Dentist Abroad
A successful stellate ganglion block can produce:
1) Hypotension
2) Horner syndrome
3) Brachial plexus involvement
4) All of the above
Local Anesthesia Answer: 4
All of the above Successful stellate ganglion will produce Horner syndrome (ptosis, miosis.
In cases of anorexia nervosa with high caries rates, what management options should be prioritized?
1) Dietary advice
2) Tooth brushing
3) Referral to a GP
4) All of the above
Comprehensive management should include dietary advice, oral hygiene practices, and medical evaluation while working closely with healthcare providers.
Your employer is attempting to update office sterilization procedures; what would you recommend as the BEST method to verify that sterilization has occurred?
1) Use color change tape in each load and spore tests weekly
2) Use indicator strips in each load and color change tape on each package
3) Use indicator strips daily and spore tests weekly
4) Use color change tape daily and spore tests monthly
ADC Test Answer: 3
Color-change tape each load + weekly spore tests – Tape only shows the package was exposed to heat, not that sterilization was achieved. Indicator strips each load + color-change tape each package – No spore testing included → cannot verify sterilization. Indicator strips daily + spore tests weekly – Includes both chemical indicators and weekly spore tests → best match. Color-change tape daily + spore tests monthly – Monthly spore testing is inadequate.
Which of the following has highest minimum alveolar concentration?
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Nitrous oxide
Nitrous oxide has the highest MAC value of 104 among all inhalational anaesthetics.
What enzyme assists microorganisms when they are causing dentine caries?
1) Collagenase
2) Enolase
3) Lactoferrin
4) Amylase
Enolase is involved in the glycolytic pathway of bacteria, aiding in their metabolism and contributing to the caries process.
The diagnosis for a patient having a sinus tract associated with a nonvital pulp
who presents with no symptoms is
1) acute apical abscess (acute periradicular abscess).
2) asymptomatic apical periodontitis (chronic periradicular periodontitis).
3) periodontal abscess.
4) chronic apical abcess (chronic periradicular abscess).
Chronic apical abscesses typically present with sinus tracts and minimal symptoms
Which condition is often associated with an increased risk for periodontal disease?
1) Down syndrome
2) Asthma
3) Hypertension
4) Diabetes
Individuals with Down syndrome have an increased risk of periodontal disease due to factors like hypotonia, which can complicate oral hygiene practices.
The permanent anterior tooth most often missing congenitally is the 1. maxillary central incisor 2. mandibular central incisors 3. mandibular lateral incisors 4. maxillary lateral incisors
Dental Anatomy Answer: 4lateral incisor is most often missing congenitally
What is the best approach to ensure the cooperation of a patient with autism spectrum disorder during dental treatment?
1) Sticking strictly to a predefined treatment schedule
2) Providing a structured and predictable environment
3) Using bright, flashing lights in the operatory
4) Asking the patient to hold their mouth open without support
Patients with autism may benefit from a structured environment with minimal sensory stimulation.
Proximal caries on X-rays appear:
1) Smaller than clinically seen
2) Larger than clinically seen
3) The same size as clinically seen
4) Not visible on X-rays
ADC Test Answer: 1
Proximal caries typically appear smaller on radiographs due to the limitations of two-dimensional imaging.
Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect pulp capping?
1) Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure
2) Removal of caries has exposed the pulp
3) When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ
4) Deep caries without symptoms
ADC Test Answer: 1
Indirect pulp capping is indicated when some softened dentin remains over the pulp but further excavation could risk exposing it, thus preserving pulp vitality.
Hyperthermia can be seen with:
1) Lithium toxicity
2) Opium withdrawal
3) Malignant neuroleptic syndrome
4) Eclampsia
Malignant neuroleptic syndrome, often caused by phenothiazine used for neuroleptanalgesia and premedication, can cause hyperthermia.
The main stimulation for production of A.D.H. is 1. Increase in plasma potassium. 2. Decrease in blood volume 3. Increase in extracellular fluid 4. Decrease inextracellularosmotic pressure
Physiology Answer: 2The main stimulation for production of A.D.H. is Decrease in blood volume - A.D.H. secretion increases during osmotic diuresis
Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can be expected from tissue that is:
1) Fibroedematous
2) Edematous
3) Fibrotic
4) Formed within an infrabony pocket
Edematous tissue is more likely to shrink after curettage due to the presence of excess fluid.
Example Test for type IV hypersensitivity:
1) Coagulase test
2) Mantoux test
3) Schick test
4) Elek’s test
A classic example of delayed type IV hypersensitivity is the Mantoux tuberculin test in which skin induration indicates exposure to tuberculosis. This reaction is called "delayed hypersensitivity" because it is mediated by sensitized CD4+ T lymphocytes which process antigens in association with class II HLA molecules and release lymphokines. Hypersensitivity reactions with this mode of action include: Granulomatous diseases (mycobacteria, fungi) Tuberculin skin reactions Transplant rejection Contact dermatitis Cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) mediated responses: CD8+ T cells are generated and lyse specific cells.
The lymphokines promote a reaction (especially mediated through macrophages) beginning in hours but reaching a peak in 2 to 3 days.
-
Neoplastic cell lysis
-
Transplant rejection
-
Virus-infected cell lysis
Which of the following cements bonds to tooth structure, which has an anticariogenic effect, has a degree of translucency and does not irritate the pulp?
1) Polycarboxylate cement
2) Resin cement
3) Silicate Cement
4) Glass ionomer cement
Chelation of carboxyl groups of the polyacids with the calcium in the apatite of enamel and dentin is the main mechanism through which glass ionomer bonds to tooth structure. Glass ionomers release fluoride which results in the inhibiton of the progression of secondary caries.
They elicit a greater pulp reaction as compared to ZnoE but generally less compared to zinc phosphate cement.
What is the primary role of saliva in oral health?
1) Aids in digestion
2) Provides antibacterial action
3) Helps in remineralization of teeth
4) All of the above
Saliva plays multiple roles in oral health, including aiding digestion, providing antibacterial action, and helping in the remineralization of teeth.
Which clinical sign can indicate an open fracture of the mandible? 1) Sublingual hematoma 2) Mobility of fractured teeth 3) Step in the occlusion 4) Presence of blood-stained saliva
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 4Blood-stained saliva, along with evidence of current or prior bleeding from the tooth sockets, is a strong indicator of an open mandibular fracture, where the fracture communicates with the oral cavity.
What immunoglobulin is predominantly associated with mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)?
1) IgG
2) IgA
3) IgM
4) IgE
IgA is the predominant immunoglobulin associated with mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT).
What is the most abundant immunoglobulin in saliva during infections?
1) IgA
2) IgM
3) IgG
4) IgE
IgA is the most abundant immunoglobulin in saliva and plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity, especially during infections.
Which of the following is NOT a component that reduces cariogenicity?
1) Sucrose
2) Galactose
3) Lactose
4) Fermented carbohydrates
Fermented carbohydrates are not listed as reducing cariogenicity.
What is the most common microorganism found in infected root canals?
1) Streptococcus viridans.
2) Staphylococcus aureus.
3) Lactobacilli.
4) Enterococci.
E. Staphylococcus albus.
ADC Test Answer: 1
Streptococcus viridans is commonly found in infected root canals due to its ability to thrive in the anaerobic environment and form a significant part of the oral flora.
Following the injection of 1.8ml of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine, a
nervous 22 year old male with well
controlled insulin dependent diabetes states that he feels dizzy and weak. Beads
of sweat have accumulated on
his forehead and upper lip. He is quite pale. The initial management of this
patient is to
1) administer glucagon 1.0mg.
2) administer epinephrine 0.5mg.
3) administer diphenhydramine 50mg.
4) elevate the patient's legs and administer 100% oxygen.
These symptoms suggest vasovagal syncope or hypoglycemia; elevating legs improves circulation, and oxygen supports recovery.
What is the most abundant extracellular cation?
1) Calcium
2) Sodium
3) Potassium
4) Magnesium
Sodium is the main extracellular cation, playing a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance and nerve function.
What is the significance of the BPE score in periodontal assessment?
1) It measures the depth of periodontal pockets.
2) It assesses the presence of calculus.
3) It evaluates the overall oral hygiene status.
4) It indicates the need for periodontal treatment.
The Basic Periodontal Examination (BPE) score helps determine the need for further periodontal assessment and treatment based on pocket depth and other clinical findings.
The function of cobalt in a cast chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy is to 1. increase resistance to shear and tensile stresses 2. provide tarnish resistance 3. increase tendency for higher ductility and decrease casting shrinkage 4. contribute strength, rigidity, and hardness
Dental Material Answer: 4Cobalt in a cast chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy contribute to strength, rigidity, and hardness
Which of the following is common to all forms of hemorrhagic shock?
1) Sepsis.
2) Hypovolemia
3) Impaired tissue perfusion.
4) Vasoconstriction.
Hemorrhagic shock results in inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues due to reduced blood volume.
Burs used for refinement and finishing of composites:
1) Fine carbide.
2) Diamond.
3) A and B.
4) Discs.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Refinement and finishing of composites often require a combination of both fine carbide and diamond burs, as each serves distinct functions in achieving a polished finish.
Patients with cerebral palsy may exhibit which of the following oral manifestations?
1) Limited mouth opening and difficulty with oral hygiene
2) Excessive salivation and speech impairment
3) Difficulty swallowing and risk of aspiration
4) All of the above
Cerebral palsy can affect muscle control and coordination, leading to challenges in maintaining good oral hygiene, difficulty with speech and swallowing, and increased risk of aspiration.
The gas with greatest solubility in blood:
1) Nitrous oxide
2) Nitrogen
3) Oxygen
4) Hydrogen
Although the solubility of nitrous oxide in blood is less than other inhalational agents its solubility is 35 limes more than nitrogen and 15 times more than oxygen
During treatment, the dentist observes that the patient is clenching their fists. This reaction likely indicates:
1) Interest in the procedure
2) Relaxation
3) Anxiety or fear
4) Satisfaction with the treatment
Clenching fists is a common physical response to anxiety or fear, indicating that the patient may need additional support.
The muscle assisting in mastication but not supplied by mandibular nerve is tensor veli palatine
Fastest route of absorption of local anaesthetic is?
1) Intercostal
2) Epidural
3) Brachial
4) Caudal
The fastest route for absorption of LA is intercostal block, due to close location of blood vessel around the nerve, so that is why LA are rapidly taken by in intercostal block.
Supracrestal fibrotomy is done after correction of:
1) Crowding
2) Proclined incisors
3) Severely rotated teeth
4) Space closure
Solution Circumferential supracrestal fibrotomy (CSF) eliminates the pull of the stretched supracrestal gingival fibres which are the major cause of orthodontic relapse.
Which of the following represents the normal relationship of the primary canines?
1) The distal inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the mesial inclined plane of the mandibular canine.
2) The mesial inclined plane of the maxillary canine articulates with the distal inclined plane of the mandibular canine.
3) Normal articulation of primary canines is end-to-end.
4) None
Oral MicroAnatomy Answer: 2
In the primary dentition, the mesial inclined
plane of the maxillary canine aligns with the distal inclined plane of the
mandibular canine, facilitating proper occlusal function.
The characteristic translucency of the incisal portion of natural teeth, is achieved in porcelain restorations by the addition of 1.body porcelain 2: enamel porcelain 3. aluminous porcelain 4. opaque porcelain
Dental Material Answer: 2The characteristic translucency of the incisal portion of natural teeth, is achieved in porcelain restorations by the addition of enamel porcelain
Which one of the following is true about oral hairy leukoplakia?
1) Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the dorsal of the tongue
2) Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue
3) Usually caused by Candida species
4) Always associated with trauma to the lateral side of the tongue
ADC Test Answer: 2
Oral hairy leukoplakia is typically associated with Epstein-Barr virus and is most commonly found on the lateral borders of the tongue in immunocompromised individuals.
Activation of a reverse labial bow is done by?
1) Opening the loop
2) Compressing the loop
3) Reversing the loop
4) Bending the loop
Reverse labial bow is so called as activation of the bow is done by opening the U-loop, instead of compressing as is seen in the conventional labial bows.
What does a serological smear test diagnose?
1) Candidiasis.
2) Squamous cell carcinoma.
3) Lichen planus.
4) Herpes simplex.
E. Pemphigoid.
ADC Test Answer: 4
A serological smear test can be used to diagnose Herpes simplex virus infections by identifying the presence of the virus in the smear from the lesion.
Which of the following is not a part of behavioral science?:
1) Social Psychology
2) Economics
3) Sociology
4) Social Anthropology
Economics is not a part of behavioral science because it primarily focuses on
the production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services, as well as
the behavior of individuals and organizations in the market. Behavioral science,
on the other hand, is a multidisciplinary field that studies human behavior and
interactions, drawing from various disciplines such as psychology, sociology,
and social anthropology. While economics may incorporate some aspects of human
behavior, it is not considered a core component of behavioral science.
Which of the following adverse reactions of oral contraceptives is the most common and the most serious?
1) Hypotension
2) Hepatotoxicity
3) Uterine neoplasia
4) Thromboembolism disorder
ADC Test Answer: 4
Thromboembolism is a significant risk associated with oral contraceptives, particularly in women with additional risk factors.
What is the dentist's role in identifying signs of domestic violence in a patient?
1) To ask the patient directly if they are being abused
2) To recognize and document physical and behavioral signs of abuse
3) To provide counseling services
4) To provide legal advice
The dentist's role involves recognizing and documenting any physical injuries or behavioral indicators that may suggest abuse.
The efferent limb to the lower epiglottis is innervated by which
branch of the vagus nerve?
1) Superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10)
2) Recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10)
3) Inferior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10)
4) Superior laryngeal nerve
The vagus nerve, or cranial nerve X, has several branches that innervate various
structures in the neck and thorax.
The lower epiglottis is one of the structures that is innervated by the
recurrent laryngeal nerve, which arises from the vagus nerve (CN 10). This nerve
is responsible for the movement of the larynx during swallowing and speaking. The other options listed are incorrect because:
1) The superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN 10) primarily supplies
the cricothyroid muscle and the mucosal sensory innervation to the upper part of
the larynx, not the lower epiglottis.
2) The inferior laryngeal branch is another term that may refer to the recurrent
laryngeal nerve, but it is less commonly used and can be confusing. The term
"recurrent laryngeal nerve" is more specific and widely recognized.
3) The superior laryngeal nerve is a separate nerve that arises from the vagus
nerve and supplies the upper part of the larynx, including the cricothyroid
muscle and the mucosal sensation of the larynx and pharynx, not the lower
epiglottis.
Which of the following medications is known to potentially cause a lichenoid reaction?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Beta blockers
3) Paracetamol
4) Antibiotics
Beta blockers and certain other medications, including NSAIDs and antimalarials, can cause lichenoid drug reactions, characterized by oral lesions resembling lichen planus.
What is the first line of treatment for a patient with a lower lateral tooth extracted while the alveolus heals to cover the gap?
1) Conventional cantilever
2) Partial denture
A partial denture is often the preferred option to replace missing teeth during the healing process, providing functional and aesthetic support.
All of the following drugs cross the placenta except?
1) Phenytoin
2) Diazepam
3) Morphine
4) Heparin
Heparin Heparin does not the cross the placenta. Hence its safe for use in pregnant patients who need anticoagulation.
Best clinical sign for adequate reversal is:
1) Spontaneous eye opening
2) Spontaneous limb movements
3) Able to protrude tongue
4) Able to lift head > 5 seconds
If patient is able to lift the head > 5 seconds it is considered the best clinical sign as it corresponds to train of four ratio > 0.7.
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors are useful in the management of ?
1) Acute myeloid leukemia
2) Small cell carcinoma of lung
3) Gastrointestinal stromal tumors
4) Neurofibromatosis
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors are used in the treatment of: Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia ( philadelphia chromosome positive cases )
Head and neck malignancies
Non small cell carcinoma lung
Gastrointestinal stromal tumours
Hepatocellular cancer
Renal cell carcinoma
Pancreatic cancer
Colorectal cancer
A patient who recently had a calculus removed from the kidney presented with a radiolucent area in the left maxilla with clinical evidence of swelling. The disease that you would immediately suggest is:
1) Diabetes
2) Thyrotoxicosis
3) Hyperparathyroidism
4) Osteoporosis
ADC Test Answer: 3
Hyperparathyroidism can lead to radiolucent lesions in the jaw due to increased osteoclastic activity and calcium mobilization from bones.
Which of the following have a tendency to recur if not treated?
1) Giant cell granuloma
2) Lipoma
3) Fibrous epulis
4) Hematoma
ADC Test Answer: 1
Giant cell granulomas have a recurrence rate of 15-20% if not adequately treated.
A dental assistant notices that a patient flinches when the dentist approaches with instruments. This behavior may suggest:
1) Fear of dental procedures
2) Previous traumatic experiences
3) Lack of understanding of the procedure
4) None of the above
Flinching may indicate that the patient has experienced trauma, which could be related to abuse.
The rate of set of polysulfide impression materials is accelerated by:
1) Increasing the mixing temperature.
2) Decreasing the mixing temperature.
3) Adding oleic acid to the mix.
4) Increasing the base/catalyst ratio.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1
Explanation: Higher temperatures increase the chemical reactivity of polysulfide impression materials, resulting in faster setting times.
What should a dentist do if a patient is unable to read the informed consent
form due to visual impairment?
1) Have a family member read it to the patient
2) Skip the consent process
3) Read the form to the patient and ensure they understand the information
4) Have the patient listen to an audio recording of the consent form
It is the dentist's responsibility to ensure that the patient
comprehends the information presented in the consent form. If the patient cannot
read, the dentist should read the form to them and answer any questions to
confirm understanding.
Glutamate-pyruvate trans-aminase is predominantly present In: 1. Skeletal muscle 2. Cardiac muscle 3. Brain 4. Liver
Biochemistry Answer: 4Glutamate-pyruvate trans-aminase is predominantly present In Liver
Which of the following forces best accomplish orthodontic tooth movement?
1) Heavy and continuous
2) Heavy and intermittent
3) Light and continuous
4) Light and intermittent
SOLUTION Light and continuous
Use of continuous light force is recommended to be applied for adult group of patient rather than intermittent force as applied by removable appliance.
with normal biologic functioning. In adult due to heavy force teeth may devitalize because the opening into the tooth (apical foramen) is smaller and blood vessels can be easily disrupted.
What is the critical pH for demineralization of carbonate-substituted
hydroxyapatite (CHA)?
1) 4.5
2) 5.5
3) 6.2
4) 7.0
The critical pH for CHA is 5.5, below which demineralization begins.
The point at which a stress of a material exhibits a specific limited deviation P Is called
1) Proportional limit
2) Tensile strength
3) Ultimate strength
4) Yield strength
Yield strength is the stress required to produce plastic deformation.
What is the effective way to prevent the spread of infection during dental procedures?
1) Use a single-use needle
2) Sterilize instruments thoroughly
3) Disinfect surfaces before and after procedures
4) All of the above
Multiple strategies are essential for infection control in dental settings, including using sterile instruments, disinfecting surfaces, and employing single-use items to prevent cross-contamination.
Which two teeth can only be removed by rotation?
1) Maxillary central incisors and mandibular central incisors
2) Maxillary second premolars and mandibular first molars
3) Maxillary central incisors and mandibular second premolars
4) Maxillary first molars and mandibular central incisors
These teeth have single roots and are not multi-rooted, allowing for removal by rotation only.
Which dimension in which arch is considered as a safety value for pubertal growth spurts?
1) Maxillary intercanine dimension
2) Mandibular intercanine dimension
3) Maxillary intermolar width
4) Mandibular intermolar width
SOLUTION Intercanine width serves as safety valve for dominant horizontal basal mandibular growth spurt.
What is the typical pain description for a dry socket?
1) Continuous, severe, and throbbing
2) Sharp and intermittent
3) Mild and constant
4) Only present with biting or chewing
Dry socket pain is characteristically severe, continuous, and throbbing, differing from the milder pain of a normal extraction site.
A 30 year old pregnant woman developes tuberculosis. Which of the following antitubercular drugs should not be used:
1) INH
2) Rifampicin
3) Streptomycin
4) Ethambutol
Streptomycin is contraindicated in pregnant women because of fetal ototoxicity.
What does Stephan's curve primarily represent?
1) Change in pH of saliva over time
2) Change in pH of plaque over time
3) Change in pH of saliva with sugar intake
4) Change in pH of blood with exercise
Stephan's curve illustrates how the pH of dental plaque changes over time following sugar intake.
What is the primary function of the tensor tympani muscle?
1) To assist in swallowing
2) To dampen loud sounds
3) To facilitate hearing
4) To stabilize the jaw
The tensor tympani muscle helps protect the inner ear from loud sounds by tensing the tympanic membrane, reducing sound transmission.
Which clinical sign might indicate the need for a referral to a physician
or specialist when treating a geriatric patient?
1) Mild tooth sensitivity
2) History of hypertension
3) Postural issues
4) Uncontrolled diabetes
Uncontrolled diabetes can lead to complications that affect
dental treatment, making it essential to refer the patient for medical
management.
According to Angle, the key to normal occlusion in adults is the anteroposterior relationship. His description of teeth relationships in normal occlusion remains a fundamental observation. Angles observations are based on which teeth that are most reliable to understand occlusion
1) First molars and canines
2) First molars and first Premolars
3) Canines and first Premolars
4) First molars and central incisors
SOLUTION The mesial incline of the upper canine occludes with the distal incline of the lower [canine]; the distal incline of the upper canine occludes with the mesial incline of the buccal cusp of the lower first premolar.
A dentist is carrying out electrosurgery on a patient, and the patient sneezes with his head moving forward. What is most likely to occur?
1) Gingival trauma
2) Mucosal burn
3) Mucosal trauma
4) Trauma to adjacent tooth
The sudden movement during electrosurgery can lead to mucosal trauma, especially if the surgical site is not stable.
How many grams of high-density noble metal alloy is required for casting of a molar?
1) 3 gms
2) 6 gms
3) 9 gms
4) 12 gms
With high-density noble metal alloy 6 grams is adequate for premolar and anterior castings, 9 grams is adequate for molar casting and 12 grams is adequate for pontics.
What is the function of glucosyltransferase (GTF) produced by Streptococcus
mutans?
1) Converts glucose to lactic acid
2) Assists in the removal of bacteria from the tooth surface
3) Helps in the formation of dentin
4) Converts sucrose to glucans and fructans
GTF is an enzyme that helps Streptococcus mutans adhere to the tooth surface by converting dietary sugars into sticky substances that form plaque.
What is the normal resting flow rate for saliva?
1) 0.1-0.3 ml/min
2) 0.1-0.6 ml/min
3) 0.5-1.0 ml/min
4) 1.0-2.0 ml/min
The normal resting saliva flow rate ranges from 0.1 to 0.6 ml/min, while stimulated saliva can increase to 1-2 ml/min.
Which of the following instruments is NOT typically used in a pulpotomy procedure?
1) Cotton pellets.
2) Spoon excavator.
3) Diamond bur.
4) Formocresol.
A diamond bur is not typically used in a pulpotomy procedure. A 330 bur is used to remove the roof of the pulp chamber.
What is the best way to communicate with a patient who has an intellectual disability?
1) Using medical jargon to assert authority
2) Using simple language and visual aids
3) Ignoring the patient and speaking only to their caregiver
4) Relying on nonverbal cues from the patient
Communicating with a patient with an intellectual disability requires patience and clarity.
With Silicon Rubber Impression Materials 1. Three stone dies can be constructed 2. It is not possible to construct successive stone dies or casts 3. Four stone dies can be constructed 4. It is possible to construct successive stone dies or casts
Dental Material Answer: 2It is not possible to construct successive stone dies or casts with Silicon Rubber Impression Materials
What is the primary concern when administering local anesthesia to a patient with a bleeding disorder?
1) Increased pain sensitivity
2) Prolonged bleeding from the injection site
3) Inability to achieve adequate anesthesia
4) Higher risk of infection
Patients with bleeding disorders, such as hemophilia, may have difficulty controlling bleeding, even from minor procedures like local anesthetic injections.
What type of consent is required for a simple buccal pit restoration?
1) Implied consent
2) Verbal consent
3) Written consent
4) Informed refusal
Implied consent is sufficient for routine and non-invasive
procedures, such as a simple buccal pit restoration, as it is assumed the
patient agrees to the treatment based on their cooperation during the process.
Which nerve should be assessed in a patient suspected of having a mandibular fracture due to sensory deficits? 1) Facial nerve (CN VII) 2) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) 3) Inferior alveolar nerve (CNV3) 4) Vagus nerve (CN X)
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 3The inferior alveolar nerve is commonly involved in mandibular fractures. Damage to this nerve can result in sensory deficits in the lower teeth, lower lip, and chin.
What neurotransmitter is responsible for closing pre-capillary sphincters?
1) Acetylcholine
2) Serotonin
3) Nor-adrenaline
4) Substance P
Nor-adrenaline is responsible for vasoconstriction and can close pre-capillary sphincters, regulating blood flow.
The estimated percentage of the population with herpes simplex virus
type 1 (HSV-1) infection is:
1) 30%
2) 50%
3) 80%
4) 90%
Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) is a highly prevalent virus that causes oral herpes, commonly known as cold sores. The World Health Organization (WHO) estimates that approximately 67% of the global population under the age of 50 has an HSV-1 infection. This percentage varies by region, but in some developed countries, it can be as high as 80-90%. Most individuals are infected during childhood or early adulthood, and the virus remains dormant in the body, reactivating periodically to cause recurrent symptoms.
Surface activity and low toxic potential?
1) Cocaine
2) Bupivacaine
3) Benzocaine
4) Procaine
Benzocaine is the correct answer because it has surface activity and low toxic potential.
Which of the following dental cements is a luting agent that provides adhesion to calcified dental tissues? 1. ZOE cement 2. Silicate cement 3. Zinc phosphate cement 4. Polycarboxylate cement
Dental Material Answer: 4Polycarboxylate cement is a luting agent that provides adhesion to calcified dental tissues
Which immunoglobulin is present in periodontitis?
1) IgA
2) IgM
3) IgG
4) IgE
IgG, especially IgG2, is commonly found in the gingival tissues of patients with periodontitis, indicating an immune response to bacterial infection. IgG plays a key role in protecting periodontal tissue by neutralizing toxins and aiding the elimination of pathogens through mechanisms like phagocytosis. Higher levels of immunoglobulins, particularly IgG, are associated with an increased immune response in inflamed gingival tissues. Secretory IgA (sIgA) is the main immunoglobulin in secretions and acts as the first line of defense, preventing microbial adherence to the oral mucosa. IgM can also be detected, particularly in inflamed states.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the attachment of the mylohyoid muscle?
1) It attaches superiorly at the lateral border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid.
2) It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the lesser horn of the hyoid
3) It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the greater horn of the hyoid
4) It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid
It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid
False statement regarding phenytoin is?
1) It is a teratogenic drug
2) Highly protein bound
3) Induces insulin secretion
4) Follows saturation kinetics
Phenytoin inhibits insulin secretion and causes hyperglycemia.
Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of poor oral health
in geriatric patients?
1) Pneumonia
4) Malnutrition
3) Dementia
4) Cardiovascular disease
While poor oral health is associated with an increased risk of
developing pneumonia and cardiovascular disease, it is not a direct cause of
dementi1) However, oral health can impact the quality of life and overall
systemic health.
Which of the following is NOT a type of cognitive-behavioral therapy used in managing dental anxiety?
1) Systematic desensitization
2) Guided imagery
3) Dental hypnosis
4) Exposure therapy
While hypnosis can be used in dentistry for pain management and relaxation, it is not typically classified as a form of cognitive-behavioral therapy. Exposure therapy, systematic desensitization, and guided imagery are examples of cognitive-behavioral techniques.
Visual aids can help reduce anxiety in dental patients by:
1) Making the procedure seem more complex
2) Distracting the patient from their fear
3) Clarifying what will happen during treatment
4) Encouraging the patient to avoid the procedure
Visual aids can improve understanding and reduce anxiety by clearly illustrating the steps of the treatment.
what %age of NaF is used in iontophoresis:
1.1%
2.2%
3.3%
4.4%
2% NaF is used in iontophoresis. This fluoride treatments brings about granular precipitation in dentinal tubules and reduces tubular diameter.
What is the purpose of placing rests on the proximal surfaces of teeth?
1) To enhance aesthetics
2) To prevent food impaction
3) To facilitate easier cleaning
4) To allow for more room in the denture base
Rests on the proximal surfaces prevent food impaction between the minor connector and the tooth.
When no radiation shield is available, the operator should stand out of the primary x-ray beam and a distance from the patient’s head of at least:
1) 0.5 metres
2) 1 metre
3) 1.5 metres
4) 2 metres
ADC Test Answer: 4
To minimize exposure to ionizing radiation, operators should maintain a distance of at least 2 meters (6 feet) from the x-ray source/patient, as dictated by the inverse square law and safety protocols.
What is the maximum safe dose of lidocaine for a 70 kg patient?
1) 308 mg
2) 220 mg
3) 440 mg
4) 154 mg
The maximum dose of lidocaine is 4.4 mg/kg.
Presently, the treatment plan for the child going abroad in 6 months should focus on:
1) Extracting teeth and using space maintainers
2) Extracting all affected teeth and referring to an oral surgeon
3) Referring to an oral surgeon and orthodontist for comprehensive treatment
4) Restoring the affected teeth and monitoring
ADC Test Answer: 4
Restoring both affected teeth conservatively allows for continued function and aesthetics while developing a long-term plan that can be managed after moving.
Which of the following is a common sign of periodontal disease?
1) Tooth mobility
2) Bleeding gums
3) Bad breath
4) All of the above
Signs of periodontal disease include tooth mobility, bleeding gums, and bad breath, indicating inflammation and infection.
The extraction of a primary maxillary central incisor at the age of 6 years will
cause
1) loss of intercanine space.
2) increased intercanine space.
3) no change in intercanine space.
4) decreased overjet.
Primary incisors generally do not influence intercanine space, as it is
maintained by the canine teeth.
What is the difference between fluorapatite and carbonate substituted
hydroxyapatite?
1) Fluorapatite is less soluble than carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite
2) Fluorapatite is more soluble than carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite
3) They have the same solubility
4) Fluorapatite does not occur in tooth structure
Fluorapatite is a form of hydroxyapatite that has incorporated fluoride ions, which makes it more resistant to acid attacks and thus less soluble compared to carbonate substituted hydroxyapatite.
A mandibular primate space is usually found in the primary dentition between 1. first and second molars 2. central and lateral incisors 3. lateral incisor and canine 4. canine and first molar
Dental Anatomy Answer: 4A mandibular primate space is usually found in the primary dentition between canine and first molar
Local anesthesia depends on:
1) Strength bond between drug and nerve.
2) Strength bond between drug and its intensity.
3) Bond between drug and time of removal from the body.
4) All of the above.
ADC Test Answer: 1
The effectiveness of local anesthesia is primarily determined by how well the anesthetic agent binds to nerve tissues.
The part of the removable appliance which provides the anchorage is
1) Adams clasp
2) Base plate
3) Active labial bow
4) Guided springs
SOLUTION Baseplate: The hard plastic part of some retainers that covers the gum and has the wire components of the retainers attached to it.
What is the most common occupational disease among dentists?
1) Hepatitis B
2) Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
3) Tuberculosis
4) Oral cancer
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is the most common occupational disease among dentists due to the repetitive and precise hand movements required in their work.
What does the principle of non-maleficence require dentists to do?
1) Provide only beneficial treatment
2) Do no harm to the patient
3) Ensure the patient's financial well-being
4) Advocate for social justice in healthcare
Non-maleficence is the ethical principle that obliges dentists to refrain from causing harm to patients, both intentionally and unintentionally. This includes avoiding actions that could lead to unnecessary pain, injury, or suffering.
In classifying molar relation in patient with premature loss of primary molar, additional relation to be noted is
1) Incisor relation
2) Canine relation
3) Midline relation
4) Premolar relation
Orthodontics Answer: 2
SOLUTION
Which of the following is an example of a legal requirement for dental records?
1) Using a specific color of ink to write in the chart
2) Storing patient records for at least 7 years after the patient's last appointment
3) Having a signed treatment consent form for every procedure
4) Using only digital records, no paper charts allowed
The legal requirements for dental records may vary by state or country, but a common requirement is the retention of records for a certain period, typically 7 to 10 years or until the patient reaches the age of majority plus a certain number of years. This ensures that the information is available for any future reference or legal needs. The specific color of ink, use of digital or paper charts, and placement of identifiers are often practice standards rather than legal requirements.
What is the primary treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?
1) Antidepressants
2) Anticonvulsants
3) Opioids
4) Muscle relaxants
Anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine, are the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia, effectively reducing the frequency and intensity of pain episodes.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors reduce blood pressure by:
1) Increasing heart rate
2) Blocking calcium channels
3) Inhibiting angiotensin II formation
4) Blocking aldosterone receptors
ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, reducing vasoconstriction and lowering blood pressure.
The placement of a retentive pin in the proximal regions of posterior teeth
would most likely result in periodontal ligament perforation in the
1) mesial of a mandibular first premolar.
2) distal of a mandibular first premolar.
3) distal of a mandibular first molar.
4) mesial of a mandibular first molar.
The mesial aspect of the mandibular first molar is often more prone to periodontal ligament perforation when placing retentive pins due to the anatomy of the tooth and the proximity of the root to the periodontal ligament. The mesial root is typically larger and has a more complex canal system, which can increase the risk of perforation if the pin is not placed carefully.
Apart from a dentigerous cyst, which other lesions are associated with the absence of teeth?
1) Adenomatous odontogenic tumor
2) Keratocyst
3) Ameloblastoma
4) All of the above
All these lesions can be associated with the absence of teeth, either due to their developmental nature or their impact on the surrounding structures.
Which one of the following drugs increases gastrointestinal motility?
1) Glycopyrrolate.
2) Atropine.
3) Neostigmine.
4) Fentanyl.
Synthetic opioids, sharing properties of opium and morphine, include meperidine, propoxyphene, diphenoxylate, fentanyl, buprenorphine, methadone, and pentazocine.
Fentanyl (80 to 100 times more powerful than morphine) is especially dangerous.
Atropine blocks the muscarinic receptors. Atropine decreases gastrointestinal tract motility and secretion and causes constipation.
Although various derivatives and congeners of atropine (such as propantheline, isopropamide, and glycopyrrolate) have been advocated in patients with peptic ulcer or with diarrheal syndromes
Neostigmine is Cholinesterase inhibitors that enhance the effects of parasympathetic stimulation and leads to reversal of intoxication by agents with a anticholinergic action
A panoramic radiograph taken at 10 years of age is indicated to:
1) Measure the space between the temporomandibular joint disc and the condyle.
2) Calculate the amount of crowding in the maxilla.
3) Predict the probability of canine impaction.
4) Assess the severity of midline deviation.
Pediatric Dentistry Answer: 3A panoramic radiograph at this age is particularly useful to evaluate the eruption path of permanent canines, allowing early identification and management of potential impaction.
How often should dental records be updated?
- Annually
- With each appointment
- Only when there is a change in treatment plan
- It depends on the patient's dental insurance
Dental records should be updated at every appointment to reflect the most current information regarding the patient's oral health and treatments.
Slightly raised vesicles rupturing to form ulcers are a feature of
1) Rubeola
2) Rubella
3) Condyloma acuminatum
4) Chicken pox
Chicken pox presents with multiple dermal lesions characteristically with vesicles, pustules which may secondarily ulcerate
After the age of 6 years, where does the greatest increase in the size of the mandible occur?
1) At the symphysis
2) Between canines
3) Distal to the first molar
4) Ramus
After the age of 6, especially during growth spurts, the mandible increases significantly in height and width, particularly in the ramus region, including the area distal to the first molar.
What is the main requirement of the Data Protection Act 2018 concerning patient records?
- Records must be kept for at least 10 years
- Records must be encrypted at all times
- Records must be kept securely and confidentially
- Records must be backed up daily
The Data Protection Act 2018 requires dental practices to secure patient records and restrict access to authorized personnel only to safeguard patient confidentiality.
While doing preparation for an FMC crown prep on tooth 16 in a 20-year-old man, a pinpoint pulp exposure occurred. How would you best manage the situation?
1) Do DPC immediately under rubber dam then tell the patient about the situation
2) Tell the patient immediately and do pulpotomy
3) Start RCT then describe the situation to the patient
4) Tell the patient that you have encountered an inadvertent incident while preparing and refer him to a specialist
ADC Test Answer: 1
Direct Pulp Capping (DPC) is the most appropriate management strategy for a small pinpoint pulp exposure.
What is the role of the auditory tube?
1) To equalize pressure in the middle ear
2) To drain fluid from the inner ear
3) To transmit sound waves
4) To protect the ear from infection
The auditory tube (Eustachian tube) connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx, allowing for pressure equalization and drainage of secretions.
What is the role of lactoferrin in the prevention of dental caries?
1) It produces fluoride
2) It binds to iron, inhibiting bacterial enzymes
3) It forms a protective layer on the tooth surface
4) It produces bicarbonate
Lactoferrin is a protein in saliva that binds to iron, making it unavailable for bacterial enzymes that require iron to function, thus inhibiting their growth and acid production.
Guiding planes on abutment teeth for a removable partial denture should be prepared before the occlusal rests are prepared in order to:
1) Avoid post-insertion adjustment.
2) Facilitate surveying of the cast.
3) Finalize the location of the occlusal rest.
4) Improve the retention of the direct retainer assembly.
FPD and RPD Answer: 3
In the absence of its permanent successor, a primary first molar of a 7 year old
1) should be treated endodontically to prevent root resorption.
2) may remain for years with no significant resorption.
3) should be extracted
4) is more susceptible to dental caries.
In the absence of a successor, primary molars often remain functional and stable
for extended periods.
Alkalinization of urine is done during administration of which of the following chemotherapeutic drugs?
1) Ara-C (Cytarabine)
2) Methotrexate
3) Cisplatin
4) Ifosfamide
Alkalinization of urine is used in patients receiving high dose methotrexate to promote renal excretion and to avoid nephrotoxicity IV Sodium bicarbonate is used to maintain urine pH above 7.0 to avoid precipitation of methotrexate (a weak acid) in the acid pH of renal tubules
Whom to contact if there is a 20% increase in radiation dose?
1) The clinic manager
2) The radiation protection advisor
3) The health and safety officer
4) The dental board
The radiation protection advisor should be contacted to assess and address any significant increases in radiation exposure.
Which antibiotic can be safely prescribed to a patient who is on warfarin and is not allergic to penicillin?
1) Clindamycin
2) Erythromycin
3) Penicillin
4) Metronidazole
Penicillin is an appropriate choice for patients who are on warfarin and not allergic to penicillin.
What type of information should be included in the patient's medical history?
- Only dental information
- Only medical information
- Both dental and medical information
- Dental, medical, lifestyle, and family history information
A comprehensive medical history should include the patient's dental information, medical conditions, current medications, allergies, and surgeries.
Which of the following can be caused by excessive consumption of soft drinks?
1) Digestive disorder
2) Tooth erosion
3) Tooth decay
4) Colorization of the tongue
Excessive consumption of soft drinks can cause tooth erosion. Soft drinks are
high in sugar and acid, which can weaken the enamel on the teeth over time. This
erosion can lead to tooth sensitivity, discoloration, and even tooth loss if not
addressed It is important to limit the consumption of sugary and acidic
beverages and maintain good oral hygiene to prevent tooth erosion.
Non-selective beta-blockers can lead to excessive blood pressure changes when used with adrenalin.
The use of fluoride in treating root surface caries aims to protect:
1) Enamel
2) Dentin and cementum
3) Pulp
4) Cuticle
ADC Test Answer: 2
Fluoride application helps to strengthen dentin and cementum surfaces against carious lesions, offering protection from decay.
What is the purpose of Formocresol in pulpotomy?
1) Remove bacteria from the pulp chamber.
2) Prevent further decay of the tooth.
3) Promote the formation of dentin.
4) Seal the pulp chamber after amputation.
Formocresol is used to sterilize the pulp chamber after amputation, reducing the risk of infection.
Which of the following is not a function of a rest in a removable partial denture (RPD)?
1) To provide resistance against occlusal load
2) To maintain occlusal contact with opposing teeth
3) To act as a direct retainer
4) To prevent extrusion of abutment teeth
The primary functions of a rest in a removable partial denture include providing vertical support, resisting occlusal load, maintaining occlusal contact, directing forces along the long axis of the abutment, preventing impingement of soft tissue, and preventing the extrusion of abutment teeth.
What is the depth of topical anesthesia?
1) 1 mm
2) 2 mm
3) 3 mm
4) 4 mm
Topical anesthesia typically penetrates to a depth of about 2 mm, providing localized pain relief for procedures involving the mucosa.
Which of the following is a psychologically acceptable method for bone removal during an extraction?
1) High-speed handpiece and bur technique
2) Chisel and mallet technique
3) Laser surgery
4) All of the above
The high-speed handpiece and bur technique is generally more accepted by patients due to its precision and controlled removal of bone.
What condition is characterized by bilateral swellings not associated with food smell and associated with lymphadenopathy?
1) Sarcoidosis
2) Lymphoma
3) Tuberculosis
4) Infectious mononucleosis
Sarcoidosis can present with bilateral swellings and lymphadenopathy, often without any associated symptoms like food smell.
To obtain the desired projection of occlusal loads, the floor of the occlusal rest should:
1) Be convex
2) Slope from the marginal ridge towards the contact of the abutment
3) Slope from the contact of abutment towards the marginal ridge
4) Be concave
ADC Test Answer: 2
The floor of the occlusal rest should slope from the marginal ridge toward the contact point of the abutment.
Least likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with amide or ester local anesthetics.?
1) Tetracaine (pontocaine)
2) Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
3) Dyclonine (Dyclone)
4) Mepivacaine (Carbocaine)
Dyclonine (Dyclone) is the least likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with amide or ester local anesthetics.
What is the normal resting flow rate for saliva?
1) 0.1-0.3 ml/min
2) 0.1-0.6 ml/min
3) 0.5-1.0 ml/min
4) 1.0-2.0 ml/min
The normal resting saliva flow rate ranges from 0.1 to 0.6 ml/min, while stimulated saliva can increase to 1-2 ml/min.
For a cast gold restoration, a gingival bevel is used instead of a shoulder
because a bevel
1. Protects the enamel.
2. increases retention.
3. Improves marginal adaptation.
4. Increases the thickness of gold
1) (1) (2) (3)
2) (1) and (3)
3) (2) and (4)
4) (4) only
A gingival bevel is preferred in cast gold restorations because it protects the enamel (1) by reducing the risk of enamel fracture and improves marginal adaptation (3) by allowing for a more favorable angle for the gold to fit against the tooth structure. This results in a better seal and less chance of microleakage, enhancing the longevity of the restoration.
What is a common consequence of prolonged exposure to loud noises in a dental office? 1) Increased risk of infection 2) Hearing loss 3) Skin irritation 4) Respiratory issues
Occupational Hazards Answer: 2Prolonged exposure to loud noises from dental equipment can lead to noise-induced hearing loss, making it important to use hearing protection when necessary.
Slowest induction and recovery is with:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Desflurane
Methoxyflurane has the highest blood gas partition coefficient (15), resulting in the slowest induction and recovery.
What is the importance of confidentiality in dental records management?
1) It allows for open communication between dentist and patient
2) It protects the dentist from legal issues
3) It ensures that financial information is secure
4) It is not important
Confidentiality fosters trust and encourages patients to share sensitive information, which is crucial for effective treatment.
The Beta Blocker with local Anesthetic effect is
1) Pindolol
2) Atenolol
3) Esmorolol
4) Timolol
Local anesthetic action, also known as "membrane-stabilizing" action, is a prominent effect of several -blockers Acebutolol, Labetalol, Pindolol Propranolol.
This action is the result of typical local anesthetic blockade of sodium channels and can be demonstrated experimentally in isolated neurons, heart muscle, and skeletal muscle membrane.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the phase III clinical trial of a drug?
1) It is intended to determine drug efficacy and toxicity on a large number of patients
2) It is performed only on primates
3) It is performed with only a few volunteer subjects
4) It is primarily intended to determine the LD50 of a drug
Phase III studies are randomized controlled multicenter trials on large patient groups (300–3,000 or more depending upon the disease/medical condition studied) and are aimed at being the definitive assessment of how effective the drug is, in comparison with current 'gold standard' treatment.
The formation of oxyhemoglobin is influenced by
What is the significance of the tail of an enamel rod being less mineralized
than the head?
1) It helps in the flexibility of the tooth
2) It provides a site for tooth coloration
3) It aids in nutrient absorption
4) It is more susceptible to decay
The tail of an enamel rod has less mineral content, making it more prone to demineralization and decay compared to the head.
What is the most effective way to handle dental anxiety in special needs patients?
1) Sedation
2) Distraction techniques
3) Restraints
4) Forceful behavior
Distraction techniques, such as using music or visuals, can be very effective in managing anxiety without the risks associated with sedation or restraints.
What is the sequence from superficial to deepest in dentine caries?
1) Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine
2) Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine, demineralisation, sclerosis
3) Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative dentine, demineralisation
ADC Test Answer: 1
In dentine caries progression, the zones typically follow this order, reflecting the advancing infection and the tooth's reparative attempts.
Which anomaly occurs during the initiation stage of tooth development?
1) Amelogenesis imperfecta
2) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
3) Enamel hypoplasia
4) Oligodontia
Oligodontia refers to the absence of one or more teeth and occurs during the initiation stage of tooth development, where the tooth buds fail to form.
First sign of complication of anaesthesia:
1) Tachycardia
2) Bradycardia
3) Hypertension
4) Convulsions
Tachycardia is the first sign of many complications seen in anaesthesia.
The DMF index is commonly used to measure:
1) Oral hygiene
2) Dental radiograph efficacy
3) Prevalence and severity of dental caries
4) Tooth mobility
The Decayed, Missing, and Filled teeth (DMF) index is a standard epidemiological tool to assess the burden of dental caries in populations.
Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when they are given
1) After meals
2) Shortly before meals
3) Along with H2 blockers
4) During prolonged fasting periods
Bio-availability of all proton pump inhibitors is reduced by food; they should be taken in empty stomach, followed 1 hour later by a meal to activate H+K+ ATPase and make it more susceptible to the proton pump inhibitor.
Drug of choice for cholera prophylaxis
1) Chromphenicol
2) Procaine Penicillin
3) Doxycycline
4) Erythromycin
Treatment with a single 200-mg dose of doxycycline has been recommended As studies in volunteers demonstrated conclusively, the disease is an immunizing process. Patients who have recovered from cholera are solidly immune for at least 3 years
Which of the following is a common oral manifestation of diabetes
mellitus?
1) Oral lichen planus
4) Gingival overgrowth
3) Geographic tongue
4) Oral candidiasis
Diabetes can lead to a compromised immune system and increased
susceptibility to infections, making oral candidiasis a common manifestation.
Which group of medications is primarily used to manage pain and inflammation in dental procedures?
1) Opioids
2) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
3) Antibiotics
4) Anxiolytics
NSAIDs are commonly prescribed for pain and inflammation control in dental procedures due to their efficacy and relatively low side-effect profile compared to opioids.
The principal growth sites of the maxilla in a downward and forward direction include which of the following sutures?
1 Frontomaxillary.
2) Zygomaticomaxillary.
3) Pterygopalatine.
4) Median palatine.
1). (1), (2), and (3).
2). (1) and (3).
3). (2) and (4).
4). (4) only.
Growth of the maxilla occurs at multiple sutures, particularly the frontomaxillary, zygomaticomaxillary, and pterygopalatine, allowing for its expansion and forward displacement.
What is the role of a dental therapist in the care of a patient with special needs?
1) To provide all aspects of dental treatment under the supervision of a dentist
2) To perform only simple procedures like cleanings and fillings
3) To manage the patient's medical conditions
4) To provide oral health education and preventive care
A dental therapist is a mid-level dental provider who can perform various procedures under the supervision of a dentist.
What is the best method to disinfect a dental bridge before sending it to the lab?
1) Soaking in bleach
2) Autoclaving
3) Using 70% isopropyl alcohol
4) Rinsing with water
70% isopropyl alcohol is effective for disinfecting dental appliances as it kills bacteria and viruses without damaging the material of the bridge.
What is the predominant microorganism in deep dentinal caries?
1) Streptococcus mutans.
2) Lactobacillus species.
ADC Test Answer: 2
Lactobacilli are typically the predominant bacteria found in deep dentinal caries due to their ability to produce high levels of acid in the absence of oxygen.
All of the following are signs of successful stellate ganglion block, except:
1) Flushing of face
2) Conjunctival congestion
3) Mydriasis
4) Nasal stuffiness
Local Anesthesia Answer: 3
Mydriasis Stellate ganglion block is sympathetic block leading to Horner syndrome, (which includes miosis, ptosis, anhydrosis, enophthalmos), flushing of face, conjunctival congestion nasal stuffiness increased skin temperature and congestion of tympanic membrane.
Which immunoglobulin types are produced in the Peyer patches of the intestine?
1) IgG and IgE
2) IgA and IgM
3) IgM only
4) IgD only
Within the Peyer patches, B lymphocytes stimulate the production of IgA and IgM, which are crucial for mucosal immunity.
Paraesthesia in the distribution of the inferior alveolar nerve, including the lower lip, strongly suggests a mandibular fracture. This is often due to trauma to the inferior alveolar nerve.
Lateral canals are commonly found:
1) In the middle third of the root
2) In the apical third of the root
3) Near the crown
4) Throughout the entire root
ADC Test Answer: 2
Lateral canals are typically located in the apical third of the root and provide pathways for communication between the pulp and periodontal structures.
What legislation gives patients the right to access their dental records?
- General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
- Data Protection Act 2018
- Access to Health Records Act 1990
- All of the above
The Access to Health Records Act 1990 gives patients, or their representatives in the case of a deceased patient, the right to access their healthcare records, including dental records.
Which of the following statements about informed consent is true?
1) It is
only necessary for surgical procedures.
2) It must always be documented in writing.
3) It is a one-time process that does not require updates.
4) It should be tailored to the individual patient's needs and understanding.
;Informed consent should be personalized to ensure that the patient fully understands the information relevant to their treatment.
What is the main cause of patient collapse with congestive heart failure in the dental clinic?
1) Allergic reaction to local anesthetics
2) Stress from surgical procedures
3) Use of certain antibiotics
4) Lack of hydration
Patients with congestive heart failure may collapse during dental procedures due to the increased cardiac workload and stress involved, which can exceed their heart's functional ability.
Which is the most common jaw cyst in the UK?
1) Dentigerous cyst
2) Radicular cyst
3) Odontogenic keratocyst
4) Nasopalatine duct cyst
The radicular cyst is the most prevalent type of jaw cyst, commonly associated with non-vital teeth.
The most common failure in constructing porcelain-to-metal restorations is due to:
1) Improper metal framework
2) Rapid heating
3) Poor porcelain layering
4) Inadequate glazing
ADC Test Answer: 1
The failure of porcelain-to-metal restorations frequently arises from a poorly constructed metal framework, which compromises the bond between the two materials.
Which of the following is NOT a typical adverse effect of opioids?
1) Diarrhea
2) Somnolence
3) Constipation
4) Nausea
Opioids are commonly associated with constipation due to their effect on the gastrointestinal tract, which slows down bowel movements. They also frequently cause somnolence and nausea due to their action on the central nervous system. Diarrhea, however, is not a typical side effect of opioid use. In contrast, opioids are often used to treat diarrhea associated with conditions such as irritable bowel syndrome and other gastrointestinal disorders due to their constipating effects.
Rapid induction of anaesthesia occurs with which of the following anaesthetic:
1) Isoflurane
2) Halothane
3) Desflurane
4) Sevoflurane
Desflurane has the lowest blood gas partition coefficient of 0.42, so it has the fastest induction and recovery. Second fastest induction and recovery is with cyclopropane with blood gas partition coefficient of 0.44.
In a patient with thyroid surgery, the block to be given is:
1) Stellate ganglion
2) Upper cervical ganglion
3) Dorsal sympathetic ganglion
4) Any of the above
Local Anesthesia Answer: 2
Upper cervical ganglion Cervical plexus block is most commonly given for carotid endarterectomy but thyroidectomy and tracheostomy can be done under bilateral cervical plexus block.
During eruption of permanent teeth, alveolar bone is resorbed and deposited intermittently
Activation of muscle contraction is promoted by : Opening of the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca channel. Ca2+ binding to troponin C. Opening of Na channels Ca2+ binding to the Ca2+-ATPase
For geriatric patients with cognitive impairments, what is the best approach to
dental care?
1) Treating them without their consent
2) Involving caregivers in decision-making
3) Ignoring their concerns
4) Minimal interaction during treatment
Caregivers play a crucial role in the wellbeing of cognitively
impaired patients, and including them in treatment discussions ensures better
understanding and compliance.
Which of the following anaesthetic agent can be given by both intravenous and intramuscular routes:
1) Thiopentone
2) Propanidid
3) Ketamine
4) Fentanyl-droperidol
Ketamine can be administered via intravenous, intramuscular, oral, and intrathecal routes. It is the second method of choice for induction in children, with the first being inhalational.
A cyst at the apex of an upper central incisor measuring 1 cm in diameter is visualized in radiograph and confirmed by aspiration biopsy; which method of treatment would you consider?
1) Extraction of the central incisor and retrieving the cyst through the socket
2) Exteriorizing the cyst through the buccal bone and mucosa
3) Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by tooth removal.
4) Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by endodontic treatment.
ADC Test Answer: 4
The best approach is to create a mucoperiosteal flap, remove the cyst through an opening in the alveolar bone, and then perform endodontic treatment.
What are the layers of the skin from innermost to outermost?
1) Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale
2) Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum
3) Stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale, stratum corneum, stratum lucidum
4) Stratum lucidum, stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale
These layers represent the structure of the epidermis, with the stratum lucidum being thickest on the palms and soles.
What is the primary risk of chisel and mallet technique for bone removal?
1) Damage to the adjacent teeth
2) Increased risk of infection
3) Increased risk of bone fracture
4) Increased risk of bleeding
The chisel and mallet technique requires careful execution as it can lead to fractures in the jaw bone if not performed correctly.
A 64-year-old patient with a history of metastatic breast cancer presents with loose teeth, dental pain, and swollen gums. What is the most likely causative agent?
1) Osteonecrosis of the left mandible
2) Long-term use of bisphosphonates
3) Osteomyelitis
4) Periodontal disease
Patients on long-term bisphosphonates for metastatic cancer are at risk for osteonecrosis of the jaw, which can present with loose teeth and swelling.
What is the primary mechanism by which fluoride helps prevent dental caries?
1) It acts as an antibiotic.
2) It increases the pH of saliva.
3) It inhibits the demineralization of enamel.
4) It promotes remineralization of enamel.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Fluoride forms a protective layer on the tooth enamel that inhibits the activity of bacterial enzymes responsible for demineralization, thereby preventing dental caries.
What is required to increase efficiency and reduce fatigue of universal curettes?
1) Increased handle diameter
2) Ergonomic design
3) Sharpness of the blade
4) Length of the blade
The efficiency and comfort in use of universal curettes can be greatly enhanced with an ergonomic design that minimizes strain on the hand and wrist during procedures.
Which items should be disposed of in a sharps container?
1) Used gloves
2) Wedges
3) Cotton rolls
4) Plastic syringes
Items like wedges and silicone syringe tips can puncture typical waste bags and must be disposed of in a sharps container to prevent injury and contamination.
What are the benefits of using computerized patient records?
- Improved access and data retrieval
- Reduced cost and errors
- Enhanced outcomes management and decision support
- All of the above
Electronic patient records offer benefits such as improved access, reduced cost and errors, and better outcomes management and decision support.
Cardio stable anaesthetic:
1) Etomidate
2) Propadanil
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopental
Etomidate is considered a cardio-stable anaesthetic.
What is the most common cause of tooth sensitivity?
1) Gum recession
2) Tooth decay
3) Cracked teeth
4) All of the above
Tooth sensitivity can arise from various factors, including gum recession, tooth decay, and cracked teeth, exposing the dentin.
Dry heat sterilization of paper points without incineration is accomplished at 1. 160°C for 2hours 2. 120°C for l hour 3. 100°C for 2 hours 4. 200°C for 1 hour
Microbiology Answer: 1Dry heat sterilization of paper points without incineration is accomplished at 160°C for 2hours
What is the primary purpose of maintaining accurate and complete dental records?
- To comply with legal requirements
- To facilitate effective communication among dental professionals
- To ensure proper patient care and treatment planning
- All of the above
Accurate and complete dental records serve multiple purposes, including legal documentation, communication among dental professionals, patient care and treatment planning, and insurance reimbursement.
What is the average number of 15-year-olds who have lost 6-7 teeth?
1) 1.1
2) 3.1
3) 4.7
4) 5.5
Current statistics indicate that approximately 3.1% of 15-year-olds have lost 6-7 teeth due to caries or other dental issues.
What is the name of the surgical instrument used for luxating a tooth during extraction?
1) Elevator
2) Forceps
3) Excavator
4) Chisel
Forceps are the primary instruments used for luxating (rocking) and removing teeth during extraction procedures.
The main excitatory neuro transmitter in CNS is
1) Glycine
2) Acetyl choline
3) Aspartate
4) Glutamate
The chemical compound acetylcholine (ACh) is a neurotransmitter in both the peripheral nervous system (PNS)and central nervous system (CNS) in many organisms including humans.
Transillumination is primarily used to:
1) Diagnose dental caries
2) Assess intrinsic discoloration of teeth
3) Detect pulp stones
4) Visualize root canal anatomy
ADC Test Answer: 1
Transillumination is utilized to detect carious lesions, as decayed areas allow light to pass differently than healthy tooth structure.
Which nerve fibers are responsible for pulpal pain?
1) A-alpha fibers
2) A-beta fibers
3) Delta fibers
4) C fibers
Delta fibers are responsible for sharp, stabbing pain associated with pulpal pain, while C fibers transmit dull, aching pain.
The principle of justice in healthcare ethics refers to:
1) The obligation to tell the truth
2) Fair distribution of healthcare resources
3) The duty to act in the best interest of the patient
4) Respecting the patient's wishes
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 2Justice involves ensuring that patients receive fair and equitable access to healthcare resources and services, regardless of their background.
What suture material is used on lips?
1) Prolene
2) Nylon
3) Vicryl
4) Both 1 and 2
Prolene and nylon are both commonly used suture materials for lip closures due to their strength and minimal tissue reaction.
Baker anchorage utilizes
1) Intermaxillary anchorage with screws
2) Intramaxillary anchorage with screws
3) Intermaxillary anchorage with elastics
4) Intramaxillary anchorage with elastics
SOLUTION Intermaxillary anchorage or Baker's Anchorage.
Intramaxillary anchorage is also used in the form of E-chain, when elastics are used from the back molar teeth to the front teeth in the same jaw to move teeth back of the mouth.
In which stages of tooth development does the enamel organ form?
1) Bud stage
2) Cap stage
3) Bell stage
4) All of the above
The enamel organ develops through different stages of tooth development, including the bud, cap, and bell stages, contributing to tooth enamel formation.
Drug used in acute gout is?
1) Aspirin
2) Indomethacin
3) Phenylbutazone
4) Allopurinol
Treatment of acute gout is mainly to control symptoms, i.e.
The symptoms of acute gout are due to inflammation in the joints.
So, drugs which decrease inflammation are used in acute gout, i.e. anti-inflammatory drugs. Drugs are:- NSAIDs, Colchicine, Corticosteroids
X-ray films have an emulsion on one or both sides of a support material. The emulsion contains particles of:
1) Silver nitrate crystal
2) Metallic silver in gelatine
3) Silver bromide in gelatine
4) Silver nitrate in gelatine
ADC Test Answer: 3
The emulsion on x-ray films is primarily composed of silver bromide crystals suspended in gelatin, which is sensitive to radiation.
When considering local anesthesia for geriatric patients, which factor is
most important?
1) Pain tolerance
2) Anxiety levels
3) Systemic health status
4) Personal preference
Geriatric patients often have comorbidities that can influence
the choice and dosage of local anesthetics, therefore assessing systemic health
is crucial.
Before filling a Class V abrasion cavity with GIC (Glass Ionomer Cement) you should:
1) Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water, and weak acid
2) Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything
3) Acid etch cavity then dry thoroughly
4) Rinse the cavity with saline
ADC Test Answer: 1
The purpose of using pumice and a rubber cup is to clean the cavity without excessively drying it, which is important as GIC is moisture-loving.
The setting time for a condensation silicon impression material is best controlled by amount of accelerator added
Elgiloy arch wire is a 1. Cobalt chromium nickel alloy 2. Gold alloy 3. Optical fiber arch wire 4. Beta titanium arch wire
Dental Material Answer: 1Elgiloy arch wire is a Cobalt chromium nickel alloy
A 9 year old presents for treatment immediately following a facial injury
resulting in a fracture of a maxillary central incisor that involves the enamel
only. The tooth tests negative to an electric pulp tester. This finding
indicates that the tooth
1) is nonvital and should be extracted
2) is nonvital and endodontic therapy is indicated
3) has a root fracture and should be extracted
4) should be observed and tested again at a later date.
A negative response to pulp testing immediately after trauma may not indicate necrosis but temporary pulp shock. Observation allows the pulp to recover.
The junction between primary and secondary dentine is:
1) A reversal line
2) Sharp curvature
3) A resting line
4) A reduction in the number of tubules
ADC Test Answer: 2
The relationship between primary and secondary dentine is characterized by a sharp transition in the curvature of dentinal tubules as changes in odontoblast activity occur post-eruption.
Tissue conditioning materials made of silicone are:
1) More resilient than plastic acrylic
2) Devoid of antimicrobial properties
3) Less durable than traditional materials
4) Typically harder than acrylics
ADC Test Answer: 1
Silicone lining materials are noted for their resilience and comfort, maintaining their cushioning properties over time compared to plastic acrylics.
The largest resting membrane potential is observed in 1. skeletal muscle 2. smooth muscle 3. equal in both 4. -120 mv in resting smooth muscle
Anatomy Answer: 1The largest resting membrane potential is observed in skeletal muscles
Dopamine is preferred in treatment of shock because of
1) Renal Vasodilatory effect
2) Increased Cardiac Output
3) Peripheral Vasoconstriction
4) Prolonged action
Dopamine as a first line of drug in patients with shock
Dopamine in low doses can dilate renal vasculature therefore maintaining glomerular filtration.
Activates adenylate cyclase - cAMP – relaxation of vascular smooth muscle