Dentist Abroad
What is the dentist's evaluation of a patient's general health and appearance part of?
- Medical history
- Dental history
- Informed consent
- Treatment plan
The dentist's evaluation of a patient's general health and appearance is a critical component of the medical history, which informs the treatment approach.
Which of the following is a Beta-1 selective blocker ?
1) propranolol
2) nadolol
3) pindolol
4) betaxolol
Beta-1 selective blockers
These include atenolol and metoprolol (as well as betaxolol, bevantolol, and perhaps esmolol).
Non-selective beta blockers
propranolol
Prothrombin production in the liver is dependent upon an adequate dietary supply of 1 Vitamin A 2 Vitamin E 3 Vitamin K 4 None of the above
Biochemistry Answer: 3Prothrombin production in the liver is dependent upon Vitamin K intake
What is the primary risk of chisel and mallet technique for bone removal?
1) Damage to the adjacent teeth
2) Increased risk of infection
3) Increased risk of bone fracture
4) Increased risk of bleeding
The chisel and mallet technique requires careful execution as it can lead to fractures in the jaw bone if not performed correctly.
The angle of convexity
1) SNA
2) NAPog.
3) ANB
4) SNB
SOLUTION Angle of Convexity The angle of convexity is formed by the intersection of line from N to point A, to point A to pogonion.
How long should dental radiographs be retained for adults?
1) 5 years
2) 7 years
3) 11 years
4) 15 years
Dental radiographs for adults should be retained for 11 years per guidelines, ensuring proper follow-up and legal compliance.
Considering the 3D growth of the face, it ceases last in which direction?
1. A-P
2. sagittal
3. transverse
4. vertical
for facial growth order of growth is width > depth > height
What is the typical pain description for a dry socket?
1) Continuous, severe, and throbbing
2) Sharp and intermittent
3) Mild and constant
4) Only present with biting or chewing
Dry socket pain is characteristically severe, continuous, and throbbing, differing from the milder pain of a normal extraction site.
A 6 year old child has a non-vital primary mandibular second molar which has a
draining sinus tract from he bifurcation area The most appropriate management
is
1) extraction.
2) observation.
3) pulpotomy.
4) direct pulp capping.
Which ion acts as a second messenger?
1) Sodium
2) Potassium
3) Calcium
4) Magnesium
Calcium ions serve as important second messengers in various cellular signaling pathways, facilitating communication within and between cells.
The function of cobalt in a cast chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy is to 1. increase resistance to shear and tensile stresses 2. provide tarnish resistance 3. increase tendency for higher ductility and decrease casting shrinkage 4. contribute strength, rigidity, and hardness
Dental Material Answer: 4Cobalt in a cast chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy contribute to strength, rigidity, and hardness
In the absence of its permanent successor, a primary first molar of a 7 year old
1) should be treated endodontically to prevent root resorption.
2) may remain for years with no significant resorption.
3) should be extracted
4) is more susceptible to dental caries.
In the absence of a successor, primary molars often remain functional and stable
for extended periods.
Pethidine should not be given with:
1) Reserpine
2) Propranolol
3) Atenolol
4) MAO inhibitors
Pethidine can cause severe excitatory response and arrhythmia in patients on MAO therapy due to high levels of catecholamines.
You suspect that your patient has an enlarged submandibular salivary gland. You expect the enlarged gland?
1) To be palpable intraorally
2) Only to be detectable by radiographical examination.
3) To be palpable both intra- and extraorally
4) To be palpable extraorally.
When a submandibular salivary gland is enlarged, it can be palpable both intraorally (inside the mouth) and extraorally (outside the mouth).
Which of the following is a common oral manifestation of diabetes
mellitus?
1) Oral lichen planus
4) Gingival overgrowth
3) Geographic tongue
4) Oral candidiasis
Diabetes can lead to a compromised immune system and increased
susceptibility to infections, making oral candidiasis a common manifestation.
A removable partial denture rest should be placed on the lingual surface of a canine rather than on the incisal surface because:
1) Less leverage is exerted against the tooth by the rest.
2) The enamel is thicker on the lingual surface.
3) Visibility and access are better.
4) The cingulum of the canine provides a natural recess that does not need to be prepared.
FPD and RPD Answer: 1Lingual rests provide better mechanical advantage by minimizing leverage and torque forces on the abutment teeth, preserving their health and stability.
Koplik's spots are seen in the oral cavity of patients with
1) chickenpox.
2) mumps.
3) measles.
4) scarlet fever.
E. smallpox.
Koplik's spots are small, white spots found on the mucous
membranes of the cheeks in the early stages of measles. These spots are
pathognomonic for the disease and typically appear before the rash. They are not
associated with the other conditions listed: chickenpox, mumps, or scarlet
fever.
Agents not recommended for Bier block:
1) Chloroprocaine (Nesacaine), mepivacaine (Carbocaine), and bupivacaine (Marcaine)
2) Chloroprocaine (Nesacaine)
3) Mepivacaine (Carbocaine)
4) Bupivacaine (Marcaine)
Chloroprocaine (Nesacaine), mepivacaine (Carbocaine), and bupivacaine (Marcaine) are not recommended for Bier block.
Can informed consent be obtained from a patient who is under the influence of
sedation?
1) Yes, as long as the patient can still communicate their wishes
2) No, sedation impairs the patient's ability to understand and make decisions
3) Yes, because the patient's consent was obtained before administration of
sedation
4) It depends on the type and level of sedation
Informed consent must be obtained when the patient is fully conscious and has the mental capacity to comprehend the information provide4) If sedation affects the patient's ability to make informed decisions, consent should be obtained before administration.
Apoptosis is suggestive of?
1. liquifaction degeneration
2 coagulation necrosis
3 neo angiogenesis
4 eithelial dysplasia
Cells die by one of two mechanisms – necrosis or apoptosis • Two physiologically different processes – Necrosis – death by injury – Apoptosis – death by suicide Appoptosis: Disintegration of cells into membrane-bound particles that are then eliminated by phagocytosis or by shedding.
Which of the following is common to all forms of hemorrhagic shock?
1) Sepsis.
2) Hypovolemia
3) Impaired tissue perfusion.
4) Vasoconstriction.
Hemorrhagic shock results in inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues due to reduced blood volume.
What is the legal obligation of a dentist when they suspect a patient is a victim of abuse or neglect?
1) To report the suspicion to the authorities immediately
2) To advise the patient to report the abuse themselves
3) To maintain confidentiality and not take any action
4) To conduct a thorough investigation before reporting
Dentists are mandated reporters and must report any suspicion of abuse or neglect to the appropriate authorities immediately.
During setting, a gypsum-bonded investment material will undergo an additional
expansion if it occurs
1) under water.
2) under vacuum.
3) in a cold environment.
4) in a dry environment.
Hygroscopic expansion occurs when water surrounds the setting gypsum, enhancing
its dimensional changes.
This type of expansion is often utilized intentionally in casting to compensate
for metal shrinkage during cooling.
What is the most effective preventive care for dental caries in geriatric
patients?
1) Daily flossing
2) Professional cleanings every six months
3) Fluoride applications
4) Routine radiographs
Frequent fluoride applications can strengthen enamel and reduce
caries incidence, especially in those with reduced salivary flow.
Ferrite and austenite are soft and ductile
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors reduce blood pressure by:
1) Increasing heart rate
2) Blocking calcium channels
3) Inhibiting angiotensin II formation
4) Blocking aldosterone receptors
ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, reducing vasoconstriction and lowering blood pressure.
Impressions taken with which of the following materials are subject to distortion as a result of water sorption? 1. silicone rubber 2. polysulflde polymers 3. zinc oxide-eugenol-paste 4. polyether
Dental Material Answer: 4polyether materials are subject to distortion as a result of water sorption
Ropivacaine is pharmacologically similar to:
1) Lignocaine
2) Mepivacaine
3) Etidocaine
4) Bupivacaine
Ropivacaine is newer drug which is pharmacologically similar to bupivacaine with less cardiotoxicity.
Rapid induction of anaesthesia occurs with which of the following anaesthetic:
1) Isoflurane
2) Halothane
3) esflurane
4) Sevoflurane
Desflurane has the lowest blood gas partition coefficient of 0.42, so has fastest induction and recovery.
Which of the following is a sign of neglect in a dental patient?
1) A patient with a full set of dentures
2) A child with untreated dental decay and poor nutrition
3) A patient who regularly attends dental appointments
4) A patient who is anxious about dental procedures
Untreated dental decay and poor nutrition can indicate neglect, especially in children who rely on caregivers for proper care.
What is the correct dose of Amoxicillin oral suspension for a child?
1) 250mg/5ml
2) 125mg/5ml
3) 500mg/5ml
4) 100mg/5ml
The standard pediatric dosage for Amoxicillin oral suspension is typically 125mg/5ml, an important medication for treating bacterial infections in children.
All are non-verbal characteristics of aggressive behavior except:
1) Staring the person out.
2) Leaning forward or over.
3) Scowling when angry.
4) Sexual or racist remarks.
The given answer, "Sexual or racist remarks," is the only option that does not pertain to non-verbal characteristics of aggressive behavior. Staring the person out, leaning forward or over, and scowling when angry are all non-verbal cues that can indicate aggression. However, making sexual or racist remarks involves verbal communication rather than non-verbal cues.
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) The pain usually lasts for a few seconds up to a minute in the early stages of the disease
2) The pain is usually unilateral
3) Patients characteristically have sites on the skin that, when stimulated, precipitate an attack of pain
4) An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the forehead
ADC Test Answer: 4
While trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by paroxysmal pain, it is not typically associated with sweating in the forehead region.
False statement regarding phenytoin is?
1) It is a teratogenic drug
2) Highly protein bound
3) Induces insulin secretion
4) Follows saturation kinetics
Phenytoin inhibits insulin secretion and causes hyperglycemia.
permanent maxillary First molar teeth normally has four root canals
What is BMI (Body Mass Index) for, and how do we measure it?
1) To check if someone is overweight/obese/underweight; calculated as weight (kg) / height (m²)
2) To measure muscle mass; calculated as weight (kg) / height (m)
3) To assess hydration levels; calculated as weight (kg) / height (m)
4) To determine bone density; calculated as weight (kg) / height (m²)
BMI is a widely used indicator to classify individuals based on their weight relative to their height, helping to identify potential health risks associated with being underweight, normal weight, overweight, or obese.
Which is the most common jaw cyst in the UK?
1) Dentigerous cyst
2) Radicular cyst
3) Odontogenic keratocyst
4) Nasopalatine duct cyst
The radicular cyst is the most prevalent type of jaw cyst, commonly associated with non-vital teeth.
Which of the following anaesthetic has beta blocker action:
1) Halothane
2) Isoflurane
3) Methoxyflurane
4) Nitrous oxide
Halothane produces beta-blocker-like action, causing direct depression of the myocardium and bradycardia.
What is the ideal angle for subgingival curettage with universal curettes?
1) 45 degrees
2) 60 degrees
3) 70 degrees
4) 90 degrees
A 45-degree angle is optimal for subgingival curettage, allowing effective scaling while preserving soft tissue.
How much force is usually used to move a tooth with an orthodontic appliance?
- extremely light force, less than 1 gram
- moderate force, in the range of 50 to 150 grams
- very heavy force, greater than 500 grams
- whatever the patient can tolerate
moderate force, in the range of 50 to 150 grams
Correction of a lingual crossbite of tooth 1.2 has the best long-term prognosis if 1.2 is:
1) Ideally inclined, with 5% overbite.
2) Ideally inclined, with 50% overbite.
3) Lingually inclined, with 5% overbite.
4) Lingually inclined, with 50% overbite.
Orthodontics Answer: 4Lingual inclination combined with significant overbite allows better stabilization of tooth position after correction.
Which immunoglobulin is dimeric?
1) IgG
2) IgM
3) IgA
4) IgE
Secretory IgA is a dimeric form of immunoglobulin that plays a key role in mucosal immunity.
What is the retention period for dental records according to most dental boards? 1) 2 years 2) 5 years 3) 10 years 4) Varies by country/state
Dental Records Answer: 4The retention period for dental records is typically dictated by each country's or state's dental board. In many jurisdictions, the minimum retention period is 10 years after the patient's last appointment, but it can vary. For example, in some states in the U.S., the requirement may be 7 or 10 years, while in others it can be indefinitely if the patient is a minor. It's important for dental offices to follow the specific guidelines set by their local regulatory bodies.
What is the recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner?
1) 150F for 2 hours.
2) 180F for 30 minutes.
3) 160F for 30 minutes.
4) 160F for 30 minutes, then boil for 2 hours.
The recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner is to first bring the temperature of the water to 160F (71C) and maintain it for 30 minutes.
Which muscle of the soft palate is not supplied by the pharyngeal plexus? 1. Palatoglossus 2. Musculus uvulae 3. Palatopharyngeus 4. Tensor veli palatine
Anatomy Answer: 4muscle of the soft palate is not supplied by the pharyngeal plexus is Tensor veli palatine
How should a patient's refusal of treatment be documented in the dental record?
- In a separate, sealed envelope
- In the treatment plan section with a notation of refusal
- In the financial section of the record
- It does not need to be documented
Refusal of treatment should be clearly documented in the patient's medical record to ensure that all parties are aware of the decision.
What is the recommended technique for measuring blood pressure? 1) Patient should cross legs while seated 2) Patient should be seated for at least 5 minutes 3) Inflate the cuff quickly to 100 mmHg 4) Use a stethoscope on the neck artery
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 2For accurate blood pressure measurement, the patient should be seated comfortably for at least 5 minutes without crossing their legs.
What role does the dental assistant play in managing an anxious patient?
1) To perform all clinical procedures
2) To provide medication to patients
3) To offer emotional support and reassurance
4) To make treatment decisions
Dental assistants can play a crucial role in offering emotional support, helping to soothe anxious patients during visits.
What is the primary advantage of computerized dental records in terms of patient care?
- Enhanced data security
- Improved legibility and reduced errors
- Reduced waiting times for appointments
- Increased marketing opportunities
Digital records can enhance patient care by reducing errors associated with handwritten notes and improving legibility, which facilitates better communication among dental professionals and safer treatment planning.
The location and extent of subgingival calculus is most accurately determined clinically by:
1) Radiopaque solution used in conjunction with radiographs.
2) Disclosing solution.
3) Probing with a fine instrument.
4) Visual inspection.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Probing with a fine instrument allows for the direct evaluation of the periodontal pockets and can provide information about the presence and extent of subgingival calculus.
Which of the following is/are associated with the presence of microorganisms in
the bloodstream?
1) Anachoresis.
2) Cavernous sinus thrombosis.
3) Bacteremia
4) All of the above.
All the options listed (Anachoresis, Cavernous sinus thrombosis, and Bacteremia) are associated with the presence of microorganisms in the bloodstream. Anachoresis refers to the process by which bacteria can localize in tissues, cavernous sinus thrombosis can occur due to the spread of infection from the oral cavity, and bacteremia is the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream itself.
What is the correct sequence of events in tooth development?
1) Differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium, dentine formation then enamel formation
2) Differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation, elongation of enamel epithelium
3) Elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation
4) None of the above
ADC Test Answer: 3
The processes in tooth development unfold with the elongation of the enamel epithelium followed by odontoblast differentiation and the sequential formation of dentine and enamel.
Rejecting, negative inquiry, and fogging, are all responses for which type of
criticism.
1) Postive criticism.
2) Destructive criticism.
3) False criticism.
4) Constructive criticism.
Rejecting, negative inquiry, and fogging are all responses that are typically
associated with destructive criticism. Destructive criticism refers to feedback
or comments that are unhelpful, hurtful, or aimed at tearing down the person or
their work rather than providing constructive suggestions for improvement. These
responses mentioned in the question indicate a dismissive attitude, a negative
questioning approach, and an attempt to obscure or evade the issue, all of which
are characteristic of destructive criticism.
Which of the following is used to decrease the toxicity of amphotericin B?
1) Dose reduction
2) Liposomal delivery systems
3) Supplementing glucose
4) Giving it along with flucytosine
Liposomal delivery systems decrease the amount of free drug in the blood Infected cells interact with the liposomes, resulting in the release of amphotericin B at the site of action.
Acute or subacute suppurative osteomyelitis occurs most frequently in the
1) anterior maxilla
2) posterior mandible.
3) posterior maxilla
4) anterior mandible.
The posterior mandible is more susceptible due to its dense cortical bone and
reduced blood supply, which hinder immune responses.
What is the purpose of the Caldicott Principles in healthcare?
1) To manage financial records
2) To guide the sharing of patient information
3) To improve marketing strategies
4) To enhance staff training
The Caldicott Principles provide a framework for ensuring that patient information is used and shared appropriately in healthcare settings.
What does the principle of non-maleficence require dentists to do?
1) Provide only beneficial treatment
2) Do no harm to the patient
3) Ensure the patient's financial well-being
4) Advocate for social justice in healthcare
Non-maleficence is the ethical principle that obliges dentists to refrain from causing harm to patients, both intentionally and unintentionally. This includes avoiding actions that could lead to unnecessary pain, injury, or suffering.
In concentrations usually applied for sterilization purposes, ethylene oxide is preferable to formaldehyde becuase it is more penetrating
Which of the following is a non-preferable characteristic for an abutment
tooth root shape?
1) Broad and divergent roots
2) Round and fused roots
3) Single and conical roots
4) All of the above
While not explicitly mentioned as non-preferable, round and fused roots are not listed among the preferred characteristics for abutment teeth. Broad and divergent roots are considered desirable.
Which of the following is a thiazide diuretic commonly used to manage hypertension?
1) Furosemide
2) Amiloride
3) Chlorothiazide
4) Spironolactone
Chlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic commonly used in hypertension, while Furosemide is a loop diuretic, Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist.
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors are useful in the management of ?
1) Acute myeloid leukemia
2) Small cell carcinoma of lung
3) Gastrointestinal stromal tumors
4) Neurofibromatosis
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors are used in the treatment of: Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia ( philadelphia chromosome positive cases )
Head and neck malignancies
Non small cell carcinoma lung
Gastrointestinal stromal tumours
Hepatocellular cancer
Renal cell carcinoma
Pancreatic cancer
Colorectal cancer
Which type of radiograph is particularly useful for evaluating the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?
1) Panoramic radiograph
2) Periapical radiograph
3) Occlusal radiograph
4) Cone beam computed tomography (CBCT)
CBCT provides detailed 3D images of the TMJ, allowing for accurate assessment of its structure and potential pathology.
Tissue conditioning materials made of silicone are:
1) More resilient than plastic acrylic
2) Devoid of antimicrobial properties
3) Less durable than traditional materials
4) Typically harder than acrylics
ADC Test Answer: 1
Silicone lining materials are noted for their resilience and comfort, maintaining their cushioning properties over time compared to plastic acrylics.
What is the dentist's role in identifying signs of domestic violence in a patient?
1) To ask the patient directly if they are being abused
2) To recognize and document physical and behavioral signs of abuse
3) To provide counseling services
4) To provide legal advice
The dentist's role involves recognizing and documenting any physical injuries or behavioral indicators that may suggest abuse.
What is the critical pH for demineralization of carbonate-substituted
hydroxyapatite (CHA)?
1) 4.5
2) 5.5
3) 6.2
4) 7.0
The critical pH for CHA is 5.5, below which demineralization begins.
Which one of these is the etiological factors of tongue thrust?
1) Hyposensitive palate
2) Hypertonic orbicularis oris activity
3) Macroglossia
4) All of these
Etiology of Tongue thrust Genetic factors : They are specific anatomic or neuromuscular variations in the oro-facial region that can precipitate tongue thrust.
Fletcher has proposed the following factors as being the cause for tongue thrusting.
Learned behaviour (habit) : Tongue thrust can be acquired as a habit.
The following are some of the predisposing factors that can lead to tongue thrusting:
a. Improper bottle feeding
b. Prolonged thumb sucking
c. Prolonged tonsillar and upper respiratory tract infections
d. Prolonged duration of tenderness of gum or teeth can result in a change in swallowing pattern to avoid pressure on the tender zone.
Maturational : Tongue thrust can present as part of a normal childhood behaviour that is gradually modified as the age advances. The infantile swallow changes to a mature swallow once the posterior deciduous teeth start erupting.
Sometimes the maturation is delayed and thus infantile swallow persists for a longer duration of time.
Mechanical restrictions : The presence of certain conditions such as macroglossia, constricted dental arches and enlarged adenoids predispose to tongue thrust habit.
Neurological disturbance: Neurological disturbances affecting the oro-facial region such as hyposensitive palate and moderate motor disability can cause tongue thrust habit.
Psychogenic factors : Tongue thrust can sometimes occur as a result of forced discontinuation of other habits like thumb sucking. It is often seen that children who are forced to leave thumb sucking habit often take up tongue thrusting.
What characterizes the action of saliva on dental plaque?
1) It increases plaque pH immediately.
2) It has no effect on plaque acidity.
3) It dilutes and neutralizes plaque acidity.
4) It only coats teeth without affecting pH.
Saliva plays a crucial role in maintaining oral health by diluting and carrying away acid metabolites produced by plaque bacteria, thus helping to neutralize acidity and reduce the risk of caries development.
What is the best treatment for recurrent pericoronitis?
1) Antibiotics
2) Extraction of the involved tooth
3) Root canal treatment of the third molar
4) Periodontal scaling and root planing
Extracting the impacted third molar is the best treatment for recurrent pericoronitis as it addresses the underlying cause of the infection.
Enamel most likely effected by deficiency of vitamin A
What should a dentist do if a patient changes their mind about a treatment
after informed consent has been given?
1) Proceed with the treatment regardless of the patient's change of heart
2) Discuss the patient's concerns and possibly modify the treatment plan
3) Require the patient to obtain consent from a second dentist
4) Document the patient's withdrawal of consent and stop the treatment
Patients have the right to withdraw consent at any time. The dentist must respect this decision and stop the treatment. It is important to document the patient's wishes to avoid any misunderstandings or legal issues.
What is the primary factor that influences the ease of removing an impacted third molar?
1) The depth of impaction
2) The age of the patient
3) The angulation of the tooth
4) The patient's pain tolerance
The angulation of the tooth significantly affects the difficulty of extraction, with certain angles (like mesinangular impaction) being easier to manage compared to others (like distoangular impaction).
What type of information is typically included in a patient's medical history in a dental record?
- Financial history
- Detailed dental insurance coverage
- List of systemic diseases, medications, allergies, and lifestyle habits
- Work history and education
A comprehensive medical history in a dental record should include relevant medical information that may affect the patient's oral health or treatment.
X-ray films have an emulsion on one or both sides of a support material. The emulsion contains particles of:
1) Silver nitrate crystal
2) Metallic silver in gelatine
3) Silver bromide in gelatine
4) Silver nitrate in gelatine
ADC Test Answer: 3
The emulsion on x-ray films is primarily composed of silver bromide crystals suspended in gelatin, which is sensitive to radiation.
A positive and prolonged reaction to a heat stimulus indicates that the pulp is
1) necrotic
2) in an early hyperemic state.
3) normal.
4) irreversibly damaged
A positive and prolonged reaction to a heat stimulus typically indicates that the pulp is irreversibly damaged. This prolonged response suggests that the nerve fibers are still responding to the stimulus, but the damage is significant enough that the pulp is not capable of healing, indicating a need for endodontic treatment.
What is the minimum requirement for the retention of dental records according to the GDC?
- 5 years for adults, 8 years for children
- 8 years for adults, 10 years for children
- 10 years for adults, indefinitely for children
- Different retention periods for each type of treatment
The GDC advises that dental records should be retained for at least 8 years after the last treatment for adults and 10 years for children until the patient reaches 25 years of age or 8 years after the last treatment, whichever is longer.
What percentage of the UK population receives fluoridated water?
1) 5%
2) 10%
3) 15%
4) 20%
Approximately 10% of the UK population has access to fluoridated water, which helps in reducing dental caries.
What is the radiograph of choice for new edentulous patients?
1) Periapical
2) Bitewing
3) Panoramic
4) Cone beam CT
Periapical radiographs are the best choice as they allow for detailed visualization of specific problem areas in newly edentulous patients.
Bone tissue grows by
1) Apposition
2) Interstitial growth
3) Osteoclastic growth
4) Mesenchymal tissue growth
SOLUTION Interstitial growth, simply means that it occurs at all points within the tissue.
Chelating agent contraindicated in iron and cadmium poisoning
1) Penicillamine
2) Des ferroxamine
3) EDTA
4) BAL
Dimercaprol (British antilewisite; BAL) 1.
2. As an adjuvant to Cal. Disod. Edentate in lead poisoning.
3. As an adjuvant to penicillamine in Cu poisoning and in Wilson’s disease – 300 mg/day i.m. for 10 days every second month.
It is contraindicated in iron and cadmium poisoning, because the dimercaprol-Fe and dimercaprol-Cd complex is itself toxic.
What type of information should be included in the patient's medical history?
1) Only dental information
2) Only medical information
3) Both dental and medical information
4) Dental, medical, lifestyle, and family history information
A comprehensive medical history should include the patient's dental information, medical conditions, current medications, allergies, and surgeries. Additionally, lifestyle factors such as tobacco and alcohol use, and family history of diseases can be relevant to the patient's oral health and treatment decisions.
Bitewing radiography is the main special test used to help in the diagnosis of proximal caries. What is a reasonable summary of the diagnostic accuracy of bitewing radiography for proximal caries diagnosis?
1) Moderate sensitivity and low specificity
2) Moderate sensitivity and moderate specificity
3) High sensitivity and high specificity
4) High sensitivity and moderate specificity
Bitewing radiography is known for its high sensitivity and specificity in detecting proximal caries, making it a valuable diagnostic tool.
In cases of anorexia nervosa with high caries rates, what management options should be prioritized?
1) Dietary advice
2) Tooth brushing
3) Referral to a GP
4) All of the above
Comprehensive management should include dietary advice, oral hygiene practices, and medical evaluation while working closely with healthcare providers.
Which of the following is NOT a component of informed consent in dentistry?
1) Explanation of the diagnosis
2) Description of the proposed treatment
3) Discussion of the risks and benefits of the treatment
4) Patient's agreement to pay for the treatment
While financial considerations are important in the overall decision-making process, informed consent specifically pertains to the patient's understanding and agreement to the medical aspects of the treatment, not the financial agreement.
what %age of NaF is used in iontophoresis:
1.1%
2.2%
3.3%
4.4%
2% NaF is used in iontophoresis. This fluoride treatments brings about granular precipitation in dentinal tubules and reduces tubular diameter.
What information is included in a dental chart?
1) Patient's name and contact details
2) A visual representation of the patient's teeth and their conditions
3) Treatment notes and plans
4) All of the above
A dental chart is a graphic representation of a patient's mouth that includes all teeth, their conditions, restorations, and any other relevant oral information.
The alpha-2 function pre-synaptically at the neuromuscular junction is
responsible for:
1) Facilitation of transmitter release
2) Inhibition of transmitter release
3) Activation of cholinergic receptors
4) Blockade of sodium channels
Alpha-2 receptors located pre-synaptically can inhibit the release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for informed consent in dental treatment?
1) The patient must be competent to make decisions
2) The treatment options must be fully explained to the patient
3) The patient must be informed of the risks and benefits of each option
4) The patient must sign the consent form in triplicate
Informed consent requires that the patient is competent to make decisions, the treatment options are fully explained, the risks and benefits are communicated, and the patient understands the nature and purpose of the proposed treatment. While a signed consent form is typically required, there is no standard requirement for the number of copies.
Drug of choice for ventricular arrhythmias induced by bupivacaine:
1) Bretylium tosylate
2) Lignocaine
3) Nifedipine
4) Verapamil
Bupivacaine has got high cardiotoxic potential.
In cases of suspected abuse or neglect, dental professionals should:
1) Keep detailed records of injuries and treatment
2) Ask leading questions to determine the cause of injuries
3) Diagnose the patient with abuse or neglect
4) Treat the injuries and ignore the potential causes
Dental professionals should maintain thorough records of the patient's injuries and treatment, which may be valuable in legal proceedings.
What is the primary histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris?
1) Acanthosis
2) Acantholysis
3) Hyperkeratosis
4) Dyskeratosis
Acantholysis is the key histological feature of pemphigus vulgaris, leading to the formation of vesicles and ulcers in the oral mucosa.
Which of the following is a potential drawback of computerized dental records?
1) Increased efficiency
2) Data security concerns
3) Improved accessibility
4) Enhanced accuracy
While computerized records offer many benefits, they can also be vulnerable to cyber threats, necessitating robust security measures.
What is the significance of the pH buffering capacity of saliva in
preventing dental caries?
1) It does not affect caries formation
2) It prevents the formation of lactic acid
3) It helps to maintain a pH above the critical threshold for demineralization
4) It promotes the formation of enamel
Saliva's buffering capacity helps to counteract the acidity produced by bacterial fermentation of sugars, maintaining a pH above the critical threshold and preventing demineralization.
What is the minimum acceptable crown to root ratio for an abutment tooth?
1) 1:2
2) 2:3
3) 1:1
4) 2:1
a 1:1 crown to root ratio is
considered the minimum for an abutment tooth, indicating that the length of the
clinical crown should be at least equal to the length of the clinical root.
The gas with greatest solubility in blood:
1) Nitrous oxide
2) Nitrogen
3) Oxygen
4) Hydrogen
Although the solubility of nitrous oxide in blood is less than other inhalational agents, its solubility is 35 times more than nitrogen and 15 times more than oxygen.
What is the relationship between the acidity of the mouth and the
progression of dental caries?
1) No relationship
2) Low acidity prevents caries
3) High acidity promotes caries
4) High acidity reverses caries
A pH below the critical level leads to demineralization and the progression of dental caries.
Which of the following actions is NOT a responsibility of a dental professional when they suspect abuse or neglect?
1) Reporting the suspicion to the appropriate authorities
2) Investigating the situation personally
3) Documenting observations in the patient’s record
4) Providing support to the patient
Dental professionals should report their suspicions rather than investigate, as this is outside their scope of practice.
Which of the following is NOT an indication for sealants?
1) Questionable or confirmed enamel caries
2) Presence of deep pits/fissure
3) Proximal caries
4) Increased risk for caries
Sealants are indicated for questionable or confirmed enamel caries, presence of deep pits/fissure, and increased risk for caries. Proximal caries are not an indication for sealants.
What are the main categories of dental records?
1) Diagnostic, treatment, and financial
2) Medical, dental, and surgical
3) Administrative, clinical, and radiographic
4) Patient, treatment, and billing
Dental records are generally categorized into three main types: administrative, which include patient information and appointment details; clinical, which encompass the patient's medical and dental history, treatment notes, and progress; and radiographic, which are the imaging studies such as x-rays used to diagnose and plan treatment.
Penicillins:
1) Are the antibiotic of choice for anaerobic infections
2) Are bacteriostatic
3) Are protagonistic to tetracycline
4) Interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesis
The penicillins all act by interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis, by inhibiting cross-linking of the mucopeptides in the cell wall and as such are bacteriocidal.
What artery provides nourishment to the TMJ?
1) Superficial temporal artery
2) Maxillary artery
3) Facial artery
4) Inferior alveolar artery
The superficial temporal artery, a branch of the maxillary artery, provides blood supply to the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).
How are forces transmitted through rests?
1) Along the oblique axis
2) Parallel to the long axis of the tooth
3) Perpendicular to the tooth
4) Randomly throughout the denture
Rests are designed to transmit forces in a manner that aligns them parallel to the long axis of the supporting tooth.
Which of the following will most lead to a person unwilling to accept criticism:
1) Being raised in a destructive criticism environment.
2) Working in a destructive criticism environment.
3) The person only gives out destructive criticism.
4) Having aggressive behavior.
Being raised in a destructive criticism environment can greatly contribute to a person's unwillingness to accept criticism. This is because if someone grows up constantly being subjected to negative and destructive criticism, they may develop a fear of judgment and rejection. They may also internalize the belief that criticism is always harmful and personal, making them defensive and resistant to any form of feedback. This upbringing can shape their mindset and make them view criticism as an attack rather than an opportunity for growth, leading to their unwillingness to accept it.
Administration of which among the following anaesthetic agent results in a state of dissociative anaesthesia?
1) Ether
2) Propofol
3) Ketamine
4) Thiopentone sodium
Dissociative Anaesthesia refers to a characteristic state which results after an induction dose of Ketamine.
What is the effective way to prevent the spread of infection during dental procedures?
1) Use a single-use needle
2) Sterilize instruments thoroughly
3) Disinfect surfaces before and after procedures
4) All of the above
Multiple strategies are essential for infection control in dental settings, including using sterile instruments, disinfecting surfaces, and employing single-use items to prevent cross-contamination.
The development of lateral canals can be attributed to:
1) Faulty restoration technique
2) Cracks in Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath
3) Genetic anomalies
4) External dental trauma
ADC Test Answer: 2
Lateral canals form due to disruptions in the Hertwig's epithelial root sheath during tooth root development, creating additional channels in the root structure.
Which class of antihypertensive drugs includes drugs like Captopril and Enalapril?
1) Beta-blockers
2) ACE inhibitors
3) ARBs
4) Diuretics
ACE inhibitors like Captopril and Enalapril work by blocking the angiotensin-converting enzyme, reducing blood pressure.
Which nerve is located between the palatoglossus and palatopharyngeus
muscles?
1) Cranial nerve 9
2) Cranial nerve 7
3) Cranial nerve 10
4) Cranial nerve 12
The facial nerve (CN 7) passes between the palatoglossus and
palatopharyngeus muscles in the pterygopalatine fossa.
A dentist observes that an elderly patient has poor oral hygiene and appears to be wearing the same clothes for several days. What is the most appropriate action?
1) Offer to clean the patient’s teeth for free
2) Discuss the situation with the patient’s family
3) Report suspected neglect to adult protective services
4) Ignore the signs if the patient is independent
The dentist should report any signs of neglect to ensure the patient receives the necessary care and assistance.
After completion of endodontic chemomechanical debridement
1) all tissue should be removed from the root canal system.
2) permanent inflammation may be cause4)
3) the root canal should be sterile.
4) some areas of the root canal system may be incompletely cleaned
Despite thorough chemomechanical debridement, it is common for certain areas within the complex anatomy of the root canal system to remain inadequately cleaned. This can occur due to the presence of lateral canals, isthmuses, or other anatomical variations that are difficult to access, leading to potential areas of infection or inflammation.
Relapse of orthodontic tooth rotation is due to periodontal traction. This is mainly caused by action of which periodontal fibers
1) Supracrestal fibres and oblique fibres
2) Supracrestal fibres and horizontal fibres
3) Supracrestal fibres and transeptal fibres
4) Transeptal fibres and oblique fibres
PDL traction is mainly due to supracrestal fibres, transeptal fibres of gingival fibers.
It needs at least 232 days for readaptation, e.g. rotations.
To avoid relapse either circumferential supracrestal fibrotomy is done OR a prolonged retention is given.
Which drug is most effective in reducing mortality in patients with left ventricular systolic dysfunction ?
1) Enalapril
2) Aspirin
3) Digoxin
4) Frusemide
ACE inhibition has a beneficial impact on survival rates, functional status, and hemodynamics in patients with left ventricular systolic dysfunction.
In the renin-angiotensin system, a fall in perfusion pressure stimulates the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney to release the enzyme renin.
Renin cleaves the decapeptide angiotensin I from angiotensinogen, a glycoprotein synthesized in the liver.
The octapeptide angiotensin II is formed by the action of ACE on angiotensin I.
Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor and stimulates the release of aldosterone and norepinephrine.
Which of the following is a physical sign that a dental patient may be a victim
of abuse?
1) A history of poor oral hygiene
2) Multiple missing teeth
3) Evidence of previous dental restorations
4) Inconsistent explanations of dental injuries
Explanation: While poor oral hygiene and missing teeth can be indicators of
neglect, they are not exclusively signs of abuse. However, if a patient provides
inconsistent explanations for their injuries, it may raise suspicion of abuse. Dentists should be attentive to the patient's history and any inconsistencies
that could suggest intentional harm.
Which type of cells is seen in the early stage of chronic periodontitis?
1) Basophils
2) Eosinophils
3) Lymphocytes
4) Neutrophils
5) Macrophages
In the early stages of chronic periodontitis, lymphocytes are predominant, indicating an adaptive immune response to periodontal pathogens.
Which of the following new technologies uses light to detect dental caries?
1) Digital Imaging Fibre-Optic Transillumination (DIFOTI)
2) Laser fluorescence (DIAGNOdent)
3) Quantitative Light-Induced Fluorescence (QLF)
4) All of the above
DIFOTI, DIAGNOdent, and QLF are all new technologies that utilize light to detect dental caries. They work by identifying changes in light transmission or fluorescence caused by the presence of carious lesions.
The most efficient method of sterilization in dental practice is 1. ultraviolet radiation 2. moist heat at 121°C for 20 min 3. boiling for 20 mm 4. dry heat at 40° C for 2 hours
Microbiology Answer: 2The most efficient method of sterilization in dental practice is moist heat at 121°C for 20 min
What does N1 indicate in the TNM classification?
1) No regional lymph node metastases
2) One ipsilateral node < 3 cm diameter
3) Ipsilateral or contralateral nodes 3-6 cm diameter
4) Lymph node metastasis > 6 cm diameter
N1 indicates the presence of one regional lymph node that is less than 3 cm in diameter, which is significant for staging the extent of cancer spread.
If an interproximal composite filling fails, what is likely to happen?
1) Overcontouring
2) Undercontouring
3) Overhang
4) Fracture
An improperly placed interproximal composite filling can create an overhang, leading to plaque accumulation and periodontal issues.
What is the most appropriate initial management of a tooth which is sensitive to
percussion but responds normally to electric pulp testing?
1) Pulpectomy.
2) Occlusal assessment.
3) Pulpotomy.
4) Restoration replacement.
Percussion sensitivity may result from occlusal trauma, which can be corrected by adjusting the bite.
The primary mandibular central incisors usually erupt at 1. 6-8 months 2. 2 years 3. 10 - 13 months 4. 52 - 72 weeks
Dental Anatomy Answer: 1The primary mandibular central incisors usually erupt at 6-8 months
Hemorrhagic shock is a circulatory disturbance characterized by
1) increase in blood pressure.
2) alteration in circulating blood volume.
3) elevation of temperature.
4) decrease in amount of interstitial fluid
Hemorrhagic shock occurs due to significant blood loss, reducing effective circulation and oxygen transport.
Coronoid fractures are rare, accounting for only about 1% of mandibular fractures. The coronoid process is well-protected laterally by the zygomatic arch, making fractures in this area uncommon.
What is the most effective non-pharmacological method for managing dental anxiety?
1) Tell-Show-Do technique
2) Breathing exercises
3) Positive reinforcement
4) Nitrous oxide sedation
Breathing exercises, such as deep breathing or diaphragmatic breathing, are widely recognized as effective non-pharmacological methods for reducing anxiety. They help the patient to relax and can be performed easily without additional equipment.
What is the process called when minerals are lost from tooth structure?
1) Remineralization
2) Demineralization
3) Erosion
4) Cavitation
Demineralization refers to the loss of minerals (Ca2+ and PO4) from tooth structure, leading to decay.
One of the side-effects of prilocaine is
1) Gastric bleeding
2) Porphyria
3) Photophobia
4) Methemoglobinemia
Methemoglobinemia is a condition in which the iron within hemoglobin is oxidized from the ferrous (Fe2+) state to the ferric (Fe3+) state, resulting in the inability to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.
usually results from exposure to oxidizing substances (such as nitrates or nitrites, aniline dyes, or medications, including lidocaine, prilocaine, phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium], and others)
Ketamine is contraindicated in:
1) Hypertension
2) Raised intracranial tension
3) Raised intraocular tension
4) All of the above
Rapid induction of anaesthesia occurs with which of the following anaesthetic:
1) Isoflurane
2) Halothane
3) esflurane
4) Sevoflurane
Ketamine raises both systolic and diastolic blood pressures and is thus contraindicated in hypertension.
Ideally, Orthodontic traction to pull an impacted tooth to line of arch should begin at
1) 2-3 months post surgically
2) As soon as possible after surgery
3) After a waiting period of at least1.5 months
4) Only the method of traction is critical, not the time
SOLUTION Mechanical approaches for aligning unerupted teeth.
Ideally a fixed orthodontic appliance should already be in place before the unerupted tooth is exposed, so that orthodontic force can be applied immediately.
If this is not practical, active orthodontic movement should being no later than 2 or 3 weeks post-surgically.
Which is harder?
1) Amalgam.
2) Composite.
3) Type IV gold.
4) Glass ionomer.
ADC Test Answer: 3
Type IV gold is the hardest material compared to amalgam, composite, or glass ionomer.
A diastema between two maxillary central permanent incisors could be associated
with the followings, EXCEPT
1) a mesiodens.
2) a congenital absence of permanent maxillary lateral incisors.
3) a large labial frenum.
4) adenomatoid odontogenetic tumour
Adenomatoid odontogenic tumors are generally not linked to diastemas; other options can contribute to spacing.
What percentage of hypertension cases is accounted for by primary or essential hypertension? 1) 50% 2) 60% 3) 75% 4) 90%
Pathology and Medicine Answer: 4Primary or essential hypertension makes up about 90% of all hypertension cases, typically with no identifiable cause and is associated with factors like genetics, smoking, and obesity.
What is the danger zone in dental surgery?
1) The area around the maxilla
2) The region of the face where infections could pass to the cavernous sinus
3) The area around the mandible
4) The region of the neck
The danger zone is a triangular area of the face where infections can spread to the cavernous sinus, posing serious health risks.
Supracrestal fibrotomy is done after correction of:
1) Crowding
2) Proclined incisors
3) Severely rotated teeth
4) Space closure
Solution Circumferential supracrestal fibrotomy (CSF) eliminates the pull of the stretched supracrestal gingival fibres which are the major cause of orthodontic relapse.
Glycolysis occurs in: 1. Cytoplasm 2. Mitochondrion 3. Both In cytoplasm and mitochondria 4. Only in presence of O2
Biochemistry Answer: 1Glycolysis occurs in Cytoplasm
A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12-week period following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by:
1) Further review and reassurance since it will most probably heal spontaneously
2) Antibiotic therapy and nasal decongestants
3) Curettage and dressing of the defect
4) Excision of the fistula and surgical closure
ADC Test Answer: 4
Surgical closure is the most effective treatment for a persistent oroantral fistula, especially after 12 weeks, as spontaneous healing is unlikely.
The nerve damaged if injured at the stylomastoid foramen is:
1) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9)
2) Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN 8)
3) Facial nerve (CN 7)
4) Accessory nerve (CN 11)
The facial nerve exits the cranium through the stylomastoid foramen and is therefore at risk of damage at this location.
What is the most common cause of pain in elderly patients with dental
implants?
1) Peri-implantitis
2) Implant fracture
3) Implant rejection
4) Nerve damage
Peri-implantitis, an inflammatory process affecting the tissues
surrounding the implant, is a common cause of pain and discomfort in patients
with dental implants.
Which type of rest is often used for additional support or indirect retention?
1) Primary rest
2) Secondary rest
3) Occlusal rest
4) Cingulum rest
Secondary or auxiliary rests provide additional support and help in maintaining retention in the RPD.
What is the function of glucosyltransferase (GTF) produced by Streptococcus
mutans?
1) Converts glucose to lactic acid
2) Assists in the removal of bacteria from the tooth surface
3) Helps in the formation of dentin
4) Converts sucrose to glucans and fructans
GTF is an enzyme that helps Streptococcus mutans adhere to the tooth surface by converting dietary sugars into sticky substances that form plaque.
At the end of a balanced anaesthesia technique with non-depolarizing muscle
relaxant, a patient recovered spontaneously from the effect of muscle relaxant
without any reversal. Which of the below given is the most probable relaxant the
patient received?
1 Pancuronium
2 Gallamine
3 Atracurium
4 Vecuronium
The patient must received Atracurium which seems consistent with the description
that he received a non depolarizing muscle relaxant and recovered spontaneously
from its effect without any reversal.
Atracurium refers to a short acting muscle relaxant.
Non-enzymatic degradation (Hofmann elimination) inactivates it spontaneously in
addition to that by cholinesterase.
Therefore, reversal is usually not required when it is used.
Hofmann elimination refers to the spontaneous fragmentation of Atracurium at the
bond between the quaternary nitrogen and the central chain.
What is the primary concern with a mesinangular impaction?
1) It is highly susceptible to infection
2) It is the most difficult to remove
3) It has the highest risk of damaging the adjacent teeth
4) It is associated with the lowest incidence of pericoronitis
Mesinangular impaction is the most common and least difficult type of impaction but is often associated with pericoronitis due to its position and difficulty in maintaining oral hygiene.
A single force applied at which point of a tooth will allow complete translation of the tooth.
1) At the apex
2) At the incisal edge
3) At the center of resistance
4) At the center of rotation
SOLUTION Center of resistance- Point analogous to the centers of gravity.
Generally it is constant.In single root it lies between one third and one half of the root apical to alveolar crest.
In multi rooted tooth it lies 1-2 mm apical to furcation
Epidural space has negative pressure in:
1) 20%
2) 30%
3) 50%
4) 80%
Local Anesthesia Answer: 4
80°/" Epidural space has negative pressure in more than 80% of individuals.
The most significant finding in clinical evaluation of a parotid mass may be accompanying:
1) Lymphadenopathy
2) Nodular consistency
3) Facial paralysis
4) Slow progressive enlargement
ADC Test Answer: 3
Facial paralysis can indicate a serious underlying condition, such as a tumor affecting the facial nerve, making it a significant finding in parotid mass evaluation.
The presence of schistocytes in a blood smear is indicative of what condition?
1) DIC
2) Thrombocytosis
3) Genetic clotting disorder
4) Stable hemoglobinopathy
Schistocytes, or fragmented red blood cells, are often observed in patients with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and indicate mechanical hemolysis.
At what age do the sphenoid and mastoid fontanels close?
1) 1 month
2) 3 months
3) 6 months
4) 1 year
The sphenoid fontanel typically closes around 3 months, while the mastoid fontanel closes near the end of the first year.
What is the purpose of placing rests on the proximal surfaces of teeth?
1) To enhance aesthetics
2) To prevent food impaction
3) To facilitate easier cleaning
4) To allow for more room in the denture base
Rests on the proximal surfaces prevent food impaction between the minor connector and the tooth.
What is the primary reason for taking a complete set of diagnostic radiographs for a new patient? 1) To establish a baseline for future comparisons 2) To screen for cavities 3) To assess the patient's overall oral health 4) To plan for a specific treatment
Dental Records Answer: 3Although radiographs are used for various purposes, including detecting cavities and planning treatment, the primary reason for taking a complete set of diagnostic radiographs for a new patient is to assess the patient's overall oral health and identify any underlying conditions that may require attention.
Which immunoglobulin is first produced by the neonate upon birth?
1) IgA
2) IgM
3) IgG
4) IgD
IgM is the first immunoglobulin produced by neonates and plays a vital role in their primary immune response, appearing within the first few days of life.
The most appropriate drug for treatment of generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) is:
1) valproate
2) methylphenidate
3) ethosuximide
4) diazepam
For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, phenytoin, carbamazepine, or valproate is the drug of choice.
The most common cause of failure of the IDN (Inferior Dental Nerve) block is:
1) Injecting too low
2) Injecting too high
3) Injecting into the parotid gland
4) Incorrect anatomical landmarks
ADC Test Answer: 1
If the needle is injected too low, the anesthetic may not reach the nerve effectively, leading to failure of the block and insufficient anesthesia during dental procedures.
What is the mechanical advantage of a cross bar or winter's elevator?
1) 4.6
2) 2.5
3) 13
4) 75%
The mechanical advantage of a cross bar or winter's elevator is 75%, which is higher than a straight elevator (2.5) and an apex elevator (4.6).
Dopamine is preferred in treatment of shock because of
1) Renal Vasodilatory effect
2) Increased Cardiac Output
3) Peripheral Vasoconstriction
4) Prolonged action
Dopamine as a first line of drug in patients with shock
Dopamine in low doses can dilate renal vasculature therefore maintaining glomerular filtration.
Activates adenylate cyclase - cAMP – relaxation of vascular smooth muscle
In Dicumarol poisoning which Vit K is used
1) Menadione
2) Menaqunone
3) Phytonadione
4) None of the above
To reverse the effect of overdose of oral anticoagulants:
Phytonadione (K1) is the preparation of choice, because it acts most rapidly, dose depends on the severity of upoprothrombinemia & bleeding.
Firm contact between approximating teeth is important because it
1) locates the marginal ridges of each tooth.
2) keeps the teeth from having any movement during function.
3) insures proper cusp form and increases masticatory efficiency.
4) stabilizes the dental arches and gives protection to the gingival papillae.
Firm contact between teeth helps maintain the stability of the dental arches, preventing unwanted movement during function. This contact also protects the gingival papillae by ensuring that the teeth are properly aligned and that the forces of mastication are distributed evenly, reducing the risk of periodontal issues.
Hyperuricemia in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is due to a defect in which of the following pathways?
1) Purine biosynthesis
2) Pyrimidine biosynthesis
3) Purine salvage
4) Pyrimidine salvage
Uric acid is a purine derivative, increased by purine salvage reactions that convert purines, purine ribonucleosides, and purine deoxyribonucleoside to mononucleotides (incorrect answer 4).
Such salvage reactions require much less energy than de novo synthesis (incorrect answers 1, 2).
A defect in hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase, one of the enzymes of purine salvage, is responsible for purine overproduction and subsequent hyperuricemia observed in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
The largest and longest root canal of the maxillary second molar is the 1. lingual 2. mesiobuccal 3. distobuccal 4. distal
Dental Anatomy Answer: 1The largest and longest root canal of the maxillary second molar is the lingual
The most appropriate gingival contour of a fixed partial denture connector is
1) concave.
2) convex.
3) flat.
4) none
A convex contour ensures proper hygiene by reducing plaque accumulation and
facilitates better gingival health.
Concave contours can trap debris and promote inflammation.
What is the primary risk associated with the use of nitrous oxide in a dental practice? 1) Allergic reactions 2) Environmental pollution 3) Potential for abuse and addiction 4) Exposure to infectious agents
Occupational Hazards Answer: 3Nitrous oxide can be misused, leading to potential abuse and addiction, making proper ventilation and safety protocols essential.
Naloxone reverses the actions of:
1) Morphine
2) Diazepam
3) Thiopentone
4) All of the above
Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect pulp capping?
1) Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure
2) Removal of caries has exposed the pulp
3) When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ
4) Deep caries without symptoms
ADC Test Answer: 1
Indirect pulp capping is indicated when some softened dentin remains over the pulp but further excavation could risk exposing it, thus preserving pulp vitality.
What’s true about the sealers if extruded out of the canal?
1) ZoE is most irritating.
2) AH Plus sealer is most irritating.
3) Real Seal is most irritating.
4) Both ZoE and AH Plus are more irritating than Real Seal.
ADC Test Answer: 4
Both Zinc Oxide Eugenol (ZoE) and AH Plus endodontic sealers can cause irritation if extruded into the periapical tissues, while Real Seal tends to have a lower irritation potential.
In Class II preparation, it is difficult to place the gingival seat when preparation is extended too gingivally because the:
1) Enamel rods are directed occlusally
2) Marked cervical constriction
3) Dentin is more sensitive
4) Periodontal attachment is compromised
ADC Test Answer: 2
When a Class II cavity is extended gingivally, the marked cervical constriction of the tooth can make it difficult to adequately place a gingival seat, which is necessary for effective retention and proper contouring of the restoration.
Modern dental noble metal casting alloys generally have equiaxed fine grain structures because of the incorporation of small amounts of
1) Chromium
2) Indium
3) Iridium
4) Palladium
The term equiaxed refers to the fact that three dimensions of each grain are similar.
crack propagation.
Addition of about 1 wt% of ruthenium, Iridium or rhenium as grain refiners makes modern dental noble metal casting alloys as equiaxed microstructures.
What is the effect on local anesthetic when used with sodium bicarbonate?
- Increases speed and quality of anaesthesia
- Decreases diffusion of the anaesthetic drug
- Causes rapid elimination of the local anaesthetic
- Decreases speed and quality of anaesthesia
The speed of onset of Anaesthesia is raised by Sodium bicarbonate and further enhances its quality by elevating the intensity and duration of block.
What is the primary concern during the third trimester of pregnancy?
1) Organogenesis of the fetus
2) The risk of preterm labor
3) Fetal movement
4) The development of the baby's teeth
The third trimester is marked by the secretion of large quantities of steroids into the blood, which can stimulate premature uterine contractions.
Thiamine is useful in:
1) Collagen synthesis
2) Clotting factor production
3) Epithelial integrity
4) Cellular energy production
ADC Test Answer: 4
Thiamine (Vitamin B1) is a vital coenzyme in the metabolism of carbohydrates, playing a crucial role in the production of energy.
The best way to clean a cavity before the placement of GIC is:
1) H2O2
2) Phosphoric Acid
3) Polyacrylic acid
4) Saline
ADC Test Answer: 3
Polyacrylic acid is recommended for cleaning a cavity before using GIC as it helps create an effective bond while preserving the integrity of dentin moisture.
When injecting local solution in the maxilla on the buccal side, the technique is?
1) Intra osseous
2) Supra periosteal
3) Sup mucosal
4) Intra septal
The correct technique for injecting local solution in the maxilla on the buccal side is the supra periosteal technique.
The alpha-1 function post-synaptically at the neuromuscular junction
is responsible for:
1) Smooth muscle contraction
2) Skeletal muscle contraction
3) Cardiac muscle contraction
4) Inhibition of muscle contraction
Alpha-1 receptors mediate the contraction of skeletal muscles.
Which of the following is main cause of pain during pulpal injury progression
1) increased vascular permeability
2) decreased threshold of nerve fibers to pain
3) arteriolar dilatation
4) decrease pressure
Increased vascular permeability: When the dental pulp becomes injured
or inflamed, the blood vessels in the pulp dilate and become more permeable.
Which of the following forces best accomplish orthodontic tooth movement?
1) Heavy and continuous
2) Heavy and intermittent
3) Light and continuous
4) Light and intermittent
SOLUTION Light and continuous
Use of continuous light force is recommended to be applied for adult group of patient rather than intermittent force as applied by removable appliance.
with normal biologic functioning. In adult due to heavy force teeth may devitalize because the opening into the tooth (apical foramen) is smaller and blood vessels can be easily disrupted.
Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of local
anesthesia in a geriatric patient?
1) Hypertension
4) Cardiovascular disease
3) Diabetes
4) All of the above
All of the listed conditions can influence the patient's response
to local anesthetics. It is important to carefully consider the patient's
medical history and current medications before administering local anesthesia.
A patient experiences pain and some gingival swelling in the anterior segment of the mandible. The mandibular lateral incisor has a shallow restoration, is
tender to percussion and gives a positive response to the electric pulp tester.
There is some mobility.
The most likely diagnosis is
1) acute apical abscess.
2) acute serous pulpitis.
3) lateral periodontal abscess.
4) acute suppurative pulpitis.
The symptoms described, including pain, gingival swelling, tenderness to percussion, and mobility of the tooth, suggest a lateral periodontal abscess. This condition often arises from periodontal disease or infection that affects the supporting structures of the tooth, leading to localized swelling and discomfort.
What is the main advantage of using implant-supported dentures in
gerodontology?
1) Improved retention and stability
2) Reduced cost compared to traditional dentures
3) Elimination of the need for oral hygiene
4) Prevention of bone resorption in the jaw
Implant-supported dentures provide superior retention and stability
compared to conventional dentures, which can enhance masticatory function and
patient comfort.
What is the primary risk factor for developing periodontitis?
1) Smoking
2) Poor oral hygiene
3) Genetics
4) All of the above
Smoking, poor oral hygiene, and genetic predisposition are all significant risk factors in the development of periodontitis.
Serial extraction:
1) Involves the 4 permanent first premolars.
2) Is the treatment for Class II skeletal malocclusions with severe space shortage.
3) Is commenced with bilateral expansion of the arches.
4) Is best suited to Class I dental and skeletal malocclusions with minimal space shortage.
Oral Surgery Answer: 1Serial extraction primarily targets first premolars to address severe space discrepancies, particularly in patients with crowding in Class I dental relationships.
The thoracic duct is located in the:
1) Anterior mediastinum
2) Posterior mediastinum
3) Middle mediastinum
4) Lateral mediastinum
The thoracic duct lies in the posterior mediastinum, between the descending thoracic aorta and the azygos vein.
A child with a hypoplastic crown and both enamel and dentin being defective, the restoration is:
1) Composite with calcium hydroxide.
2) Amalgam with calcium hydroxide.
3) Zinc phosphate and zinc polycarboxylate cement.
4) Porcelain crown.
ADC Test Answer: 1
For children with hypoplastic teeth, a composite restoration is often preferred due to its aesthetic properties and bonding capabilities, especially when the dentin is also affected.
What is the purpose of using a handpiece with a 330 bur during a pulpotomy procedure?
1) To remove caries.
2) To reduce occlusal surface.
3) To remove the roof of the pulp chamber.
4) To mix IRM.
A handpiece with a 330 bur is used to remove the roof of the pulp chamber during a pulpotomy procedure.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of trigeminal neuralgia?
1) Trigger zones
2) Night pain
3) Sudden onset of pain
4) Pain during chewing
Trigeminal neuralgia typically presents with sudden, severe facial pain triggered by specific stimuli, but it is not characterized by night pain.
VLC resins are also called
1) microwave-activated resins.
2) tertiary amine-activated resins.
3) light-activated resins.
4) heat-activated resins.
The first light-activated systems were formulated for UV light to initiate free radicals.
Because of these advantages, visibly light-activated composites are more widely used than are chemically acti wited materials.
For a pigmented fissure, what is the best way to diagnose caries?
1) Visual examination
2) Radiographic examination
3) Investigate the area with a round bur
4) Transillumination
Investigating the area with a round bur allows for direct assessment of the fissure and any underlying carious lesions.
Of the following, the most difficult impaction to extract is:
1) Mesioangular
2) Vertical
3) Distoangular
4) Horizontal
Distoangular impactions of mandibular molars are often considered the most challenging to extract due to their position and the amount of bone that must be removed to access the tooth. The angulation of the tooth can complicate the extraction process, requiring more extensive surgical intervention. Additionally, the removal of bone in this area can weaken the ramus of the mandible, increasing the risk of fracture during extraction.
Fat Embolism is diagnosed by - 1. Fluffy Exudates in Retina 2. Fat Droplets in Sputum 3. Fat droplets in Urine
The secretory product of odontoblasts is:
1) Topocollagen.
2) Calcium salts.
3) Mantle dentin.
4) Hydroxyapatite
Dentinogenesis is the formation of dentin by odontoblasts of mesenchymal origin
located at the periphery of the dental pulp
Dentinogenesis is initiated by the inductive influence of the enamel organ
involving molecular signaling pathways, such as Wnt, Runx-2, and TGF-?. In the
molar tooth, dentinogenesis starts at the late bell stage, and occurs in the
crown as well as root regions.
Predentin, the first organic matrix secreted by odontoblasts, is composed by
proteoglycans, glycoproteins, and collagens.
Exposure of the patient to ionizing radiation when taking a radiograph is NOT REDUCED by:
1) The use of fast film
2) Decreasing the kilovoltage (kVp)
3) Collimation of the beam
4) The use of an open and lead-lined cone
ADC Test Answer: 2
Decreasing the kilovoltage can actually increase exposure time and radiation dose, as it reduces the energy of the x-rays produced.
An overjet of 8mm is usually associated with:
1) Angle Class I cuspid relationship.
2) Angle Class II cuspid relationship.
3) Angle Class III cuspid relationship.
4) Angle Class I molar relationship.
Orthodontics Answer: 2Excessive overjet is a hallmark of Angle Class II occlusion due to mandibular retrusion or maxillary protrusion, leading to an increased horizontal distance between the arches.
What happens when rests are not properly designed?
1) They could be aesthetically displeasing
2) They may not transfer occlusal stresses effectively
3) They could enhance retention
4) They become more comfortable
Poorly designed rests may fail to effectively transfer occlusal stresses, potentially compromising the stability of the RPD.
A component of the coenzyme required in a transamination process is 1. Thiamine 2 Folic acid 3 Pyridoxine 4 Riboflavin
Biochemistry Answer: 3A component of the coenzyme required in a transamination process is Pyridoxine
Are prions resistant to inactivation by conventional sterilization methods?
1) Yes
2) No
3) Only in certain conditions
4) Depends on the type of prion
Prions are resistant to inactivation by conventional sterilization methods, making them particularly challenging to eliminate.
What are the predisposing factors for syncope during a dental procedure?
1) High blood pressure
2) Anxiety and fear of needles
3) Severe tooth pain
4) All of the above
Syncope can be triggered by anxiety, fear, and the sight of blood, which lead to increased catecholamine release, decreased peripheral resistance, and lowered blood pressure, causing cerebral ischemia.
Which one of the following statements is true as defined in endodontics?
1) Overfilling refers to the incomplete filling of the canal system with a
surplus of material extruding beyond the apical foramen.
2) Under filling refers to the complete filling of the canal space, but leaving
voids in the pulp chamber for possible recontamination or infection.
3) Overextension refers to the extrusion of filling material through an
accessory canal.
4) Under extension refers to the vertical extent of the filling material
regardless of its completeness of obturation.
In endodontics, "under extension" specifically refers to the filling material not reaching the appropriate vertical length within the canal system, which can leave parts of the canal unfilled. This is distinct from other terms like overfilling or underfilling, which have different implications regarding the completeness and placement of the filling material.
What is the primary function of salivary IgA?
1) To neutralize bacterial toxins
2) To prevent bacterial adhesion to tooth surfaces
3) To initiate the immune response against caries-causing bacteria
4) To provide a source of calcium for remineralization
Salivary IgA is an antibody that specifically targets bacteria in the mouth, helping to prevent their colonization and the initiation of the caries process.
What is the recommended prothrombin time for safe tooth extraction?
1) Less than 20 seconds
2) Within 1½ times the normal prothrombin time
3) Within 2 times the normal prothrombin time
4) More than 25 seconds
Extraction can be done if the prothrombin time is less than or equal to 1½ times the normal range to ensure adequate blood clotting.
Which of the following is the best method for ensuring confidentiality of dental
records?
1) Keeping records in an unlocked drawer
2) Sharing records with unauthorized staff
3) Using a password-protected electronic records system
4) Discussing patient information in public areas
Which of the following is NOT a consideration for endodontic treatment in
the elderly?
1) Diminished pulp vitality
2) Reduced healing capacity
3) Systemic health conditions
4) All of the above are considerations.
While systemic health conditions are a consideration, endodontic
treatment can still be successful in the elderly with careful management and
patient selection.
What is the recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner?
1) 150F for 2 hours.
2) 180F for 30 minutes.
3) 160F for 30 minutes.
4) 160F for 30 minutes, then boil for 2 hours.
The recommended temperature and duration for boiling a denture base with a resilient liner is to first bring the temperature of the water to 160F (71C) and maintain it for 30 minutes.
What substance is primarily responsible for the re-mineralization process in teeth?
1) Fluoride
2) Calcium
3) Phosphate
4) All of the above
Fluoride, calcium, and phosphate work together to enhance the re-mineralization process in enamel, helping to repair demineralized areas.
Not true about Na+ K+ 2Cl- Co-transporter:
1) It is a glycoprotein
2) 12 membrane spanning domains
3) There are distinct isoforms for secretory and absorptive function
4) The secretory form is found exclusively in thick segment of ascending limb of loop of Henle
Pharmacology Answer: 4
What is the recommended maximum safe dosage of epinephrine for geriatric
patients with cardiovascular diseases?
1) 0.04 mg
2) 0.2 mg
3) 0.1 mg
4) 0.5 mg
It's typically recommended to limit the total dose of
epinephrine to 0.04 mg due to the risk of cardiovascular events in older
patients.
An increase or decrease in the Y axis is related to:
1) The growth pattern
2) Extrusion of molars
3) Intrusion of molars
4) All of the above
SOLUTION