Dentist Abroad
A component of the coenzyme required in a transamination process is 1. Thiamine 2 Folic acid 3 Pyridoxine 4 Riboflavin
Biochemistry Answer: 3A component of the coenzyme required in a transamination process is Pyridoxine
Rate limiting step of Kreb's cycle is catalysed by isocitrate dehydrogenase
Not a contraindication for epinephrine use is
1) Heart disease.
2) Hypersensitivity to drug.
3) Hyperthyroidism.
4) Liver disease.
Adrenaline is contraindicated in hypertensive, hyperthyroid and angina patient. Hypersensitivity to drug is absolute contraindication to any drug.
What cement do you use to bond an alumina core ceramic crown?
1) Panavia
2) Resin modified glass ionomer cement
3) Zinc phosphate
4) Glass ionomer cement
Panavia is a resin cement specifically designed for bonding ceramic restorations, providing strong adhesion to alumina cores.
A removable partial denture rest should be placed on the lingual surface of a canine rather than on the incisal surface because:
1) Less leverage is exerted against the tooth by the rest.
2) The enamel is thicker on the lingual surface.
3) Visibility and access are better.
4) The cingulum of the canine provides a natural recess that does not need to be prepared.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1Lingual rests provide better mechanical advantage by minimizing leverage and torque forces on the abutment teeth, preserving their health and stability.
Which of the following is used in the treatment of meningococcal meningitis in patients allergic to penicillin?
1) Ciprofloxacin
2) Teicoplanin
3) Meropenem
4) Chloramphenicol
Pharmacology Answer: 4
Treatment of meningococcal meningitis: In case of penicillin resistance, third generation cephalosporins should be used ( Ceftriaxone / CefotaximeIn case of penicillin / cephalosporin allergy, Chloramphenicol is used
Drug of choice – Penicillin G
A woman aged 48 years visits a dermatologist to have a mole removed.
The patient tells her physician that she got allergic reaction to a local
anaesthetic the last time she had undergone dental work.
Investigation of the lady's dental records by her dentist discloses that the
patient received procaine for a tooth extraction.
Among the following alternatives, which drug would be suitable for the present
procedure?
1 Benzocaine
2 Chloroprocaine
3 Tetracaine
4 Mepivacaine
Two classes of local anaesthetics exist namely:
Esters Amides
The rule of thumb describes that in case you are allergic to one drug in a given
class (generally the ester class), you will also be allergic to other drugs of
the same class.
The lady received procaine which is an ester in the present case.
Hence, we need to identify Amide in the list of answers.
Mepivacaine is the only amide listed here.
Other amide local anaesthetics include:
Prilocaine Ropivacaine Lidocaine Bupivacaine Etidocaine
Which of the following is a potential drawback of computerized dental records?
1) Increased efficiency
2) Data security concerns
3) Improved accessibility
4) Enhanced accuracy
While computerized records offer many benefits, they can also be vulnerable to cyber threats, necessitating robust security measures.
What is the most effective way to manage a patient with dental anxiety?
1) Sedation
2) General anesthesia
3) Cognitive behavioral therapy
4) All of the above
Managing dental anxiety can involve sedation, general anesthesia, and psychological approaches like cognitive behavioral therapy, depending on the severity of the anxiety.
What is the importance of maintaining confidentiality in dental records?
- It is not important as long as the records are accurate
- It encourages patient honesty and trust in the dentist-patient relationship
- It is only important for insurance purposes
- It is only relevant for HIPAA compliance
Confidentiality is crucial for fostering a relationship of trust and respect between the patient and the dental team.
Which antibiotic causes abdominal cramps in therapeutic doses?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Clindamycin
3) Metronidazole
4) Tetracycline
Clindamycin is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, including abdominal cramps, even at therapeutic doses.
What is the most common type of caries lesion in children?
1) Pit and fissure
2) Smooth surface
3) Root
4) Enamel hypoplasia
Pit and fissure caries are most common in children due to the anatomy of their teeth, which provide areas for bacteria to colonize and produce acid.
Which antibiotic is contraindicated in lactating mothers?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Tetracyclines
3) Penicillin
4) Clindamycin
Tetracyclines are contraindicated in lactating mothers due to the risk of affecting the infant's teeth and bone development.
What is the main purpose of using chlorhexidine mouth rinse in dentistry?
1) To promote tooth whitening
2) To reduce plaque and gingivitis
3) To provide pain relief
4) To replace fluoride treatments
Chlorhexidine mouth rinses are primarily used in dentistry for their efficacy in reducing plaque accumulation and gingivitis.
Site of alpha-oxidation of fatty acid Is:
alpha-oxidation of fatty acid occurs in Mitochondria
What is the correct sequence of events in tooth development?
1) Differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium, dentine formation then enamel formation
2) Differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation, elongation of enamel epithelium
3) Elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation
4) None of the above
ADC Test Answer: 3
The processes in tooth development unfold with the elongation of the enamel epithelium followed by odontoblast differentiation and the sequential formation of dentine and enamel.
Which antibiotic causes abdominal cramps in toxic doses?
1) Penicillin
2) Cephalosporins
3) Macrolides
4) Tetracyclines
Cephalosporins can cause gastrointestinal disturbances, including cramps, particularly at higher doses.
Which of the following is NOT a consideration for endodontic treatment in
the elderly?
1) Diminished pulp vitality
2) Reduced healing capacity
3) Systemic health conditions
4) All of the above are considerations.
While systemic health conditions are a consideration, endodontic
treatment can still be successful in the elderly with careful management and
patient selection.
When calcospherites fail to fuse during calcification of dentin matrix then
1 Interglobular dentin is formed
2 Dead tracts are found in formed dentin
3 Irregular dentin results
4 None
Sometimes, mineralization of dentin begins in small globular areas that fail to coalesce into a homogenous mass.
These zones are known as globular dentin or interglobular spaces. Thus, demonstrating defect of mineralization and not of matrix formation, the dentinal tubules pass uninterruptedly through interglobular dentin.
Pethidine should not be given with:
1) Reserpine
2) Propranolol
3) Atenolol
4) MAO inhibitors
Pethidine can cause severe excitatory response and arrhythmias in patients on MAO therapy.
The inverse Square Law is concerned with the intensity of radiation; using type D film of 200mm target to film distance, the exposure time was 0.25s. What would be the exposure for the same situation with 400mm target to film distance?
1) 0.5s
2) 1.0s
3) 2.0s
4) 0.25s
ADC Test Answer: 2
According to the inverse square law, doubling the distance from the radiation source results in a fourfold decrease in intensity, thus requiring four times the exposure time ($I propto frac{1}{d^2}$).
The placement of a retentive pin in the proximal regions of posterior teeth
would most likely result in periodontal ligament perforation in the
1) mesial of a mandibular first premolar.
2) distal of a mandibular first premolar.
3) distal of a mandibular first molar.
4) mesial of a mandibular first molar.
The mesial aspect of the mandibular first molar is often more prone to periodontal ligament perforation when placing retentive pins due to the anatomy of the tooth and the proximity of the root to the periodontal ligament. The mesial root is typically larger and has a more complex canal system, which can increase the risk of perforation if the pin is not placed carefully.
For a pigmented fissure, what is the best way to diagnose caries?
1) Visual examination
2) Radiographic examination
3) Investigate the area with a round bur
4) Transillumination
Investigating the area with a round bur allows for direct assessment of the fissure and any underlying carious lesions.
During which phase does the formation of dentin primarily occur?
1) Bud stage
2) Cap stage
3) Bell stage
4) Maturation stage
The bell stage of tooth development is when the formation of dentin primarily occurs, along with enamel development.
What legislation gives patients the right to access their dental records?
- General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
- Data Protection Act 2018
- Access to Health Records Act 1990
- All of the above
The Access to Health Records Act 1990 gives patients, or their representatives in the case of a deceased patient, the right to access their healthcare records, including dental records.
What is the most critical aspect of communication with geriatric patients?
1) Using technical dental terminology
2) Using complex sentence structures
3) Speaking loudly
4) Being patient and empathetic
Effective communication with elderly patients often involves
patience, empathy, and simplifying explanations to address potential hearing or
cognitive impairments.
What happens to the solubility of hydroxyapatite when it undergoes carbonate
substitution?
1) It increases
2) It decreases
3) It remains the same
4) It becomes insoluble
Carbonate substitution in hydroxyapatite increases its solubility, making it more susceptible to decay.
Which of the following best describes the concept of "informed refusal"?
1) A patient agreeing to treatment without understanding the risks
2) A patient declining treatment after being fully informed of the risks and benefits
3) A dentist refusing to treat a patient
4) A patient who is unable to make decisions about their care
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 2Informed refusal occurs when a patient, after being provided with all necessary information regarding a treatment option, chooses not to proceed with it. This respects the patient's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own healthcare.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the phase III clinical trial of a drug?
1) It is intended to determine drug efficacy and toxicity on a large number of patients
2) It is performed only on primates
3) It is performed with only a few volunteer subjects
4) It is primarily intended to determine the LD50 of a drug
Phase III studies are randomized controlled multicenter trials on large patient groups (300–3,000 or more depending upon the disease/medical condition studied) and are aimed at being the definitive assessment of how effective the drug is, in comparison with current 'gold standard' treatment.
What is the function of axytocin during the third trimester of pregnancy?
1) It induces sleep
2) It stimulates uterine contractions
3) It regulates fetal growth
4) It prepares the body for lactation
Axytocin is released by the pituitary gland and plays a crucial role in the initiation of labor by causing the uterus to contract.
The orthodontic correction of which of the following is most easily retained
1) Anterior cross bite
2) Crowding
3) Diastema
4) Spacing
SOLUTION The key to success is to use an appliance that is both comfortable, easily retained and predictable such as a simple Hawley retainer with recurve springs or a fixed labial-lingual appliance (including a vertical removable arch for ease of adjustment with a recurve spring to jump the cross-bite). Both of these appliances work by tipping the maxillary teeth forward so they are in a normal dental relationship to the mandibular teeth.
According to Angle, the key to normal occlusion in adults is the anteroposterior relationship. His description of teeth relationships in normal occlusion remains a fundamental observation. Angles observations are based on which teeth that are most reliable to understand occlusion
1) First molars and canines
2) First molars and first Premolars
3) Canines and first Premolars
4) First molars and central incisors
SOLUTION The mesial incline of the upper canine occludes with the distal incline of the lower [canine]; the distal incline of the upper canine occludes with the mesial incline of the buccal cusp of the lower first premolar.
The oral lesion of warty dsykeratoma is described as a small whitish area of the mucosa with a central depression
What are the main challenges in the adoption of computerized dental records?
- Affordability and reliability of technology
- Lack of patient interest
- Limited space for computer equipment
- Complex regulations regarding color coding
The main barriers to adopting electronic records are the cost of the technology and ensuring it is reliable and user-friendly.
Which of the following is an example of a legal requirement for dental records?
- Using a specific color of ink to write in the chart
- Storing patient records for at least 7 years after the patient's last appointment
- Having a signed treatment consent form for every procedure
- Using only digital records, no paper charts allowed
The legal requirements for dental records may vary by state or country, but a common requirement is the retention of records for a certain period, typically 7 to 10 years or until the patient reaches the age of majority plus a certain number of years.
What is the most common cause of pain in elderly patients with dental
implants?
1) Peri-implantitis
2) Implant fracture
3) Implant rejection
4) Nerve damage
Peri-implantitis, an inflammatory process affecting the tissues
surrounding the implant, is a common cause of pain and discomfort in patients
with dental implants.
What is the most common pharmacological agent used for conscious sedation in dentistry?
1) Midazolam
2) Diazepam
3) Lorazepam
4) Alprazolam
Midazolam is commonly used for conscious sedation in dentistry due to its rapid onset, short duration of action, and amnesic properties.
Not true regarding sevoflurane:
1) MAC is higher than isoflurane
2) Blood gas coefficient is higher than desflurane
3) Potency more than isoflurane
4) Sevoflurane is less cardio depressant than isoflurane
Sevoflurane is less cardio depressant than isoflurane.
Informed consent for geriatric patients should consider:
1) Only the patient/’s preferences
2) The patient/’s cognitive function and capacity
3) Family members’ opinions exclusively
4) Standard treatment protocols
The patient/’s cognitive function and capacity
Explanation: It is crucial to assess a geriatric patient's cognitive function to
ensure they can give informed consent, recognizing that some patients may have
diminished capacity due to age-related cognitive decline.
What is the primary purpose of maintaining dental records?
1) To fulfill legal obligations
2) To provide continuity of care
3) To assist in malpractice claims
4) All of the above
Dental records serve multiple purposes, including legal compliance, continuity of care, and providing evidence in malpractice claims.
What type of respiratory protection is recommended for dental personnel
during aerosol-producing procedures?
1) N95 mask
2) Surgical mask
3) Powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR)
4) Full-face respirator
N95 masks are recommended for dental personnel during
aerosol-producing procedures as they provide a higher level of protection
against airborne particles compared to surgical masks. PAPRs and full-face
respirators may be used in certain situations, but N95 masks are sufficient for
most dental procedures.
What is the most common reason for the failure of an approximal amalgam filling?
1) Marginal leakage
2) Secondary caries
3) Isthmus fracture
4) Overhang
Isthmus fractures are a common reason for the failure of approximal amalgam fillings, often due to stress and occlusal forces.
What is a key benefit of using electronic dental records (EDR) over traditional paper records?
1) Increased storage space
2) Improved access and easy retrieval
3) More paperwork
4) Higher costs
EDR systems enhance the ability to access and retrieve patient information quickly and efficiently compared to paper records.
What is the primary factor contributing to the increased prevalence of
edentulism in older adults?
1) Decreased salivary flow
4) Reduced bone density
3) Systemic diseases and their treatment
4) Dental anxiety
Systemic diseases such as diabetes and cardiovascular diseases,
along with their treatments, can impact oral health and increase the risk of
tooth loss.
What is least important for the success of a post?
1) Diameter
2) Material
3) Luting agent
4) Length
While the luting agent is important, the diameter, material, and length of the post are more critical factors influencing the success of the post in retaining the restoration.
The rough surface of porcelain (porosity) is mainly the result of:
1) Sudden high temperature
2) Lack of compression
3) Inadequate cooling
4) Improper mixing
ADC Test Answer: 2
A rough surface can occur due to insufficient compression during the fabrication of porcelain, leading to porosity and a less smooth finish.
What suture material is used on lips?
1) Prolene
2) Nylon
3) Vicryl
4) Both 1 and 2
Prolene and nylon are both commonly used suture materials for lip closures due to their strength and minimal tissue reaction.
The impression for a diagnostic cast of a partial edentulous mouth should be taken in:
1) Impression wax
2) Modelling compound
3) Hydro-colloid
4) Hydro cal
For making impressions of edentulous ridges, impression plaster and impression compound are considered to be useful.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) Trigger zones
2) Night pain
3) Sudden onset of pain
4) Pain during chewing
Trigeminal neuralgia typically presents with sudden, severe facial pain triggered by specific stimuli, but it is not characterized by night pain.
Where in the periodontal ligament fibers are the fibers thinner?
1) Apical third
2) Middle third
3) Cervical third
4) None
The fibers in the middle third of the periodontal ligament are generally thinner than in the apical or cervical thirds, leading to reduced tensile strength and an area that is more susceptible to damage.
In which situation is informed consent NOT required?
1) Routine dental cleaning
2) Emergency surgery
3) Elective surgery
4) Clinical trials
In emergency situations where delaying treatment could be dangerous, informed consent may not be required.
Which is a commonly used medication for managing dental anxiety?
1) Antibiotics
2) Benzodiazepines
3) Analgesics
4) Antidepressants
Benzodiazepines are often prescribed for their anxiolytic effects, helping to alleviate anxiety in dental patients.
Which of the following are anti-fungal drugs?
1) Cloxacillin
2) Aciclovir
3) Chlorhexidine
4) Nystatin
Miconazole is an imidazole anti-fungal drug, Nystatin is a polyene anti-fungal drug and itraconazole is a triazole anti-fungal.
Aciclovir is an anti-viral drug and chlorhexidine is an antiseptic.cloxacillin is penicillin derivative.
What is the best way to communicate with an anxious patient during a dental procedure?
1) Speak in a loud, firm voice
2) Use technical dental terms
3) Speak in a calm, gentle, and reassuring manner
4) Avoid eye contact
Communicating with a calm and gentle tone helps to reduce the patient's anxiety and maintains trust in the dental professional.
What cells are found in herpetic stomatitis and lichen planus?
1) Neutrophils
2) Eosinophils
3) Lymphocytes
4) Macrophages
Lymphocytes are typically present in the inflammatory response associated with herpetic stomatitis and lichen planus.
What defines the action of zinc oxide eugenol in promoting healing?
1) Analgesic properties
2) Antibacterial activity
3) Tissue regeneration
4) Promotes rapid bone growth
Zinc oxide eugenol dressings are known for their properties that facilitate healing and promote rapid bone growth in post-extraction sites.
What is the retention period for dental records according to most dental boards?
1) 2 years
2) 5 years
3) 10 years
4) Varies by country/state
The retention period for dental records is typically dictated by each country's or state's dental board.
How should a dentist ensure that a patient fully understands the
information provided during the informed consent process?
1) Use complex medical terminology
2) Ask if the patient has any questions and encourage discussion
3) Provide the information in writing only
4) Assume the patient understands based on their age
Explanation: Engaging the patient in discussion and encouraging questions helps
ensure they understand the information provided, which is crucial for informed
consent.
Which of the following is NOT a component of a comprehensive dental record?
- Patient medical and dental history
- Clinical examination findings
- Treatment plans and consent forms
- Social security number of the patient's next of kin
While it's essential to have emergency contact information, including the next of kin, a social security number is not typically considered a necessary part of a comprehensive dental recor4) The primary components of a comprehensive dental record include the patient's personal and medical/dental history, clinical examination findings, diagnoses, treatment plans, consent forms, and radiographs/images.
Which immunoglobulin exists as both a monomer and a dimer?
1) IgG
2) IgM
3) IgE
4) IgA
Immunoglobulin A (IgA) is unique because it can exist both in a monomeric form found in serum and as a dimer (secretory IgA) predominant in mucosal areas.
What is the predominant microorganism in deep dentinal caries?
1) Streptococcus mutans.
2) Lactobacillus species.
ADC Test Answer: 2
Lactobacilli are typically the predominant bacteria found in deep dentinal caries due to their ability to produce high levels of acid in the absence of oxygen.
Patients with which blood pressure range should be encouraged to seek medical consultation despite being able to undergo dental treatment? 1) 110/70 mmHg 2) 120/80 to 140/90 mmHg 3) 180/110 mmHg 4) 160/110 mmHg
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2Patients with blood pressure between 120/80 and 140/90 should be encouraged to consult a doctor, even though dental treatment can proceed.
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in the pathogenesis of contact dermatitis?
1) Type I
2) Type II
3) Type III
4) Type IV
Contact dermatitis is mediated by a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction (Type IV), which involves T-cell activation.
In which condition is the prothrombin time typically prolonged?
1) Hemophilia
2) Vitamin K deficiency
3) Use of salicylates or anticoagulants
4) Platelet disorders
Both salicylates and anticoagulants can interfere with blood clotting mechanisms and prolong prothrombin time.
What is the process called when minerals are lost from tooth structure?
1) Remineralization
2) Demineralization
3) Erosion
4) Cavitation
Demineralization refers to the loss of minerals (Ca2+ and PO4) from tooth structure, leading to decay.
Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for treatment of ?
1) Generalized tonic clonic seizures
2) Absence seizures
3) Simple partial seizures
4) Complex partial seizures
Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for treatment of absence seizures. Other drugs used in the management of absence seizures are valproic acid, lamotrigine and clonazepam.
What is the primary function of a dental core?
1) Aesthetic enhancement
2) Support for a crown
3) Tooth whitening
4) Root canal treatment
A dental core provides support for a crown, especially when there is significant tooth structure loss.
The regional lymphatic drainage of the left side of the tip of the tongue is to the?
1) Left submandibular lymph node.
2) Left submental lymph node.
3) Left and right submental lymph nodes
4) Left and right submandibular lymph nodes.
The regional lymphatic drainage of the left side of the tip of the tongue is to the left and right submental lymph nodes.
Rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis is HMG CoA reductase
Which of the following may be caused by a newly placed restoration that interferes with the occlusion?
1) Apical abscess
2) Pulpal necrosis
3) Apical periodontitis
4) Periodontal disease
An occlusal interference can lead to increased stress on the tooth, potentially resulting in apical periodontitis.
Which of the following is main cause of pain during pulpal injury progression
1) increased vascular permeability
2) decreased threshold of nerve fibers to pain
3) arteriolar dilatation
4) decrease pressure
Increased vascular permeability: When the dental pulp becomes injured
or inflamed, the blood vessels in the pulp dilate and become more permeable.
Which of the following is not true about casting gypsum-bonded investment material?
1) Its used for cast metal alloys
2) 50—65% of gypsum changes to form α-hemihydrate
3) The investment material is not heated above 700°C temperature
4) Heating above 700°C causes formation of sulphur dioxide from copper sulphate
Gypsum-bonded investments are used for gold alloys.
Ist investments flow contain the α-hemihydrate of gypsum. because greater strength is obtained. This gypsum
product serves as a binder to hold other ingredients together and provide rigidity. The strength of the investment is dependent on the amount of binder present.
A slight expansion takes place between 400°C and approximately 700°C (1292°F). and then a large contraction occurs. This later shrinkage is most likely caused by decomposition and release of sulphur gases, such as sulphur dioxide.
This decomposition not only causes shrinkage but also contaminates the casting with the sulphides of the nonnohlc alloying elements, such as silver and copper. Thus, it is imperative that gypsum investments should not be heated above 700°C (1292°F). however, for gypsum products containing carbon, the maximum temperature should be 650°C (1202°F). In this way, proper ut and uncontaminated alloys are obtained.
What is the function of sodium meta bisulfite in a local anesthetic solution?
1) It acts as a vasoconstrictor.
2) It acts as an antiseptic.
3) It prevents oxidation of the anesthetic agent.
4) It reduces the acidity of the solution.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Sodium meta bisulfite is a reducing agent that helps maintain the potency of the local anesthetic by preventing its oxidation during storage.
What’s the percentage of tooth erosion in 6-year-olds and 15-year-olds in the UK?
1) 5-10% and 15-20%
2) 5-52% and 15-27%
3) 10-30% and 20-40%
4) 15-25% and 25-35%
Studies indicate that tooth erosion affects a significant percentage of children, with varying rates between different age groups.
What is the difference between a horizontal mattress suture and a simple interrupted suture?
1) A horizontal mattress suture has a single loop, while a simple interrupted suture has multiple loops.
2) A horizontal mattress suture is used to compress tissues, while a simple interrupted suture is not.
3) A simple interrupted suture is used to approximate tissues in a straight line, while a horizontal mattress suture is used for more complex tissue relationships.
4) Both sutures have the same function and are used interchangeably.
ADC Test Answer: 2
A horizontal mattress suture is designed to compress tissues against each other, promoting healing and reducing tension.
What antibiotic is commonly prescribed for chronic sinusitis?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Doxycycline
3) Azithromycin
4) Ciprofloxacin
Doxycycline is often used to treat chronic sinusitis due to its effectiveness against a range of bacteria that can cause sinus infections.
Which of the following does NOT require informed consent?
1) General clinical examination
2) Removal of an impacted third molar
3) Periodontal probing
4) Administering medication with high risks
Informed consent is generally not required for diagnostic
procedures such as general clinical examinations, as they are considered part of
the initial assessment that patients expect when they visit a healthcare
professional.
The normal growing mandible exhibits which of the following characteristics?
1) Resorbs along the posterior rami.
2) Grows more vertically than horizontally.
3) Has completed 100% of its growth by age 13 in females.
4) Has latent post-pubertal growth potential.
Oral Embryology Answer: 4Mandibular growth continues into adulthood, with post-pubertal growth potential contributing to facial development and occlusal changes.
What is the percentage of edentulous patients in England and Scotland?
1) 10%
2) 25%
3) 50%
4) 64%
Approximately 64% of adults over 65 years are edentulous in the UK, reflecting the impact of dental health over time.
What is the effect on local anesthetic when used with sodium
bicarbonate ?
1 Increases speed and quality of anaestheisa
2 Decreases diffusion of the anaesthetic drug
3 Causes rapid elimination of the local anaesthetic
4 Decreases speed and quality of anaesthesia
The speed of onset of Anaesthesia is raised by Sodium bicarbonate and further
enhances its quality by elevating the intensity and duration of block.
During which stage of caries can a lesion be detected using transillumination?
1) White spot lesion
2) Dentinal caries
3) Enamel caries
4) Advanced cavitation
Transillumination is most effective in detecting interproximal caries, particularly enamel lesions, as the light can penetrate and highlight changes in the tooth structure at these early stages.
A woman aged 48 years visits a dermatologist to have a mole removed. The patient tells her physician that she got allergic reaction to a local anaesthetic the last time she had undergone dental work. Investigation of the lady's dental records by her dentist discloses that the patient received procaine for a tooth extraction. Among the following alternatives, which drug would be suitable for the present procedure?
- Benzocaine
- Chloroprocaine
- Tetracaine
- Mepivacaine
Two classes of local anaesthetics exist namely: Esters and Amides.
Guiding planes on abutment teeth for a removable partial denture should be
prepared before the occlusal rests are prepared in order to
1) avoid post-insertion adjustment.
2) facilitate surveying of the cast.
3) improve the retention of the direct retainer assembly.
4) finalize the location of the occlusal rest.
Guiding planes are critical for establishing the path of insertion for a
removable partial denture (RPD).
If guiding planes are not prepared first, occlusal rests may be positioned
inappropriately, leading to misalignment.
Preparing guiding planes first ensures that all components of the RPD fit
properly and function as intended
What should be avoided when documenting patient records?
1) Using clear language
2) Omitting relevant information
3) Keeping records up to date
4) Documenting consent
It is crucial to provide a complete picture of the patient's dental health to ensure proper care and treatment planning.
Which of the following adverse reactions of oral contraceptives is the most common and the most serious?
1) Hypotension
2) Hepatotoxicity
3) Uterine neoplasia
4) Thromboembolism disorder
ADC Test Answer: 4
Thromboembolism is a significant risk associated with oral contraceptives, particularly in women with additional risk factors.
The nerve damaged if injured at the stylomastoid foramen is:
1) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9)
2) Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN 8)
3) Facial nerve (CN 7)
4) Accessory nerve (CN 11)
The facial nerve exits the cranium through the stylomastoid foramen and is therefore at risk of damage at this location.
What is the role of color coding in dental records management?
1) To enhance the aesthetic appeal of records
2) To simplify the organization and retrieval of files
3) To indicate the financial status of patients
4) To differentiate between various dental procedures
Color coding can help in quickly identifying and organizing patient files, making retrieval more efficient.
Which antibiotic causes abdominal cramps in therapeutic doses?
1) Amoxicillin
2) Clindamycin
3) Metronidazole
4) Tetracycline
Clindamycin is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, including abdominal cramps, even at therapeutic doses.
Fins or spines may be produced on a casting because of 1.cracks in the investment 2. too rapid heating of the mold 3. steam production which causes the walls of the mold to flake off 4. all of the above
Dental Material Answer: 4Fins or spines may be produced on a casting because of 1.cracks in the investment 2. too rapid heating of the mold 3. steam production which causes the walls of the mold to flake off
What is a limitation of using templates for dental records?
1) They save time
2) They can lack flexibility for individual patient needs
3) They ensure consistency
4) They are easy to use
Templates may not accommodate the unique circumstances of each patient, leading to incomplete or inadequate records.
Which of the following is an indication for a stainless steel crown?
1) Primary teeth with carious pulpal exposure.
2) Extensive loss of tooth structure in primary molars.
3) Following pulp therapy.
4) All of the above.
A stainless steel crown is indicated for primary teeth with carious pulpal exposure, extensive loss of tooth structure in primary molars, and following pulp therapy.
You notice that your patient's submandibular lymph nodes are enlarged. You would look for potential infection sites in the?
1) Hard palate, upper lip, upper central incisor, and lower first molar
2) Hard palate.
3) Hard palate and upper lip.
4) Hard palate, upper lip, and upper central incisor.
The correct answer is hard palate, upper lip, upper central incisor, and lower first molar.
Die stone has great strength and hardness
Koplik's spots are seen in the oral cavity of patients with
1) chickenpox.
2) mumps.
3) measles.
4) scarlet fever.
E. smallpox.
Koplik's spots are small, white spots found on the mucous
membranes of the cheeks in the early stages of measles. These spots are
pathognomonic for the disease and typically appear before the rash. They are not
associated with the other conditions listed: chickenpox, mumps, or scarlet
fever.
In what area of the root are periodontal ligament fibers thinner?
1) Apical third
2) Middle third
3) Cervical third
4) Entire root
Periodontal ligament fibers are generally thinner in the middle third of the root compared to the apical and cervical thirds, where they are typically thicker for better support.
What is the mean, mode, and median?
1) Mean is the most frequent value, mode is the average, median is the middle value
2) Mean is the average, median is the middle value, mode is the most frequent value
3) Mean is the middle value, mode is the average, median is the most frequent value
4) All are the same
The mean is calculated by averaging all values, the median is the middle value when arranged in order, and the mode is the value that appears most frequently in a dataset.
What percentage of children in the UK have caries?
1) 30%
2) 43%
3) 57%
4) 70%
According to the Children’s Health Survey 2003, 43% of 5-year-olds in the UK had experienced dental caries.
Can informed consent be given over the phone or through email?
1) Yes, as long as the patient signs and returns the form
2) No, it must always be obtained in person
3) It is preferred in person, but alternatives can be used in some cases
4) Only for emergency treatments
Informed consent is typically a face-to-face interaction where the
dentist can assess the patient's understanding and answer questions. However,
some jurisdictions may allow for alternative methods under certain
circumstances, such as telemedicine or in emergencies.
Apart from composites and ceramics, another material that could be copy milled easily and inexpensively is:
1) Molybdenum
2) Germanium
3) Titanium
4) Chromium
Fabrication of ceramics and metals like titanium that are difficult to cast, is done by CAD-CAM process and copy milling.
In regards to HIV infection, which of the following is the earliest finding?
1) Kaposi sarcoma on the palate
2) Reduced hemoglobin
3) Infection with pneumocystic carinii
4) Reduction in white cell count
ADC Test Answer: 4
A reduction in white blood cell count, particularly CD4 T cells, is one of the earliest indicators of HIV infection and immune system compromise.
What do pulp tester readings signify?
1) Exaggerated response indicates irreversible pulpitis
2) No response indicates reversible pulpitis
3) Exaggerated response indicates reversible pulpitis
4) No response indicates healthy pulp
An exaggerated response to pulp testing typically indicates reversible pulpitis, while no response suggests irreversible pulpitis.
Which of the following is NOT one of the Four Cs of record keeping?
- Clear
- Comprehensive
- Concise
- Contemporaneous
The Four Cs of record keeping are Contemporaneous, Clear, Concise, and Complete.
What is the primary purpose of taking dental impressions?
1) To diagnose dental conditions
2) To create a mold for restorations or orthodontic appliances
3) To monitor teeth movement over time
4) To educate patients about oral hygiene
Dental impressions are taken to create a precise mold of a patient's teeth and surrounding structures. These molds are then used by dental laboratories to fabricate restorations like crowns, bridges, dentures, and orthodontic appliances that fit accurately in the patient's mouth. While impressions can indirectly help in diagnosis, their primary purpose is for the creation of these appliances.
Which antibiotic causes abdominal cramps in toxic doses?
1) Penicillin
2) Cephalosporins
3) Macrolides
4) Tetracyclines
Cephalosporins can cause gastrointestinal disturbances, including cramps, particularly at higher doses.
Iodine is a characteristic component of 1. Cysteine 2. Tyrosine 3. Thyroxine 4. Thiamin
Biochemistry Answer: 3odine is a characteristic component of Thyroxine
A 65-year-old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The problem that can be anticipated in the routine dental therapy is:
1) Extreme susceptibility to pain
2) Tendency towards prolonged hemorrhage
3) Recurring oral infection
4) Increased tendency to syncope
ADC Test Answer: 2
Severe cirrhosis affects blood clotting abilities, which can lead to increased risk of hemorrhage during dental procedures.
What is the recommended technique for measuring blood pressure? 1) Patient should cross legs while seated 2) Patient should be seated for at least 5 minutes 3) Inflate the cuff quickly to 100 mmHg 4) Use a stethoscope on the neck artery
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2For accurate blood pressure measurement, the patient should be seated comfortably for at least 5 minutes without crossing their legs.
A successful inferior alveolar nerve block will produce anesthesia of the?
1) Lower lip and mandibular teeth.
2) Lower lip.
3) Lower lip, mandibular teeth and labial gingivae of the anterior mandibular teeth
4) Lower lip, mandibular teeth and labial gingivae of the anterior and buccal gingivae of the posterior mandibular teeth.
A successful inferior alveolar nerve block will produce anesthesia of the lower lip, mandibular teeth, and labial gingivae of the anterior mandibular teeth.
Protamine sulphate reverses the effect of
1) Meperidine
2) Atropine
3) Hepartn
4) Strychnine.
Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be associated with irreversible aggregation of platelets and treating venous thromboembolism.
What can be a sign of dental phobia?
1) Occasional apprehension before visits
2) Excessive avoidance of dental care
3) Pleased demeanor when discussing dental procedures
4) Knowledge of dental health
Dental phobia often manifests as a persistent and overwhelming fear that leads to significant avoidance of dental treatment.
What is the primary purpose of maintaining dental records?
- Billing and insurance claims
- Delivery of quality patient care and follow-up
- Marketing the dental practice
- Personal reference for the dentist
Dental records are primarily kept to ensure continuity of care, facilitate good patient care, and provide a clear history of treatments.
According to Pell & Gregory classification, if the occlusal plane of the
impacted tooth is between the occlusal plane and the cervical line of the second
molar, the type of impaction is:
1) Class A
2) Class B
3) Class C
4) Class D
Pell & Gregory classification categorizes impactions based on the relationship of the impacted tooth to the second molar and the occlusal plane. Class B impaction indicates that the occlusal surface of the impacted tooth is located between the occlusal plane and the cervical line of the adjacent second molar, suggesting a moderate level of difficulty in extraction.
In the inferior alveolar block, the needle goes through or close to which muscles?
1) Buccinator and superior constrictor
2) Medial and lateral pterygoid
3) Medial pterygoid and superior constrictor
4) Temporal and lateral pterygoid
The inferior alveolar nerve block involves passing the needle close to the buccinator and superior constrictor muscles.
What is the main function of EDTA?
1) Antimicrobial agent
2) Chelating agent
3) Local anesthetic
4) Antiseptic
EDTA is a chelating agent that helps in negotiating sclerosed canals and dissolving inorganic components of the smear layer.
The ethical principle of justice in dentistry relates to:
1) Fair treatment of patients
2) Distribution of dental resources
3) Compliance with legal regulations
4) Both A and B
Explanation: The principle of justice in dentistry involves both fair treatment
of patients, ensuring equitable care and respect for individual rights, and the
distribution of dental resources in a way that is fair and equitable among all
patients.
Who checks if there is a written protocol for radiation protection in the clinic?
1) The dentist
2) The radiation protection supervisor
3) The clinic manager
4) The health and safety officer
The radiation protection supervisor is responsible for ensuring that protocols are in place and adhered to for the safety of both patients and staff.
Prothrombin production in the liver is dependent upon an adequate dietary supply of 1 Vitamin A 2 Vitamin E 3 Vitamin K 4 None of the above
Biochemistry Answer: 3Prothrombin production in the liver is dependent upon Vitamin K intake
Which of the following is NOT part of a typical adult dental record?
1) Medical history
2) Social history
3) Dental x-rays
4) List of family members' names
A typical adult dental record includes a medical history to inform the dentist about any health issues that may affect dental treatment, a social history to understand lifestyle factors impacting oral health, and dental x-rays to visualize the patient's oral structures. While family dental histories are sometimes noted, a list of family members' names is not typically part of a standard dental record.
Which vaccination does NOT include deactivated microorganisms?
1) Live-attenuated vaccines
2) Inactivated vaccines
3) Subunit vaccines
4) Toxoid vaccines
Live-attenuated vaccines contain live, weakened forms of the pathogen.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the size of the face at birth?
1) The face forms 2/3rd the bulk of head whereas in the adult it forms 1/3rd of the bulk.
2) The face forms the bulk of the head through life
3) The face forms 1/3rd the bulk of the head, whereas in the adult it forms 1/8th of the bulk
4) The face forms only 1/8th of the bulk of head whereas in the adult it forms 1/3rd to of the bulk.
Due to the advanced state of the growth of brain this size at birth of the head of the infant is relatively large .
The concentration of ketones is increased in body due to: 1. Starvation 2. High fat diet 3. Diabetes mellitus
In which direction does the palatal root of the upper first molar usually curve towards?
1) Facial / buccal
2) Lingual
3) Mesial
4) Distal
ADC Test Answer: 1
The palatal root of the maxillary first molar typically curves towards the buccal, creating challenges in accessing and treating its canals.
What is the effect of saliva containing fluoride, calcium, and
phosphate on enamel solubility?
1) It increases enamel solubility and promotes demineralization.
2) It varies depending on the concentration of each component.
3) It has no effect on enamel solubility.
4) It decreases enamel solubility and prevents demineralization.
Fluoride, calcium, and phosphate work together in saliva to remineralize enamel, making it more resistant to acid attacks by forming fluorapatite, which is less soluble than hydroxyapatite.
Which of the following is a common sign of periodontal disease?
1) Tooth mobility
2) Bleeding gums
3) Bad breath
4) All of the above
Signs of periodontal disease include tooth mobility, bleeding gums, and bad breath, indicating inflammation and infection.
In the context of jurisprudence, what is "malpractice"?
1) A legal term for any dental procedure
2) A form of patient consent
3) Professional negligence that results in harm to a patient
4) The act of providing free dental care
Ethics and Jurisprudence Answer: 3Malpractice refers to a situation where a dental professional fails to provide the standard of care expected in the profession, leading to injury or harm to the patient. It is a legal concept that can result in lawsuits and disciplinary action.
Which blood vessels have softer walls?
1) Arteries
2) Veins
3) Arterioles
4) Capillaries
Veins have thinner walls and are more compliant than arteries, allowing them to accommodate varying volumes of blood.
The loss of tooth structure on the root resorption to the periodontal ligament
is referred to as what?
1) External root resorption
2) Internal root resorption
3) Expanded root resorption
4) None of the above
External root resorption refers to the loss of tooth structure on the root due to resorption by the periodontal ligament. This occurs on the outer surface of the root and is often caused by factors such as trauma, orthodontic treatment, or inflammation. Internal root resorption, on the other hand, refers to the resorption of tooth structure within the root canal. Expanded root resorption and none of the above are not accurate terms to describe the loss of tooth structure on the root due to periodontal ligament resorption.
Which clinical sign can indicate an open fracture of the mandible? 1) Sublingual hematoma 2) Mobility of fractured teeth 3) Step in the occlusion 4) Presence of blood-stained saliva
Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Answer: 4Blood-stained saliva, along with evidence of current or prior bleeding from the tooth sockets, is a strong indicator of an open mandibular fracture, where the fracture communicates with the oral cavity.
Which of the following is not an intravenous anaesthetic agent?
1) Cyclopropane
2) Barbiturates
3) Propofol
4) Etomidate
Cyclopropane is not used as an intravenous anaesthetic agent. It is an inhalational anaesthetic.
When considering local anesthesia for geriatric patients, which factor is
most important?
1) Pain tolerance
2) Anxiety levels
3) Systemic health status
4) Personal preference
Geriatric patients often have comorbidities that can influence
the choice and dosage of local anesthetics, therefore assessing systemic health
is crucial.
Bonding of GIC to tooth structure is brought about by
1) metal ions
2) hydroxyl bond
3) carboxyl bond
4) ionic bond
one ot the main adanhtges of GIC as a restoratie material was its ability to form chemical bonds with the tooth structure. Bonding in GIC primarily invokes chelation of carboxyl groups of the polyacids sith the calcium in the apatite of enamel and dentin.
What is the best method for securing the airway of a patient with a cleft palate during a dental procedure?
1) Use of a nasal airway
2) Use of an oral airway
3) Intubation
4) Oxygen via a face mask
Patients with cleft palates often have compromised airways, making intubation the safest and most reliable method of airway management during dental procedures that require sedation or general anesthesia.
Drug of choice for cholera prophylaxis
1) Chromphenicol
2) Procaine Penicillin
3) Doxycycline
4) Erythromycin
Treatment with a single 200-mg dose of doxycycline has been recommended As studies in volunteers demonstrated conclusively, the disease is an immunizing process. Patients who have recovered from cholera are solidly immune for at least 3 years
What is the most common occupational health problem among dentists ?
1) Tinnitus
2) Musculoskeletal pain
3) Hypertension
4) Hearing loss
Musculoskeletal pain was the most common occupational health problem, with 78% of the dentists reporting it. This is consistent with findings from other studies that highlight the prevalence of musculoskeletal disorders in the dental profession due to prolonged sitting postures, repetitive movements, and manual dexterity required in dental practice.
Which of the following is a key component of informed consent?
1) The
healthcare provider's opinion on the treatment
2) The patient's medical history
3) The risks and benefits of the proposed treatment
4) The cost of the treatment
A key component of informed consent is providing the patient with information about the risks and benefits associated with the proposed treatment.
Which of the following enzymes is active in adipocytes following a heavy meal?
1) Glycogen phosphorylase
2) Glycerol kinase
3) Hormone-sensitive triacylglyceride lipase
4) Phosphatidate phosphatase
The enzyme phosphatidate phosphatase converts phosphatidic acid to diacylglycerol during synthesis of triacylglycerides. The function of adipose tissue is the storage of fatty acids as triacylglycerols in times of plenty and the release of fatty acids during times of fasting or starvation. Fatty acids taken in by adipocytes are stored by esterification to glycerol-3-phosphate.
Glycerol kinase is not present to any great extent in adipocytes, so that glycerol freed during lipolysis is not used to reesterify the fatty acids being released.
The enzyme triacylglyceride lipase is turned on by phosphorylation by a cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase following epinephrine stimulation.
The cricothyroid artery is a branch of the 1. occipital artery 2. superior thyroid artery 3. facial artery 4. superficial temporal artery
Anatomy Answer: 2The cricothyroid artery is a branch of the superior thyroid artery
The two major local causes of root resorption are
1) inflammation and excessive pressure
2) inflammation and cementoclast-activating factor
3) excessive pressure and increased pH of ground substance
4) cementoclast-activating factor and increased pH of ground substance
For lower premolars, the purpose of inclining the handpiece lingually is to:
1) Avoid buccal pulp horn
2) Avoid lingual pulp horn
3) Remove unsupported enamel
4) Conserve lingual dentine
ADC Test Answer: 1
Inclining the handpiece lingually helps in avoiding the buccal pulp horn while preparing the cavity.
Laminar flow is mainly dependent on:
1) Density
2) Viscosity
3) Solubility
4) Molecular weight
Laminar flow mainly depends on viscosity of gas while turbulent flow is more dependent on density.
What is the difference between implied and verbal consent?
1) Implied consent requires no action from the patient, while verbal consent
involves the patient stating their agreement
2) Verbal consent is documented, while implied consent is not
3) Implied consent is for diagnostic procedures, and verbal consent is for
treatments
4) There is no difference between implied and verbal consent
Implied consent is inferred from the patient's passive cooperation, while verbal consent requires the patient to explicitly state their agreement to the proposed treatment.
What does the acronym IR(ME)R stand for?
- Information Rights and Records Management
- Ionizing Radiation (Medical Exposure) Regulations
- Infection Risks and Equipment Maintenance
- Imaging Records and Exposure Reporting
IR(ME)R 2017 Regulations pertain to the use of ionizing radiation for medical purposes, including dental x-rays.
What’s true about the sealers if extruded out of the canal?
1) ZoE is most irritating.
2) AH Plus sealer is most irritating.
3) Real Seal is most irritating.
4) Both ZoE and AH Plus are more irritating than Real Seal.
ADC Test Answer: 4
Both Zinc Oxide Eugenol (ZoE) and AH Plus endodontic sealers can cause irritation if extruded into the periapical tissues, while Real Seal tends to have a lower irritation potential.
Repair of denture bases should be carried out with 1. cold-cure resins in order to avoid distortion of the denture base 2. heat-cure resins in order to-secure a strong bond between the repair ma terial and the original denture 3. heat-cure resins in order to prevent porosity--at the repaired site 4. cold-cure resnis in order to reduce the amount of residual monomer in the repaired denture
Dental Material Answer: 1Repair of denture bases should be carried out with cold-cure resins in order to avoid distortion of the denture base
What is the typical shape of a pit and fissure lesion?
1) Inverted V-shape
2) V-shape
3) U-shape
4) O-shape
Pit and fissure lesions begin narrow and widen as they progress into the tooth structure.
What is the advantage of using electronic patient records over paper records?
- They take up less physical space
- They are more easily accessible and less prone to loss
- They are more difficult to alter
- They are less expensive
Electronic records can be accessed and retrieved more quickly and are less likely to be misplaced or damaged than paper records.
Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of Thrombocytopenia secondary to myelosuppressive cancer chemotherapy?
1) Filgrastim
2) Sargramostim
3) Oprelvekin
4) Erythropoietin
Oprelvekin (Interleukin 11) is the only agent approved by the FDA for treatment of thrombocytopenia secondary to myelosuppressive cancer chemotherapy
Filgrastim (G-CSF) and Sargramostim (GM-SCF) are used in the treatment of neutropenia
Erythropoietin is used in treatment of anemia
In Dicumarol poisoning which Vit K is used
1) Menadione
2) Menaqunone
3) Phytonadione
4) None of the above
To reverse the effect of overdose of oral anticoagulants:
Phytonadione (K1) is the preparation of choice, because it acts most rapidly, dose depends on the severity of upoprothrombinemia & bleeding.
Fusion Temperature of Impression Compound should occur: 1. Before mouth temperature 2.. At skin temperature 3. Ahove mouth temperature 4. At room temperature
Dental Material Answer: 3Fusion Temperature of Impression Compound should occur above mouth temperature
Which of the following is a potential complication of dental anesthesia?
1) Nerve damage
2) Hematoma formation
3) Infection
4) All of the above
Dental anesthesia can lead to complications such as nerve damage, hematoma formation, and infection at the injection site.
Suppuration is mainly the result of the combined action of four factors; which of the following is not one of these factors?
1) Necrosis
2) Presence of lymphocytes
3) Collection of neutrophils
4) Accumulation of tissue fluid
ADC Test Answer: 3
While neutrophils are involved in the inflammatory response, they are not a direct factor in the process of suppuration, which primarily involves necrosis, tissue fluid accumulation, and autolysis.
Which cement is commonly used for temporary cementation?
1) Zinc polycarboxylate cement
2) Zinc oxide eugenol
3) Glass ionomer cement
4) Resin cement
Zinc oxide eugenol is widely used for temporary cementation due to its sedative properties and ease of removal.
The upper lip is the result of fusion between the:
1) Maxillary and mandibular processes.
2) Maxillary and lateral nasal processes.
3) Maxillary and medial nasal processes.
4) Medial and lateral nasal processes.
Growth & Development Answer: 3Cleft lip occurs when the maxillary and lateral nasal processes fail to fuse during embryogenesis, leading to an incomplete upper lip.
Which one of the following drugs increases gastrointestinal motility?
1) Glycopyrrolate.
2) Atropine.
3) Neostigmine.
4) Fentanyl.
Synthetic opioids, sharing properties of opium and morphine, include meperidine, propoxyphene, diphenoxylate, fentanyl, buprenorphine, methadone, and pentazocine.
Fentanyl (80 to 100 times more powerful than morphine) is especially dangerous.
Atropine blocks the muscarinic receptors. Atropine decreases gastrointestinal tract motility and secretion and causes constipation.
Although various derivatives and congeners of atropine (such as propantheline, isopropamide, and glycopyrrolate) have been advocated in patients with peptic ulcer or with diarrheal syndromes
Neostigmine is Cholinesterase inhibitors that enhance the effects of parasympathetic stimulation and leads to reversal of intoxication by agents with a anticholinergic action
The function of 2% potassium sulphate in a gypsum product is
1) to regulate the setting expansion.
2) to regulate the setting time.
3) to act as a retarder.
4) none of the above.
Sodium chloride is an accelerator up to about 2% of the hemihydrates, but at a higher concentration, it acts as a retarder. Sodium sulphate has its maximum acceleration effect at approximately 3.4%; at greater concentrations, it becomes a retarder.
The most commonly used accelerator is potassium sulphate.
particles act as nuclei of crystallization.
Citrates. acetates and borates generally retard the reaction.
What is the typical arrangement for paper dental records in a lateral filing system?
- Files are stored alphabetically on a shelf
- Files are stored in drawers with the patient's name on the spine
- Files are stored in color-coded envelopes
- Files are stored in a cardboard box labeled with the patient's name
Lateral filing cabinets hold files side by side, allowing for easy retrieval when organized alphabetically.
What is the primary concern when integrating gerodontology into general
dental practice?
1) Lack of specialized training
2) Inadequate chairside manner
3) Difficulty with insurance reimbursements
4) Patient compliance with treatment
What is the typical histological finding in pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Acanthosis
2) Acantholysis
3) Hyperkeratosis
4) Basal cell hyperplasia
Acantholysis, or the loss of adhesion between keratinocytes, is a hallmark of pemphigus vulgaris, leading to the formation of vesicles and ulcers.
What is the significance of the Stephan Curve in dentistry?
1) It illustrates changes in oral pH after sugar exposure.
2) It describes the process of remineralization.
3) It indicates the types of bacteria present in the mouth.
4) It shows the composition of saliva.
The Stephan Curve describes how the pH of the oral cavity changes in response to sugar and acid exposure over time.
What is the primary concern during the first trimester of pregnancy?
1) Organogenesis of the fetus
2) The risk of preterm labor
3) Fetal movement
4) The development of the baby's teeth
The first trimester is a critical period for fetal development, and the fetus is highly susceptible to malformations if the mother experiences stress or other adverse conditions.
Ability of an orthodontic wire to spring back to Its original shape is evaluated by
1) Brittleness
2) Resilience
3) Tensile strength
4) Toughness
Resilience is the amount of energy absorbed by a structure when it is stressed to proportional Limit.
The elastic area of the stress-strain graph gives resilience; entire area up to breaking point is a measure of toughness.
The slope of straight Line gives Young’s modulus.
Tourniquet cannot be released before ....... minutes after Beir's block
1) 5 minutes
2) 10 minutes
3) 30 minutes
4) 60 minutes
Local Anesthesia Answer: 3
30 minutes Tourniquet once inflated and drug given, it cannot be released before half an hour as it is assumed that it takes this much time for drug to be completely out of vascular compartment.
Which of the following fluoroquinolones does not require dose adjustment in a patient with creatinine clearance of < 50mg/min?
1) Ciprofloxacin
2) Trovafloxacin
3) Lomefloxacin
4) Sparfloxacin
Fluoroquinolones that are excreted mainly by non renal mechanisms: Pefloxacin Trovafloxacin Grepofloxacin Nalidixic acid
What treatment is indicated for severe cases of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)?
1) Increased platelet count
2) Supportive care and treating underlying causes
3) Administration of antibiotics
4) Hormonal therapy
Management of severe cases of DIC involves supportive care and addressing the underlying condition that has triggered the coagulopathy.
When is the best time to schedule an appointment for an asthmatic patient?
1) Morning
2) Afternoon
3) Evening
4) Anytime
Asthma attacks are known to be more frequent in the morning and evening due to various physiological factors.
Highest incidence of intravascular injection is with:
1) Supraclavicular
2) Interscalene
3) Intercostal
4) Axillary
Local Anesthesia Answer: 3
Intercostal Highest blood levels of local anaesthetic per volume injected is seen after intercostal nerve block.
he material of choice for obturating the root canal system of a primary
tooth is
1) silver cone.
2) gutta percha
3) zinc-oxide eugenol.
4) paper point medicated with formocresol.
Zinc-oxide eugenol (ZOE) is commonly used for obturating the root canal system of primary teeth due to its biocompatibility, sealing ability, and ease of use. It is particularly favored in pediatric dentistry because it is less likely to cause irritation to the surrounding tissues compared to other materials. Gutta percha is more commonly used in permanent teeth.
Which local anesthetic is known for its cardiotoxic effects?
1) Lidocaine
2) Bupivacaine
3) Mepivacaine
4) Articaine
Bupivacaine is a long-acting local anesthetic that has been associated with cardiotoxicity, making it important to use with caution.
Zinc phosphate cement powder contains zinc oxide, magnesium oxide, bismuth oxide
All of the following have stratified squamous epithelium except:
1) Buccal mucosa
2) Pharynx
3) Maxillary sinus
4) Trachea
The maxillary sinus is lined with ciliated columnar epithelium, while the others have stratified squamous epithelium.
What feature of a crown is most likely responsible for gingival swelling?
1) Material of the crown
2) The occlusion
3) Proximal Contour
4) Surface finish
Poor proximal contour can lead to food impaction and plaque accumulation, contributing to gingival swelling and inflammation around crowns.
The elastomeric impression material commonly supplied as a base paste & a liquid catalyst is :
1) Polysulfide
2) Condensation silicone
3) Addition silicone
4) Polyether
The condensation silicone impression materials are supplied as a base paste and a low-viscosity liquid catalyst (or a paste catalyst).
Putty is a high-viscosity material that has been developed in order to overcome the large polymerization shrinkage of the condensation silicone impression materials.
All the other impression materials are generally supplied as catalyst paste & base paste.
Which immunoglobulin is present following a bacterial and viral infection?
1) IgA
2) IgD
3) IgM and IgG
4) IgE
Both IgM and IgG are present during and following infections; IgM appears first, while IgG is the most abundant antibody in circulation post-infection.
After the age of 6 years, where does the greatest increase in the size of the mandible occur?
1) At the symphysis
2) Between canines
3) Distal to the first molar
4) Ramus
After the age of 6, especially during growth spurts, the mandible increases significantly in height and width, particularly in the ramus region, including the area distal to the first molar.
Which of the following is a characteristic of dentinogenesis imperfecta?
1) Abnormal enamel formation
2) Discolored teeth
3) Increased susceptibility to caries
4) All of the above
Dentinogenesis imperfecta is characterized by abnormal dentin formation, leading to discolored teeth and increased susceptibility to caries.
Which clotting factor is primarily associated with initiating the extrinsic pathway of coagulation in DIC?
1) Factor VII
2) Factor X
3) Factor V
4) Factor XII
In DIC, tissue factor (TF) binds with coagulation factor VII, triggering the extrinsic coagulation pathway.
In which of the following situations is it most crucial to obtain informed
consent from a patient?
1) Routine dental cleaning
2) Filling a cavity with local anesthesia
3) Extracting a wisdom tooth
4) Performing oral surgery under general anesthesia
Informed consent is crucial for any treatment with significant risks or potential complications. Oral surgery under general anesthesia involves greater risks than routine procedures and thus requires thorough discussion and consent.
Hypochromic anemia is associated with
1) iron deficiency.
2) aminopyrine therapy.
3) vitamin B12 deficiency.
4) folic acid deficiency.
Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by small (microcytic), pale
(hypochromic) red blood cells due to inadequate hemoglobin synthesis.
Common causes include poor dietary intake, chronic blood loss, or malabsorption.
Not true about Na+ K+ 2Cl- Co-transporter:
1) It is a glycoprotein
2) 12 membrane spanning domains
3) There are distinct isoforms for secretory and absorptive function
4) The secretory form is found exclusively in thick segment of ascending limb of loop of Henle
Pharmacology Answer: 4
Which of the following is/are associated with the presence of microorganisms in
the bloodstream?
1) Anachoresis.
2) Cavernous sinus thrombosis.
3) Bacteremia
4) All of the above.
All the options listed (Anachoresis, Cavernous sinus thrombosis, and Bacteremia) are associated with the presence of microorganisms in the bloodstream. Anachoresis refers to the process by which bacteria can localize in tissues, cavernous sinus thrombosis can occur due to the spread of infection from the oral cavity, and bacteremia is the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream itself.
What is the term for an irrational fear of dental procedures?
1) Odontophobia
2) Gag reflex
3) Hypochondria
4) Agoraphobia
Odontophobia is a specific phobia characterized by fear of dental procedures or the dental environment.
A mandibular primate space is usually found in the primary dentition between 1. first and second molars 2. central and lateral incisors 3. lateral incisor and canine 4. canine and first molar
Dental Anatomy Answer: 4A mandibular primate space is usually found in the primary dentition between canine and first molar
Which of the following is NOT a function of rests?
1) To maintain occlusal contact
2) To provide aesthetics
3) To prevent displacement of abutment teeth
4) To provide indirect retention
Rests primarily focus on functional roles, like support and stability, rather than aesthetic enhancement.
If a root-filled tooth has no symptoms, when should the first X-ray for follow-up be taken?
1) 6 months
2) 12 months
3) 18 months
4) 24 months
For asymptomatic root-filled teeth, a follow-up radiograph is typically recommended at 12 months to monitor healing and any potential complications.
Which of the following is not a loop diuretic:
1) Fruesmide
2) Torsemide
3) Ethacrynic acid
4) Chlorthalidone
Pharmacology Answer: 4
Chlorthalidone (Thiazide like diuretic)
What is the recommended method for disposal of used needles and other sharps
in dental offices?
1) In regular trash
2) In a designated sharps container
3) In a red biohazard bag
4) In a puncture-resistant container
Sharps containers are designed to safely hold and dispose of used
needles and other sharp objects to prevent injury and the spread of infections. They should be puncture-resistant, leak-proof, and clearly labeled as biohazard
waste.
What is the CQC's role in monitoring dental record keeping?
- It sets the standards for record keeping in dentistry
- It checks for compliance with GDC guidelines
- It enforces data protection laws
- It conducts audits of dental practices
The Care Quality Commission (CQ3) is responsible for inspecting and auditing healthcare providers, including dental practices, to ensure they meet the fundamental standards of care, which includes good record keeping.
The smear layer present on the root canal wall after cleaning and shaping is
best removed by using
1) EDTA
2) hydrogen peroxide.
3) chlorhexidine.
4) isopropyl alcohol.
EDTA effectively removes the smear layer, allowing for better canal cleaning and
sealer penetration.
How should a patient's refusal of treatment be documented in the dental record?
- In a separate, sealed envelope
- In the treatment plan section with a notation of refusal
- In the financial section of the record
- It does not need to be documented
Refusal of treatment should be clearly documented in the patient's medical record to ensure that all parties are aware of the decision.
Which artery leaves the thoracic cavity at T12?
1) Descending aorta
2) Inferior phrenic artery
3) Superior mesenteric artery
4) Celiac trunk
The descending aorta exits the thoracic cavity at the level of T12 to enter the abdominal cavity.
What type of protective eyewear is recommended for dental personnel to reduce the risk of eye exposure to splashes of blood and body fluids?
1) Prescription safety glasses
2) Full-face shields
3) Goggles with side shields
4) Regular eyeglasses
Goggles with side shields provide the best protection against splashes and sprays of blood and body fluids, as they cover the eyes, nose, and cheeks completely.
A 1.5mm diameter carious pulp exposure occurs on a permanent first molar of a 7
year old child The tooth is vital and has no periapical involvement. The most
appropriate initial treatment is to perform a/an
1) pulp capping.
2) partial pulpotomy
3) pulpotomy.
4) pulpectomy.
A partial pulpotomy preserves pulp vitality by removing inflamed tissue while maintaining healthy radicular pulp.
What is the most commonly used topical anesthetic in dentistry?
1) Lidocaine
2) Benzocaine
3) Articaine
4) Procaine
Benzocaine is frequently used as a topical anesthetic in dentistry due to its effectiveness and rapid onset of action.
Penumbra in radiology and imaging refers to?
1) Area of sharpness in imaging
2) Lack of sharpness of the film
3) The outer region of a shadow
4) The central part of an image
In the context of radiology and imaging, penumbra refers to the peripheral, less dense area surrounding the shadow cast by an opaque object. It is the transition zone between the dense shadow and the surrounding, unaffected tissue. It can sometimes cause difficulties in interpreting the extent of lesions or structures due to the blending of the shadow's edges with the surrounding tissue.
What happens when rests are not properly designed?
1) They could be aesthetically displeasing
2) They may not transfer occlusal stresses effectively
3) They could enhance retention
4) They become more comfortable
Poorly designed rests may fail to effectively transfer occlusal stresses, potentially compromising the stability of the RPD.
Increasing the powder to liquid ratio in a zinc phosphate cement will 1. increase the setting time and increase the strength 2. increase the setting time and decrease the strength 3. decrease the set time and increase the strength 4. decrease the setting time and decrease the strength
Dental Material Answer: 3Increasing the powder to liquid ratio in a zinc phosphate cement will decrease the set time and increase the strength
How is acetylcholine released?
1) Diffusion
2) Exocytosis
3) Active transport
4) Osmosis
Acetylcholine is released from nerve terminals into the synaptic cleft via exocytosis, a process where vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane.
Which type of bridge is not ideal for posterior cantilever due to heavy
occlusal forces?
1) Single retainer cantilever
2) Multiple-splinted abutment
3) Cantilever with two abutment teeth
4) Fixed-fixed bridge
a single retainer cantilever is not ideal for posterior cantilever due to heavy occlusal forces, which can cause increased stress on the abutment tooth.
The formation of oxyhemoglobin is influenced by
Patients with untreated malignant hypertension typically survive for how long without treatment? 1) 1 year 2) 2 years 3) 5 years 4) 10 years
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 1Untreated malignant hypertension has a poor prognosis, with a typical survival period of around one year due to severe complications.