIDs are known to be linked to this condition.
The gingival aspect of a pontic which touches the alveolar ridge should be:
1) Convex only in the mesiodistal direction.
2) Concave faciolingually and convex mesiodistally.
3) Small and convex in all directions.
4) Fabricated to produce slight tissue compression.
FPD and RPD Answer: 3A small and convex gingival surface facilitates hygiene maintenance and minimizes irritation to the underlying soft tissues.
First sign of complication of anaesthesia:
1) Tachycardia
2) Bradycardia
3) Hypertension
4) Convulsions
Tachycardia is the first sign of many complications seen in anaesthesia.
Bitewing radiography is the main special test used to help in the diagnosis of proximal caries. What is a reasonable summary of the diagnostic accuracy of bitewing radiography for proximal caries diagnosis?
1) Moderate sensitivity and low specificity
2) Moderate sensitivity and moderate specificity
3) High sensitivity and high specificity
4) High sensitivity and moderate specificity
Bitewing radiography is known for its high sensitivity and specificity in detecting proximal caries, making it a valuable diagnostic tool.
Nitinol has the disadvantage of which of the following?
1) It cannot be formed into desired shapes
2) It lacks elastic properties
3) Its strength is not suited for orthodontic purposes
4) It lacks stiffness
Nitinol is a metal alloy – or mixture – of nickel and titanium.
What is the primary route of transmission for most blood borne pathogens in
the dental setting?
1) Inhalation
2) Ingestion
3) Mucous membrane exposure
4) Skin absorption
The most common route of transmission for bloodborne pathogens in the dental setting is through mucous membrane exposure, such as when blood or other infectious materials come into contact with the eyes, nose, or mouth of a healthcare worker. This can occur through splashes, sprays, or contact with contaminated surfaces.
What is the purpose of a pre-operative visit for an anxious patient?
1) To administer sedatives
2) To discuss and explain the treatment plan in detail
3) To perform a thorough medical evaluation
4) To complete financial paperwork
A pre-operative visit allows the dentist to build trust, answer questions, and prepare the patient mentally for the upcoming procedure, which can significantly reduce anxiety.
Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of poor oral health
in geriatric patients?
1) Pneumonia
4) Malnutrition
3) Dementia
4) Cardiovascular disease
While poor oral health is associated with an increased risk of
developing pneumonia and cardiovascular disease, it is not a direct cause of
dementi1) However, oral health can impact the quality of life and overall
systemic health.
What is the purpose of a comprehensive medical history in dental care?
- To bill the patient's insurance
- To tailor treatment plans based on the patient's health
- To determine the patient's credit score
- To market dental services to the patient
Knowing the patient's medical history helps the dentist make informed decisions about the patient's treatment and overall care.
Which local anesthetic is known for its cardiotoxic effects?
1) Lidocaine
2) Bupivacaine
3) Mepivacaine
4) Articaine
Bupivacaine is a long-acting local anesthetic that has been associated with cardiotoxicity, making it important to use with caution.
A dental hygienist notices that a child has multiple untreated dental caries and appears malnourished. What should be the hygienist's first action?
1) Discuss with the child’s parents
2) Document the findings
3) Report the situation to child protective services
4) Schedule a follow-up appointment
As a mandated reporter, the hygienist must report suspected neglect to the appropriate authorities when a child’s well-being is at risk.
What type of respiratory protection is recommended for dental personnel
during aerosol-producing procedures?
1) N95 mask
2) Surgical mask
3) Powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR)
4) Full-face respirator
N95 masks are recommended for dental personnel during
aerosol-producing procedures as they provide a higher level of protection
against airborne particles compared to surgical masks. PAPRs and full-face
respirators may be used in certain situations, but N95 masks are sufficient for
most dental procedures.
The most common cause of failure of the IDN (Inferior Dental Nerve) block is:
1) Injecting too low
2) Injecting too high
3) Injecting into the parotid gland
4) Incorrect anatomical landmarks
ADC Test Answer: 1
If the needle is injected too low, the anesthetic may not reach the nerve effectively, leading to failure of the block and insufficient anesthesia during dental procedures.
Which of the following is NOT a type of dental charting?
- Periapical charting
- Panoramic charting
- Full mouth series charting
- Bitewing charting
Panoramic radiographs are not a type of charting.
What cells are found in herpetic stomatitis and lichen planus?
1) Neutrophils
2) Eosinophils
3) Lymphocytes
4) Macrophages
Lymphocytes are typically present in the inflammatory response associated with herpetic stomatitis and lichen planus.
X-ray films have an emulsion on one or both sides of a support material. The emulsion contains particles of:
1) Silver nitrate crystal
2) Metallic silver in gelatine
3) Silver bromide in gelatine
4) Silver nitrate in gelatine
ADC Test Answer: 3
The emulsion on x-ray films is primarily composed of silver bromide crystals suspended in gelatin, which is sensitive to radiation.
Which antihypertensive agent is an alpha1-adrenergic blocker?
1) Clonidine
2) Doxazosin
3) Enalapril
4) Furosemide
Doxazosin is an alpha1-adrenergic blocker that works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle, reducing blood pressure.
What defines the action of zinc oxide eugenol in promoting healing?
1) Analgesic properties
2) Antibacterial activity
3) Tissue regeneration
4) Promotes rapid bone growth
Zinc oxide eugenol dressings are known for their properties that facilitate healing and promote rapid bone growth in post-extraction sites.
What should be included in a patient's medical history in dental records?
1) Patient's favorite food
2) List of systemic diseases and medications
3) Patient's hobbies
4) Financial status
A thorough medical history should include relevant health information that can impact dental treatment.
Which maxillary tooth is most prone to fracture during extraction?
1) Maxillary first molar
2) Maxillary first premolar
3) Maxillary canine
4) Maxillary second premolar
Maxillary second premolars are more likely to fracture due to their two curved and divergent roots.
What is the most common site for oral cancer within the mouth?
1) Hard palate
2) Lateral borders of the tongue
3) Floor of the mouth
4) Buccal mucosa
The lateral borders of the tongue are the most frequently affected site for oral cancer, particularly in the context of squamous cell carcinoma.
When a tooth is replanted after avulsion and presents no pain, the most likely diagnosis is:
1) External resorption
2) Internal resorption
3) No significant damage
4) Pulp necrosis
ADC Test Answer: 2
Internal resorption may occur in avulsed teeth, especially if they were outside the socket for an extended period, even without presenting immediate pain.
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for informed consent in dental treatment?
1) The patient must be competent to make decisions
2) The treatment options must be fully explained to the patient
3) The patient must be informed of the risks and benefits of each option
4) The patient must sign the consent form in triplicate
Informed consent requires that the patient is competent to make decisions, the treatment options are fully explained, the risks and benefits are communicated, and the patient understands the nature and purpose of the proposed treatment. While a signed consent form is typically required, there is no standard requirement for the number of copies.
The secretory product of odontoblasts is:
1) Topocollagen.
2) Calcium salts.
3) Mantle dentin.
4) Hydroxyapatite
Dentinogenesis is the formation of dentin by odontoblasts of mesenchymal origin
located at the periphery of the dental pulp
Dentinogenesis is initiated by the inductive influence of the enamel organ
involving molecular signaling pathways, such as Wnt, Runx-2, and TGF-?. In the
molar tooth, dentinogenesis starts at the late bell stage, and occurs in the
crown as well as root regions.
Predentin, the first organic matrix secreted by odontoblasts, is composed by
proteoglycans, glycoproteins, and collagens.
All of the following statements are true regarding the cephalosporin antibiotics except 1. they are bactericidal 2. they are ineffective against gram negative microorganisms 3. they are potentially cross allergenic with penicillin 4. they are resistant to penicillinase
Pharmacology Answer: 2cephalosporin are bactericidal, are potentially cross allergenic with penicillin, resistant to penicillinase
An orthopantomogram (OPG) and a PA (posteroanterior) mandible X-ray are essential radiographic views for diagnosing mandibular fractures and determining management strategies.
What is the most common occupational disease among dentists?
1) Hepatitis B
2) Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
3) Tuberculosis
4) Oral cancer
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is the most common occupational disease among dentists due to the repetitive and precise hand movements required in their work.
What is the most common type of periodontal charting?
- Probing depths
- Gingival recession
- Tooth mobility
- Furcation involvement
Probing depths are the most commonly recorded periodontal charting measurement.
Brinnel hardness number of a dental gold alloy is directly proportional to its:
1) Tensile strength
2) Elongation
3) Modulus of elasticity
4) Modulus of resiLience
Brinnel and Rockwell tests are cLassified as macrohardness tests and they aie not suitable for brittle materials.
The Knoop and Vickers tests are classified as microhardness tests.
The Shore and the Barcot tests are used for measuring the hardness of rubbers and plastics.
The Bnnnel test is the one of oldest tests used for determining the hardness of materials and is directly related to proportional limit and the ultimate tensile strength of dental gold alloys.
The convenience of the Rockwell test, with direct reading of the depth of the indentation, has lead to its wide usage.
The Knoop hardness test is used to obtain the values for both exceedingly hard and soft materials. The hardness value is independent of the ductility of the material.
The Vickers test is employed for dental costing gold alloys. It is suitable for determining the hardness of brittle materials.
After completion of root canal therapy on a maxillary first premolar with
moderate mesial and distal lesions and intact buccal and lingual surfaces, the
restoration of choice is a/an
1) MOD composite resin.
2) MOD onlay.
3) MOD pin retained amalgam.
4) MOD bonded amalgam.
An onlay provides superior protection and strength for teeth with compromised structure, especially on premolars.
Tissue conditioning materials made of silicone are:
1) More resilient than plastic acrylic
2) Devoid of antimicrobial properties
3) Less durable than traditional materials
4) Typically harder than acrylics
ADC Test Answer: 1
Silicone lining materials are noted for their resilience and comfort, maintaining their cushioning properties over time compared to plastic acrylics.
A dentist is using a Sof-Lex disc on an upper molar and lacks finger support. What is most likely to occur?
1) Gingival trauma
2) Mucosal burn
3) Mucosal trauma
4) Trauma to adjacent tooth
5) Gingival laceration
Lack of finger support while using a Sof-Lex disc can lead to improper control, resulting in potential trauma to the gingiva.
Which clotting factor is primarily associated with initiating the extrinsic pathway of coagulation in DIC?
1) Factor VII
2) Factor X
3) Factor V
4) Factor XII
In DIC, tissue factor (TF) binds with coagulation factor VII, triggering the extrinsic coagulation pathway.
The active immunity offered by tetanus toxoid is effectively in nearly:
1. 25 % of the patients.
2. 50 % of the patients.
3. 75 % of the patients.
4. 100 % of the patients.
80 - 100 % so nearly 100 -- 75 % also equally correct
During the extraction of a lower impacted right molar, bone is removed:
1) To expose maximum dimension of the tooth
2) Up to CE junction
3) Up to furcation area
4) Up to half of roots
The primary goal of bone removal during the extraction of an impacted molar is to expose the maximum dimensions of the tooth, allowing for easier access and removal. Adequate bone removal is essential to visualize the tooth and its roots fully, facilitating a successful extraction. Techniques such as high-speed handpiece and bur or chisel and mallet may be employed, with continuous irrigation to minimize bone necrosis.
A tooth makes its appearance in the oral cavity usually when 1. all of the crown is completed 2. all of the root is completed 3. one half of the root is completed 4. one half of the crown is completed
Dental Anatomy Answer: 3A tooth makes its appearance in the oral cavity usually when one half of the root is completed
What is the purpose of using a handpiece with a 330 bur during a pulpotomy procedure?
1) To remove caries.
2) To reduce occlusal surface.
3) To remove the roof of the pulp chamber.
4) To mix IRM.
A handpiece with a 330 bur is used to remove the roof of the pulp chamber during a pulpotomy procedure.
In a standard dental cartridge containing 1.8ml of 2% lidocaine with epinephrine 1/100000, what is the amount of vasoconstrictor?
1) 18.0mg.
2) 0.018mg.
3) 1.8mg.
4) 0.18mg.
E. 180.0mg.
ADC Test Answer: 2
In a 1.8ml solution of 2% lidocaine, there is 0.018mg of epinephrine present for every 1ml of solution.
What is the primary risk associated with the use of nitrous oxide in patients with cerebral palsy?
1) Increased risk of aspiration
2) Decreased muscle tone leading to airway obstruction
3) Enhanced sensitivity to the anesthetic effects
4) Increased risk of dental caries
Patients with cerebral palsy may have difficulty controlling their airway and swallowing reflexes, which can increase the risk of aspirating during the administration of nitrous oxide.
Which ethical principle emphasizes the importance of doing no harm to patients?
1) Autonomy
2) Beneficence
3) Non-maleficence
4) Justice
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 3Non-maleficence is the ethical principle that requires healthcare providers to avoid causing harm to patients. It is a fundamental tenet of medical ethics.
Stage of surgical anaesthesia is:
1) Stage I
2) Stage II
3) Stage III plane 2
4) Stage III plane 3
Stage III plane 3 is considered the stage of surgical anaesthesia because laryngeal reflex goes in this stage, and patient can be intubated.
Kiwi is known to potentially cause which types of hypersensitivity reactions?
1) Type II
2) Type III
3) Type I
4) Type IV
Kiwi can trigger type I hypersensitivity reactions, such as anaphylaxis and urticaria, due to IgE-mediated responses to specific proteins in the fruit.
Surface activity and low toxic potential?
1) Cocaine
2) Bupivacaine
3) Benzocaine
4) Procaine
Benzocaine is the correct answer because it has surface activity and low toxic potential.
Fat Embolism is diagnosed by - 1. Fluffy Exudates in Retina 2. Fat Droplets in Sputum 3. Fat droplets in Urine
Which nerve fibers are responsible for pulpal pain?
1) A-alpha fibers
2) A-delta fibers
3) C fibers
4) Both 2 and 3
A-delta fibers are responsible for sharp, stabbing pain associated with pulpal pain, while C fibers transmit dull, aching pain.
Which factor is likely implicated in the excessive fibrinolysis observed in localized alveolar osteitis?
1) Platelets
2) Fibrinogen
3) Plasmin
4) Thrombin
Excessive local fibrinolytic activity, primarily due to elevated levels of plasmin, is implicated in the development of localized alveolar osteitis after tooth extractions.
What is a secondary caries lesion?
1) A lesion that occurs on the surface of a restored tooth
2) A lesion that occurs only in the presence of fluoride
3) A lesion that is limited to the enamel surface
4) A lesion that occurs only in children
Secondary or recurrent caries occur at the junction of the tooth and a restoration, often due to microleakage or inadequate oral hygiene.
The most appropriate gingival contour of a fixed partial denture connector is
1) concave.
2) convex.
3) flat.
4) none
A convex contour ensures proper hygiene by reducing plaque accumulation and
facilitates better gingival health.
Concave contours can trap debris and promote inflammation.
What is the most appropriate management for an avulsed permanent tooth?
1) Rinse with water and replant immediately
2) Store in milk and seek immediate dental care
3) Let the tooth dry out and place it in a coffee cup
4) Wrap in tissue paper and keep in a pocket
Avulsed teeth should be kept moist, ideally in cold milk, saline, or the patient's own saliva, and dental care should be sought immediately for the best chance of successful re-implantation.
The alpha-1 function post-synaptically at the neuromuscular junction
is responsible for:
1) Smooth muscle contraction
2) Skeletal muscle contraction
3) Cardiac muscle contraction
4) Inhibition of muscle contraction
Alpha-1 receptors mediate the contraction of skeletal muscles.
Cardio stable anaesthetic:
1) Etomidate
2) Propadanil
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopental
Etomidate is considered a cardio-stable anaesthetic.
What is the ideal angle for subgingival curettage with universal curettes?
1) 45 degrees
2) 60 degrees
3) 70 degrees
4) 90 degrees
A 45-degree angle is optimal for subgingival curettage, allowing effective scaling while preserving soft tissue.
What is the name of the surgical instrument used for luxating a tooth during extraction?
1) Elevator
2) Forceps
3) Excavator
4) Chisel
Forceps are the primary instruments used for luxating (rocking) and removing teeth during extraction procedures.
The main advantage of osteogenesis distraction is:
1) Increased risk of relapse
2) Large movements with less relapse
3) Shorter treatment time
4) Less pain during the procedure
Osteogenesis distraction is a surgical technique used to gradually lengthen bones. One of its primary advantages is that it allows for substantial bone movements with a reduced risk of relapse compared to other methods. By applying a controlled force over a period, the bone is stretched and new bone forms in the distraction gap, leading to a stable and predictable outcome. The process is generally well-tolerated, with pain managed through medication and adjustments to the distraction device.
The mucosa of the hard palate is?
1) Non-keratinised and lacks submucosa and minor salivary glands.
2) Non-keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posteromedially
3) Keratinised and lacks submucosa and minor salivary glands.
4) Keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posterolaterally
The correct answer is "keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posterolaterally." The hard palate is the bony structure that forms the roof of the mouth.
The junction between primary and secondary dentine is:
1) A reversal line
2) Sharp curvature
3) A resting line
4) A reduction in the number of tubules
ADC Test Answer: 2
The relationship between primary and secondary dentine is characterized by a sharp transition in the curvature of dentinal tubules as changes in odontoblast activity occur post-eruption.
What is the most common location for oral squamous cell carcinoma?
1) Tongue
2) Buccal mucosa
3) Hard palate
4) Floor of the mouth
The lateral borders of the tongue are the most common sites for oral squamous cell carcinoma, often due to the exposure to carcinogenic agents and irritation.
What enzyme assists microorganisms in the dentin caries process?
1) Enolase
2) Collagenase
3) Amylase
4) Lactoferrin
Enolase plays a crucial role in the metabolic processes of bacteria involved in dentin caries, facilitating their growth and acid production.
If an interproximal composite filling fails, what is likely to happen?
1) Overcontouring
2) Undercontouring
3) Overhang
4) Fracture
An improperly placed interproximal composite filling can create an overhang, leading to plaque accumulation and periodontal issues.
Which of the following is not a part of behavioral science?:
1) Social Psychology
2) Economics
3) Sociology
4) Social Anthropology
Economics is not a part of behavioral science because it primarily focuses on
the production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services, as well as
the behavior of individuals and organizations in the market. Behavioral science,
on the other hand, is a multidisciplinary field that studies human behavior and
interactions, drawing from various disciplines such as psychology, sociology,
and social anthropology. While economics may incorporate some aspects of human
behavior, it is not considered a core component of behavioral science.
Which of the following is not one of the consequences of using Herbst appliance in treatment of Class II malocclusion?
1) Increase in mandibular growth
2) Over corrected Class I molar relation
3) Increase in SNB angle
4) Increase in overjet
Solution The following are the effects when Herbst appliance used for treatment of Class II malocclusion:
1.
2. Increased mandibular growth
3. Distal driving of maxillary molars which helps to achieve molar relation.
4. Reduction of overjet by increasing mandibular length and proclination of mandibular incisors.
5. Inhibitory effect on sagittal maxillary growth
6. Weislander suggested double contour of glenoid fossa which indicates anterior transformation of glenoid fossa
7. Increased SNB angle and decreased SNA angle.
Which of the following conditions CONTRAINDICATES routine dental treatment in the dental office?
1) Hypothyroidism.
2) Recent (15 days) myocardial infarction
3) Second trimester pregnancy.
4) Insulin-dependent diabetes.
A recent myocardial infarction (heart attack) poses significant risks during dental procedures due to potential stress and anxiety that can exacerbate cardiovascular issues. Patients who have had a myocardial infarction within the last 15 days are typically advised to avoid routine dental treatment until they have been medically cleared, as they may be at increased risk for complications.
Which of the following is the drug of choice in bupivacaine induced VT:
1) Lidocaine
2) Phenytoin
3) Digoxin
4) Quinidine
The drug of choice is bretylium but in its absence lignocaine can be used.
What is the most common finding after a dental complaint in young children?
1) Acute periodontal abscess.
2) Chronic periodontal abscess.
3) Apical abscess.
4) Chronic alveolar abscess.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Young children are more prone to developing apical abscesses due to their immature immune systems and the prevalence of dental caries.
What is the best way to communicate with a patient who has an intellectual disability?
1) Using medical jargon to assert authority
2) Using simple language and visual aids
3) Ignoring the patient and speaking only to their caregiver
4) Relying on nonverbal cues from the patient
Communicating with a patient with an intellectual disability requires patience and clarity.
Cardiac or central nervous system toxicity may result when standard lidocaine doses are administrated to patient with circulatory failure. This may be due to the following reason:
1) Lidocaine concentration are initially higher in relatively well perfused tissues such as brain and heart
2) Histamine receptors in brain and heart get suddenly activated in circulatory failure
3) There is sudden outburst of release of adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine in brain and heart
4) Lidocaine is converted into toxic metabolite due to longer stay in liver
Lignocaine (as with other lipid soluble anaesthetic agents) initially reaches to well perfused areas like brain and heart so in circulatory failure blood from non vital structures is diverted to vital structures like brain and heart and patient can develop toxic levels.
Developing roots will split when the:
1) Epithelial diaphragm forms too many lateromedial extensions.
2) Dental follicle cells migrate into the epithelial diaphragm.
3) Cementoblasts fail to develop on and stabilize the root’s surface.
4) Periodontal ligament forms too soon.
Oral Embryology Answer: 1Excessive extensions of the epithelial diaphragm during root development result in root splitting and the formation of supernumerary roots.
Highest incidence of intravascular injection is with:
1) Supraclavicular
2) Interscalene
3) Intercostal
4) Axillary
Local Anesthesia Answer: 3
Intercostal Highest blood levels of local anaesthetic per volume injected is seen after intercostal nerve block.
A patient on diuretics may experience which oral side effect? 1) Xerostomia (dry mouth) 2) Gingival hyperplasia 3) Stomatitis 4) Facial swelling
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 1Diuretics can lead to xerostomia, commonly observed in patients on long-term antihypertensive therapy.
What is the main advantage of using implant-supported dentures in
gerodontology?
1) Improved retention and stability
2) Reduced cost compared to traditional dentures
3) Elimination of the need for oral hygiene
4) Prevention of bone resorption in the jaw
Implant-supported dentures provide superior retention and stability
compared to conventional dentures, which can enhance masticatory function and
patient comfort.
What is the purpose of a pulp vitality test before a restorative procedure?
1) To determine the presence of pulp infection.
2) To assess the depth of the cavity preparation.
3) To evaluate the need for endodontic treatment.
4) To ensure that the patient is not allergic to the restorative material.
ADC Test Answer: 1
Pulp vitality tests are conducted to assess the health of the tooth's pulp and identify any signs of infection before proceeding with a restorative treatment.
How do rests help in force transmission?
1) By redirecting forces perpendicularly
2) By directing forces parallel to the long axis of the abutment tooth
3) By absorbing all the forces
4) By separating the teeth
Rests are designed to direct forces of mastication parallel to the long axis of the abutment to enhance support.
Boy with sickle cell trait. what mode of anaesthesia will you avoid in him?
1) IVRA (intravenous regional anesthesia)
2) supraclavicular brachial plexus block
3) brachial plexus block infraclavicular approach
4) brachial plexus block axillary approach (humeral) approach.
Local Anesthesia Answer: 1
Contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy is all except:
1) Tumour involving pyriform sinus
2) Vocal cord fixidity
3) Tumour involving the preepiglottic spread
4) Post cricoid area expansion
Tumour involving the preepiglottic spread is not a contraindication for supraglottic laryngectomy.
For carious lesions, which diagnostic method is appropriate?
1) Carious halfway through enamel on proximal surface – Bitewing
2) Carious halfway through enamel on occlusal surface – Visual exam
3) Carious halfway through dentine not cavitated – Wet surface
4) Stained fissure – Bitewing and visual exam
Each diagnostic method is appropriate for the specific type of carious lesion described.
Visual aids can help reduce anxiety in dental patients by:
1) Making the procedure seem more complex
2) Distracting the patient from their fear
3) Clarifying what will happen during treatment
4) Encouraging the patient to avoid the procedure
Visual aids can improve understanding and reduce anxiety by clearly illustrating the steps of the treatment.
Selective medium for streptococcus mutans?
1 mac conkey medium
2 mitis salivarius bacitracin agar
3 neutrient agar
4 tellurite medium
Colonies of E. coli serotype O157:H7 appear on Mac Conkey Sorbitol Agar as colourless colonies non-sorbitol fermenter. Others E. coli, sorbitol fermenters, give red colonies and gram-negative non-sorbitol fermenters appear translucent.
All are fluorinated anaesthetics except:
1) Methoxyflurane
2) Halothane
3) Sevoflurane
4) Isoflurane
Halothane is fluorinated but does not undergo desfluorination under normal conditions.
What is the recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner?
1) 150F for 2 hours.
2) 180F for 30 minutes.
3) 160F for 30 minutes.
4) 160F for 30 minutes, then boil for 2 hours.
The recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner is to first bring the temperature of the water to 160F (71C) and maintain it for 30 minutes.
What is the effective way to prevent the spread of infection during dental procedures?
1) Use a single-use needle
2) Sterilize instruments thoroughly
3) Disinfect surfaces before and after procedures
4) All of the above
Multiple strategies are essential for infection control in dental settings, including using sterile instruments, disinfecting surfaces, and employing single-use items to prevent cross-contamination.
Which of the following is NOT a component of a comprehensive dental record?
1) Patient medical and dental history
2) Clinical examination findings
3) Treatment plans and consent forms
4) Social security number of the patient's next of kin
E. Financial information
While it's essential to have emergency contact information, including the next of kin, a social security number is not typically considered a necessary part of a comprehensive dental record. The primary components of a comprehensive dental record include the patient's personal and medical/dental history, clinical examination findings, diagnoses, treatment plans, consent forms, and radiographs/images.
What does a serological smear test diagnose?
1) Candidiasis.
2) Squamous cell carcinoma.
3) Lichen planus.
4) Herpes simplex.
E. Pemphigoid.
ADC Test Answer: 4
A serological smear test can be used to diagnose Herpes simplex virus infections by identifying the presence of the virus in the smear from the lesion.
Which of the following medications is known to potentially cause a lichenoid reaction?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Beta blockers
3) Paracetamol
4) Antibiotics
Beta blockers and certain other medications, including NSAIDs and antimalarials, can cause lichenoid drug reactions, characterized by oral lesions resembling lichen planus.
After completion of endodontic chemomechanical debridement
1) all tissue should be removed from the root canal system.
2) permanent inflammation may be cause4)
3) the root canal should be sterile.
4) some areas of the root canal system may be incompletely cleaned
Despite thorough chemomechanical debridement, it is common for certain areas within the complex anatomy of the root canal system to remain inadequately cleaned. This can occur due to the presence of lateral canals, isthmuses, or other anatomical variations that are difficult to access, leading to potential areas of infection or inflammation.
Which antihypertensive agent is a direct renin inhibitor?
1) Aliskiren
2) Ramipril
3) Valsartan
4) Verapamil
Aliskiren directly inhibits renin, reducing the production of angiotensin I and lowering blood pressure.
What material is LEAST usable for an impression of PFM (Porcelain-Fused-to-Metal)?
A. Alginate
B. Polyvinyl siloxane
C. Polyether
D. Agar
Alginate is primarily used for making preliminary impressions due to its set time and hydrophilic properties but does not provide the necessary detail and stability required for precise impressions needed for PFMs.
Developed hypo reactivity to a drug is
1) Detoxification
2) Antagonism
3) Tolerance
4) Desensitization
Tolerance: The capacity to absorb a drug continuously or in large doses without adverse effect; diminution in the response to a drug after prolonged use.
N-acetyl muramic is intermediate in the biosynthesis the cell wall
What is the recommended fluoride concentration for community water fluoridation?
1) 0.5 ppm
2) 1.0 ppm
3) 1.5 ppm
4) 2.0 ppm
The recommended fluoride concentration for community water fluoridation is 1.0 ppm, which is effective in reducing dental caries.
A permanent tooth erupting in the mouth of an 11 years old child is most likely 1. maxillary lateral incisor 2. mandibular second bicuspid 3. maxillary third molar 4. rnandibular central incisor
Dental Anatomy Answer: 2A permanent tooth erupting in the mouth of an 11 years old child is most likely mandibular second bicuspid
Which of the following is a common challenge in providing dental care to patients with Alzheimer's disease?
1) Difficulty in understanding and following instructions
2) Increased tolerance for pain and discomfort
3) Enhanced manual dexterity for oral hygiene
4) Decreased sensitivity to taste and smell
Alzheimer's disease is characterized by cognitive impairment, which can make it challenging for patients to follow complex instructions or remember to perform oral hygiene tasks.
What is the term for the process of cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilizing
reusable dental handpieces?
1) Decontamination
2) Sterilization
3) Reprocessing
4) Disinfection
Reprocessing refers to the steps taken to prepare reusable dental
handpieces for safe use on another patient, including cleaning, disinfection,
and sterilization.
Following a simple extraction of tooth 47, hemostasis was achieved Forty eight hours later, there is renewed
bleeding from the extraction site. Firm pressure fails to achieve hemostasis.
The most appropriate management is to
1) give local anesthetic, pack and suture.
2) apply firm pressure and ice for 10 minutes.
3) obtain an international normalized ratio (INR) and a complete blood count
4) give local anesthetic and electrocauterize the socket.
Postoperative bleeding may indicate a coagulopathy or systemic issue requiring investigation.
What is the main function of EDTA in endodontics?
1) Decalcification of dentine
2) Cleaning debris from root canal
3) Achieving hemostasis
4) Enhancing bonding strength
ADC Test Answer: 1
EDTA is primarily used for its ability to decalcify dentin and facilitate the removal of the smear layer during root canal treatment.
What is the CQC's role in monitoring dental record keeping?
- It sets the standards for record keeping in dentistry
- It checks for compliance with GDC guidelines
- It enforces data protection laws
- It conducts audits of dental practices
The Care Quality Commission (CQ3) is responsible for inspecting and auditing healthcare providers, including dental practices, to ensure they meet the fundamental standards of care, which includes good record keeping.
In which stages of tooth development does the enamel organ form?
1) Bud stage
2) Cap stage
3) Bell stage
4) All of the above
The enamel organ develops through different stages of tooth development, including the bud, cap, and bell stages, contributing to tooth enamel formation.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) Trigger zones
2) Night pain
3) Sudden onset of pain
4) Pain during chewing
Trigeminal neuralgia typically presents with sudden, severe facial pain triggered by specific stimuli, but it is not characterized by night pain.
What is the percentage of edentulous patients in England and Scotland?
1) 10%
2) 25%
3) 50%
4) 64%
Approximately 64% of adults over 65 years are edentulous in the UK, reflecting the impact of dental health over time.
What is the primary legal obligation related to dental records?
- To store them for a minimum of five years
- To provide them to the patient upon request
- To destroy them after treatment is completed
- To never disclose them without the patient's consent
Dentists are legally required to provide patients with a copy of their dental records when requested.
Which of the following is a common dental consideration in patients with autism?
1) Hyperactivity
2) Sensitivity to sensory stimuli
3) Aggressive behavior
4) Poor nutritional habits
Patients with autism often experience heightened sensitivity to sensory input, which can affect their comfort during dental procedures.
What artery provides nourishment to the TMJ?
1) Superficial temporal artery
2) Maxillary artery
3) Facial artery
4) Inferior alveolar artery
The superficial temporal artery, a branch of the maxillary artery, provides blood supply to the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).
How can a cusp fracture immediate to a Class II inlay be detected?
1) History.
2) Visually.
3) Radiograph.
4) Percussion.
E. Touching the tip of the cusp / Pressure on the cusp.
ADC Test Answer: 3
A cusp fracture may not always be visible on a radiograph due to its location and extent, but it is often the best method to detect such a fracture in a clinical setting.
For a young adult with tooth surface loss, which treatment option is best?
1) Restorative dentistry
2) Behavioral modification
3) Removal of iatrogenic causes
4) Surgery
Identifying and removing any causes of tooth surface loss, especially those related to dental treatments, is critical in addressing and preventing further damage.
In the absence of its permanent successor, a primary first molar of a 7 year old
1) should be treated endodontically to prevent root resorption.
2) may remain for years with no significant resorption.
3) should be extracted
4) is more susceptible to dental caries.
In the absence of a successor, primary molars often remain functional and stable
for extended periods.
Morphine causes vomiting by 1. stimulation of the no dose ganglion of the vagus 2. direct stimulation of the gastrointestinal musculature 3. stimulation of the medullary chemo receptor trigger zone 4. a direct irritant action on the gastric mucosa.
Pharmacology Answer: 3Morphine causes vomiting by stimulation of the medullary chemo receptor trigger zone
What type of crown is placed after a Nayyar core technique?
1) Porcelain-fused-to-metal crown
2) Amalgam crown
3) All-ceramic crown
4) Gold crown
The Nayyar core technique is often followed by placing an amalgam crown due to its strength and durability.
A successful infraorbital nerve block will produce anaesthesia of the?
1) Maxillary anterior teeth.
2) Maxillary anterior teeth, their labial gingivae and the upper lip
3) Maxillary anterior teeth and their labial gingivae.
4) Maxillary anterior teeth, their labial gingivae, the upper lip and anterior hard palate
A successful infraorbital nerve block will produce anesthesia of the maxillary anterior teeth, their labial gingivae, and the upper lip.
What is the legal age at which a patient can typically provide informed
consent for their dental treatment?
1) 16 years old
2) 18 years old
3) 21 years old
4) Varies by state
The legal age for informed consent is not uniform across all states. Some states allow minors to consent to their own dental treatment at ages 16 or 17, while others require parental or guardian consent until the age of 18. It is essential for dentists to know the laws of the state in which they practice.
What does N1 indicate in the TNM classification?
1) No regional lymph node metastases
2) One ipsilateral node < 3 cm diameter
3) Ipsilateral or contralateral nodes 3-6 cm diameter
4) Lymph node metastasis > 6 cm diameter
N1 indicates the presence of one regional lymph node that is less than 3 cm in diameter, which is significant for staging the extent of cancer spread.
Which immunoglobulin types are produced in the Peyer patches of the intestine?
1) IgG and IgE
2) IgA and IgM
3) IgM only
4) IgD only
Within the Peyer patches, B lymphocytes stimulate the production of IgA and IgM, which are crucial for mucosal immunity.
The minimum and maximum temperature for normal metabolic activity microorganisms that live on or within the human body is 1 5°to 30° 2 20° C to 45°C 3. 30°C to 40°C 4. 15°C to 6O°C
Microbiology Answer: 2The minimum and maximum temperature for normal metabolic activity microorganisms that live on or within the human body is 20° C to 45°C
A patient with a recent complete denture has an ulcer in the buccal sulcus. What is the likely cause?
A. Incorrect occlusion
B. Denture stability
C. Overextended flange
D. Material reaction
An ulcer in the buccal sulcus of recent denture wearers is often a result of overextended denture flanges irritating the soft tissues, leading to ulceration.
Recurrent unilateral submandibular swelling and pain just prior to meals is
indicative of
1) an odontogenic infection.
2) sialolithiasis.
3) ranul1)a
4) sarcoidosis.
E. Sjögren’s syndrome.
Salivary stones block ducts, causing pain and swelling when saliva production
increases, such as during meals.
What is the first step in managing trismus?
1) Prescribing muscle relaxants
2) Applying heat to the affected area
3) Administering corticosteroids
4) Performing surgical intervention
Initial treatment for trismus includes applying heat and administering anti-inflammatory medications to reduce muscle spasm.
Rapid induction of anaesthesia occurs with which of the following anaesthetic:
1) Isoflurane
2) Halothane
3) esflurane
4) Sevoflurane
Desflurane has the lowest blood gas partition coefficient of 0.42, so has fastest induction and recovery.
What enzyme assists microorganisms in the dentin caries process?
1) Enolase
2) Collagenase
3) Amylase
4) Lactoferrin
Enolase plays a crucial role in the metabolic processes of bacteria involved in dentin caries, facilitating their growth and acid production.
What is a key benefit of using electronic dental records (EDR) over traditional paper records?
1) Increased storage space
2) Improved access and easy retrieval
3) More paperwork
4) Higher costs
EDR systems enhance the ability to access and retrieve patient information quickly and efficiently compared to paper records.
Strength and hardness of a gypsum model or cast are affected by water-powder ratio and porosity of cast
All of the following are signs of successful stellate ganglion block, except:
1) Flushing of face
2) Conjunctival congestion
3) Mydriasis
4) Nasal stuffiness
Local Anesthesia Answer: 3
Mydriasis Stellate ganglion block is sympathetic block leading to Horner syndrome, (which includes miosis, ptosis, anhydrosis, enophthalmos), flushing of face, conjunctival congestion nasal stuffiness increased skin temperature and congestion of tympanic membrane.
Which of the accompanying is NOT an intermediate acting muscle relaxant?
- Cisatracurium
- Rocuronium
- Mivacurium
- Vecuronium
Mivacurium is a short-acting muscle relaxant.
Whom to contact if there is a 20% increase in radiation dose?
1) The clinic manager
2) The radiation protection advisor
3) The health and safety officer
4) The dental board
The radiation protection advisor should be contacted to assess and address any significant increases in radiation exposure.
Impressions taken with which of the following materials are subject to distortion as a result of water sorption? 1. silicone rubber 2. polysulflde polymers 3. zinc oxide-eugenol-paste 4. polyether
Dental Material Answer: 4polyether materials are subject to distortion as a result of water sorption
First sign of complication of anaesthesia:
1) Tachycardia
2) Bradycardia
3) Hypertension
4) Convulsions
Tachycardia is often the first sign of many complications seen in anaesthesia.
What is the most common complication following third molar extraction?
1) Alveolar osteitis (dry socket)
2) Infection
3) Nerve injury
4) Trismus
Dry socket is a frequent complication due to the loss of the blood clot in the extraction site, leading to pain and discomfort.
The basic principle of Orthodontic spot welder lies on the concept of :-
1 Heat technique
2) Quenching
3) Diodelasers
4) Electrode Technique
SOLUTION The type of welding used to join Orthodontic components is called Spot welding.
1. Transmit current to the metals to be joined so as to cause a rapid increase in temperature.
2. The electrodes help in conducting the heat produced away from the area so as to preserve the properties of stainless steel around the weld spot.
3. The electrode also help in holding together the two metals to be joined.
4. The electrodes are designed to apply pressure on the metals being joined. As soon as the temperature increases, the pressure exerted by the electrodes helps in squeezing metal into each other.
What happens to the pH of the oral cavity after exposure to sugars and acids,
according to the Stephan Curve?
1) It rapidly increases.
2) It remains constant.
3) It rapidly decreases and then gradually recovers.
4) It decreases and does not recover.
The Stephan Curve shows that the oral pH drops quickly after sugar or acid exposure but gradually recovers to a neutral state within 30 minutes due to salivary buffering.
What factor can enhance the bicarbonate-mediated acid-neutralizing effect of saliva?
1) High-fat diet
2) Decreased salivary flow
3) Increased salivary flow
4) Sleep
Increased salivary flow naturally raises bicarbonate levels in the saliva, which helps to neutralize acids in plaque more effectively, protecting against enamel demineralization and promoting oral health.
Platelets play an important role in hemostasis; which of the following describes this role?
1) They convert fibrinogen to fibrin
2) They agglutinate and plug small, ruptured vessels
3) They initiate fibrinolysis in thrombosis
4) They supply fibrin stabilizing factors
ADC Test Answer: 2
Platelets are crucial for forming a plug at the site of vessel injury, which is a key step in the hemostatic process.
Orthodontic tooth movement is inhibited by which of the following drugs
1) NSAIDS, such as Brufen
2) OPIOIDS, such as CORTISONE
3) Antibiotics such as tetracycline
4) Vasoconstrictors such as adrenaline
SOLUTION NSAIDS, i.e.
• Nimesulide does not interfere with PG production and so can be safely given during tooth movements.
What is the most common type of periodontal charting? 1) Probing depths 2) Gingival recession 3) Tooth mobility 4) Furcation involvement
Dental Records Answer: 1Probing depths are the most commonly recorded periodontal charting measurement. They indicate the distance from the free gingival margin to the bottom of the periodontal pocket and are crucial in assessing the health of the periodontium.
The thoracic duct is located in the:
1) Anterior mediastinum
2) Posterior mediastinum
3) Middle mediastinum
4) Lateral mediastinum
The thoracic duct lies in the posterior mediastinum, between the descending thoracic aorta and the azygos vein.
While combining NaOCH and H2O2 as irrigants
1) H2O2 should be used last
2) NaOCH should be used last
3) First irrigation should be done by normal saline
4) NaOCH and H2O2 should never be used simultaneously
Because residual H2O2 might react with debris and produce gas that can cause continuous pain.
A lingual approach for a conservative Class III preparation for a composite
resin requires
1) a retentive internal form.
2) parallelism of the incisal and gingival walls.
3) maintenance of the incisal contact are1)
4) All of the above.
When preparing a Class III cavity using a lingual approach, several factors must be considered to ensure the success of the restoration:
- A retentive internal form: The preparation must have features that provide retention for the composite material, preventing it from dislodging over time.
- Parallelism of the incisal and gingival walls: Maintaining parallel walls helps in achieving a proper fit for the composite material and ensures that the restoration is stable and aesthetically pleasing.
- Maintenance of the incisal contact area: Preserving the incisal contact is crucial for maintaining the functional and aesthetic aspects of the tooth, as it helps in proper occlusion and prevents shifting of adjacent teeth.
A successful stellate ganglion block can produce:
1) Hypotension
2) Horner syndrome
3) Brachial plexus involvement
4) All of the above
Local Anesthesia Answer: 4
All of the above Successful stellate ganglion will produce Horner syndrome (ptosis, miosis.
Metronidazole is a treatment of choice for :
1) Salmonellosis
2) Ulcerative colitis
3) hookworm parasitic infection
4) Pseudomembranous colitis
metronidazole 250 mg po qid for 7 to 10 days is the treatment of choice. Oral vancomycin 125 mg qid is reserved for the most severe or resistant cases
The antimicrobials most widely regarded as optimal for the treatment of salmonellosis in adults is the group of fluoroquinolones.
What is TRUE in regards to osteogenesis imperfecta?
1) Manifests with blue sclera
2) May be associated with deafness
3) Sex-linked disorder of bones that develop in cartilage
4) All of the above
ADC Test Answer: 1
Osteogenesis imperfecta is characterized by fragile bones, blue sclera due to thin collagen in the eye, and may also have associations with hearing loss.
An increase of the pressure within one of the carotid sinuses would result in an increase in 1) Mean arterial pressure 2) Cardiac output 3) The activity of the pressor center 4) The activity of cardiac vagal fibers
Physiology Answer: 4An increase of the pressure within one of the carotid sinuses would result in an increase in The activity of cardiac vagal fibers
Austenite is an alloy of iron and carbon with the iron in
1) Alpha form
2) Beta form
3) Gamma form
4) None of the above
Austenite is an alloy of iron and carbon where the iron exists in the Gamma (γ) form.
The afferent limb to the upper epiglottis is via which nerve?
1) Superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10)
2) Inferior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10)
3) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9)
4) Lingual nerve (CN 5)
The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9) is a mixed cranial nerve that carries both
sensory and motor fibers.
The superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10) innervates the mucous
membranes of the larynx below the level of the epiglottis, while the inferior
laryngeal branch innervates the muscles of the larynx, not the epiglottis. The
lingual nerve (CN 5) is primarily involved in the sensation of the anterior
two-thirds of the tongue and the mucosa of the floor of the mouth, not the
epiglottis.
In an average child the mixed dentition period is from 1. 10 years to 25 years 2. 4 yrs to 12 yrs 3. 8 yrs to 17 yrs 4. 6 yrs to 13 years
Dental Anatomy Answer: 4In an average child the mixed dentition period is from 6 yrs to 13 y
What is the primary concern when treating geriatric patients with
cognitive impairment?
1) The absence of caries
2) Comfortable chair position
3) Financial considerations
4) Behavior management
Behavior management is crucial when treating geriatric patients with cognitive impairment as it helps in ensuring their cooperation and reducing anxiety, which can significantly affect the quality of care provided.
Before performing periodontal surgery, it is important to:
1) Prescribe a mouthwash.
2) Prescribe systemic antibiotics.
3) Control plaque.
4) None of the above.
Controlling plaque is essential to reduce bacterial load, improve healing outcomes, and decrease postoperative complications.
What is the natural buffer in saliva that helps neutralize acidity and combat
demineralization?
1) Phosphoric acid (H3PO4)
2) Bicarbonate (HCO3-)
3) Carbonic acid (H2CO3)
4) Lactic acid
Saliva contains bicarbonate, which acts as a natural buffer to help maintain oral pH equilibrium and protect against demineralization.
What is the primary reason for using single-use items in
dentistry?
1) To save costs
2) To enhance patient comfort
3) To prevent cross-contamination
4) To reduce waste
Single-use items are primarily used to prevent cross-contamination and reduce the risk of infection, ensuring patient safety during dental procedures.
What is the primary purpose of maintaining accurate and complete dental records?
1) To comply with legal requirements
2) To facilitate effective communication among dental professionals
3) To ensure proper patient care and treatment planning
4) All of the above
Accurate and complete dental records serve multiple purposes, including legal documentation, communication among dental professionals, patient care and treatment planning, and insurance reimbursement. They are essential for continuity of care, patient safety, and practice management.
What are the layers of the skin from innermost to outermost?
1) Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale
2) Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum
3) Stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale, stratum corneum, stratum lucidum
4) Stratum lucidum, stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale
These layers represent the structure of the epidermis, with the stratum lucidum being thickest on the palms and soles.
Which of the following clinical conditions is the most serious?
1) Acute apical abscess of a mandibular central incisor.
2) Mid facial cellulitis.
3) Chronic apical abscess of a mandibular third molar.
4) Infected dentigerous cyst.
Mid-facial cellulitis can rapidly progress to life-threatening complications
like cavernous sinus thrombosis or airway obstruction.
Shortest duration local anaesthetic is:
1) Chloroprocaine
2) Bupivacaine
3) Lignocaine
4) Procaine
Shortest duration local anaesthetic is chloroprocaine with duration of effect only 15-30 minutes.
What is the correct dose of Amoxicillin oral suspension for a child?
1) 250mg/5ml
2) 125mg/5ml
3) 500mg/5ml
4) 100mg/5ml
The standard pediatric dosage for Amoxicillin oral suspension is typically 125mg/5ml, an important medication for treating bacterial infections in children.
Continuous education and training for dental staff on infection control practices are vital for maintaining a safe environment and reducing the risk of infection.
Which shape describes a triangular occlusal rest?
1) Circular
2) Triangular
3) Boomerang-shaped
4) Cingulum-shaped
The triangular occlusal rest is specifically shaped to fit the contours of the occlusal surface.
Which type of rest is often used for additional support or indirect retention?
1) Primary rest
2) Secondary rest
3) Occlusal rest
4) Cingulum rest
Secondary or auxiliary rests provide additional support and help in maintaining retention in the RPD.
What is the best method to disinfect a dental bridge before sending it to the lab?
1) Soaking in bleach
2) Autoclaving
3) Using 70% isopropyl alcohol
4) Rinsing with water
70% isopropyl alcohol is effective for disinfecting dental appliances as it kills bacteria and viruses without damaging the material of the bridge.
Three types of expansion that are possible in an investment are 1. thermal expansion, hygroscopic expansion, and setting expansion 2. thermal expansion, casting expansion, and metal expansion 3. casting expansion, hygroscopic expansion, and thermal expansion 4. thermal expansion, hygroscopic expansion, and metal expansion
Dental Material Answer: 1Types of expansion that are possible in an investment are thermal expansion, hygroscopic expansion, and setting expansion
Local anaesthetic used as an antiarrhythmic agent is:
1) Bupivacaine
2) Lignocaine
3) Cocaine
4) Chlorprocaine
It is also used to treat ventricular tachycardia and to perform nerve blocks Dosage Of Local Anesthesia: 1) Safety dose of 2% Lignocaine is 4.5mg/kg without a Vasoconstrictor Without a Vasoconstrictor 300 mg (maximum dose) 2) Safety dose of 2% Lignocaine is 7mg/kg with a Vasoconstrictor With a Vasoconstrictor – 500 mg (maximum dose) 3) As 1ml of 2% Lignocaine contains 20mg – Where the Maximum safety dose being 300 mg So 15 ml of Drug can be given safely 4) 1:1,00,000 concentration means 1 part of Adrenaline is 1,00,000 parts of Solution Safety Dose of Adrenaline for Dental Use in normal patients is 0.2 mg – which means 20 ml of LA can be given to normal patients containing Adrenaline For cardiac Patients the safety dose of Adrenaline is 0.04mg – Which means 4ml of LA can be given to Patients with cardiac problems containing Adrenaline 5) If the concentration of LA is 1:50,000 – 10 ml of LA can be given safely
What fluoride treatment is recommended for a child with a high caries rate?
1) 2,800 ppm toothpaste
2) 5,000 ppm toothpaste
3) Application of 2.2% Duraphat 2 times yearly
4) Application of 2.2% Duraphat 3-4 times yearly
For children with a high caries rate, more frequent applications of fluoride varnish like Duraphat are recommended to provide additional protection.
Which of the following is a well-recognized feature of capitation-based remuneration?
1) Encourages under-prescribing
2) Encourages high technical quality of work
3) Encourages high output of procedures
4) Encourages over-prescribing
Capitated payments encourage dentists to provide quality treatment since their income is not based on the number of procedures performed.
The Nitrate which does not undergo first pass metabolism is:
1) Isosorbide mononitrate
2) Nitroglycerine
3) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
4) Isosorbide dinitrate
In humans, isosorbide mononitrate is not subject to first pass metabolism in the liver.
This reduces the intra- and interindividual variations in plasma evels and leads to predictable and reproducible clinical effects.
What is the average number of 15-year-olds who have lost 6-7 teeth?
1) 1.1
2) 3.1
3) 4.7
4) 5.5
Current statistics indicate that approximately 3.1% of 15-year-olds have lost 6-7 teeth due to caries or other dental issues.
What percentage of hypertension cases is accounted for by primary or essential hypertension? 1) 50% 2) 60% 3) 75% 4) 90%
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 4Primary or essential hypertension makes up about 90% of all hypertension cases, typically with no identifiable cause and is associated with factors like genetics, smoking, and obesity.
What should a dentist do if a patient is unable to provide informed consent
due to language barriers?
1) Proceed with treatment without consent
2) Use a family member as an interpreter
3) Use a professional interpreter or translation services
4) Rely on non-verbal cues from the patient
Dentists should use professional interpreters or translation services to communicate effectively with patients who do not speak the same language. This ensures accurate information is conveyed and that the patient fully understands their treatment options and can make informed decisions.
Which component of amalgam gives strength?
1) Copper
2) Silver
3) Tin
4) Zinc
Copper enhances the strength and hardness of dental amalgam, making it a critical component in its formulation.
What is the most common cause for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars?
1) Dental caries
2) Pericoronitis
3) Impaction due to tumor
4) Orthodontic reasons
Pericoronitis is an inflammation of the tissue around the crown of a partially erupted tooth, often the third molar. It is the most common reason for extracting impacted mandibular third molars.
Creatine Phosphate is the major source of glucose for the whole body during starvation
All of the following have stratified squamous epithelium except:
1) Buccal mucosa
2) Pharynx
3) Maxillary sinus
4) Trachea
The maxillary sinus is lined with ciliated columnar epithelium, while the others have stratified squamous epithelium.
Primary herpes simplex virus infection
1) usually occurs after the age of 20.
2) has a slow onset.
3) may be subclinical.
4) lasts for 1 - 2 days.
In many individuals, the primary infection does not produce noticeable symptoms.
Subclinical infections often go unnoticed, though the virus remains dormant in
nerve ganglia, potentially reactivating later.
What is the most common site for oral cancer?
1) Hard palate
2) Lateral borders of the tongue
3) Lower lip
4) Buccal mucosa
The lower lip is the most frequently affected site for oral cancer, while the lateral borders of the tongue are also common sites within the oral cavity.
Can informed consent be given over the phone or through email?
1) Yes, as long as the patient signs and returns the form
2) No, it must always be obtained in person
3) It is preferred in person, but alternatives can be used in some cases
4) Only for emergency treatments
Informed consent is typically a face-to-face interaction where the
dentist can assess the patient's understanding and answer questions. However,
some jurisdictions may allow for alternative methods under certain
circumstances, such as telemedicine or in emergencies.
Which of the following statements about the defective margins of amalgam restoration is true?
1) The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay
2) Secondary caries is less likely with marginal defects
3) Microscopic defects do not affect caries development
4) All margins always prevent secondary caries
ADC Test Answer: 1
Research has shown that larger defects in the margins of amalgam restorations increase the prevalence of secondary caries, making it critical to maintain good margins to prevent decay.
Regarding hand washing, which of the following is true?
1) Alcohol is the only effective agent
2) Chlorhexidine gel is used for surgical hand washing
3) Povidone iodine is not effective
4) Hand washing is not necessary before procedures
Chlorhexidine gel is an effective antiseptic used in surgical hand washing, along with alcohol and povidone iodine.
Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication that functions as a:
1) Vasodilator
2) ACE inhibitor
3) Beta-blocker
4) Calcium channel blocker
Hydralazine is a direct vasodilator that helps reduce blood pressure by relaxing vascular smooth muscle.
The biochemical defect in Osteogenesis Imperfecta, type II is: 1. a mutation in the alpha 1 chain of Type I collagen. 2. a deficiency in collagenase. 3. a deficiency in lysyl oxidase. 4. a deficiency in lysyl hydroxylase.
Biochemistry Answer: 4The biochemical defect in Osteogenesis Imperfecta, type II is a deficiency in lysyl hydroxylase.
What is the difference between acute and chronic dental caries?
1) Acute caries are rapidly progressing and light-colored, while chronic caries
are slower and darker
2) Chronic caries are rapidly progressing and light-colored, while acute caries
are slower and darker
3) Both are rapidly progressing and have similar colors
4) Both are slow progressing and have similar colors
Acute or rampant caries progress quickly, are soft, and often light
in color, whereas chronic caries are slower to develop and can appear darker due
to partial remineralization.
Elevation of aldosterone, in blood results in High 'Na' and high 'K' in urine resulting in acidic urine and body alkalosis
During treatment, the dentist observes that the patient is clenching their fists. This reaction likely indicates:
1) Interest in the procedure
2) Relaxation
3) Anxiety or fear
4) Satisfaction with the treatment
Clenching fists is a common physical response to anxiety or fear, indicating that the patient may need additional support.
What is the role of the auditory tube?
1) To equalize pressure in the middle ear
2) To drain fluid from the inner ear
3) To transmit sound waves
4) To protect the ear from infection
The auditory tube (Eustachian tube) connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx, allowing for pressure equalization and drainage of secretions.
Which antihypertensive class includes drugs that are specifically cardioselective or non-cardioselective?
1) ARBs
2) Beta-blockers
3) Calcium channel blockers
4) Diuretics
Beta-blockers can be cardioselective (e.g., Atenolol) or non-cardioselective (e.g., Propranolol), affecting their selectivity on heart rate.
In the context of jurisprudence, what is "malpractice"?
1) A legal term for any dental procedure
2) A form of patient consent
3) Professional negligence that results in harm to a patient
4) The act of providing free dental care
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 3Malpractice refers to a situation where a dental professional fails to provide the standard of care expected in the profession, leading to injury or harm to the patient. It is a legal concept that can result in lawsuits and disciplinary action.
Which anesthetic method is generally avoided in patients with certain neurological conditions?
1) Topical anesthetic
2) Inhalation sedation
3) Intravenous sedation
4) Local anesthetic
Intravenous sedation can present risks for patients with neurological conditions due to the potential for respiratory depression and impaired airway reflexes.
In cases of suspected abuse or neglect, dental professionals should:
1) Keep detailed records of injuries and treatment
2) Ask leading questions to determine the cause of injuries
3) Diagnose the patient with abuse or neglect
4) Treat the injuries and ignore the potential causes
Dental professionals should maintain thorough records of the patient's injuries and treatment, which may be valuable in legal proceedings.
Which cement is more susceptible to failure if contaminated with saliva?
1) Resin cement
2) Glass ionomer cement
3) Zinc phosphate cement
4) Glass ionomer cement (GIC)
GIC is particularly sensitive to contamination with saliva, which can compromise its bonding ability.
Morphine can be used in all the following conditions except:
1) Head injury
2) Asthma
3) Hypothyroidism
4) Diabetes
Morphine is contraindicated in head injury for the following reasons: Causes carbondioxide retention – this in turn increases intracranial tension
Therapeutic doses can cause respiratory depression in head injury patients Vomiting, miosis and altered mentation caused by morphine can interfere with assessment of neurological status
Morphine should be avoided in those with bronchial asthma as it can precipitate an attack of asthma.
Ferrite and austenite are soft and ductile
Ultrashort acting blocker most commonly used in anaesthesia is:
1) Esmolol
2) Nadolol
3) Propranolol
4) Atenolol
Esmolol is metabolized by RBC esterase, making it very short acting with a half-life of only 8-10 minutes.
Laminar flow is mainly dependent on:
1) Density
2) Viscosity
3) Solubility
4) Molecular weight
Laminar flow mainly depends on the viscosity of the gas, while turbulent flow is more dependent on density.
White coat hypertension refers to: 1) Low blood pressure when seeing a doctor 2) Elevated blood pressure only in a medical setting 3) Consistently high blood pressure at all times 4) Normal blood pressure at all times
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2White coat hypertension occurs when blood pressure is elevated only in the presence of healthcare workers.
False statement regarding phenytoin is?
1) It is a teratogenic drug
2) Highly protein bound
3) Induces insulin secretion
4) Follows saturation kinetics
Phenytoin inhibits insulin secretion and causes hyperglycemia.
what %age of NaF is used in iontophoresis:
1.1%
2.2%
3.3%
4.4%
2% NaF is used in iontophoresis. This fluoride treatments brings about granular precipitation in dentinal tubules and reduces tubular diameter.
What is the main goal when treating an anxious patient in dentistry?
1) To complete the treatment as quickly as possible
2) To utilize the maximum amount of sedation
3) To alleviate fear and build trust
4) To avoid all invasive procedures
The primary goal is to reduce anxiety, thereby fostering a trusting relationship that improves the overall treatment experience.
A child presents with multiple bruises in various stages of healing. What should the healthcare provider do first?
1) Ask the child how they got the bruises
2) Report the findings to child protective services
3) Document the injuries and schedule a follow-up
4) Contact the parents for an explanation
When a child presents with signs of potential abuse, the healthcare provider should report the findings to child protective services immediately.
What is the sequence from superficial to deepest in dentine caries?
1) Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine
2) Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine, demineralisation, sclerosis
3) Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative dentine, demineralisation
ADC Test Answer: 1
In dentine caries progression, the zones typically follow this order, reflecting the advancing infection and the tooth's reparative attempts.
Which nerve is affected if the tongue deviates to the right when protruded?
1) Right hypoglossal
2) Left hypoglossal
3) Glossopharyngeal
4) Vagus
Deviation of the tongue to the right indicates weakness in the right hypoglossal nerve, which innervates the muscles of the tongue.