MDS PREP
Which of the following is a common premedication for patients with valvular heart disease or congenital cardiac defects undergoing dental procedures to prevent bacterial endocarditis?
(1) Amoxicillin
(2) Clindamycin
(3) Cephalexin
(4) All of the above
Amoxicillin, clindamycin, and cephalexin are all commonly recommended as premedications for patients with valvular heart disease or congenital cardiac defects before dental procedures. The choice of antibiotic may depend on the patient's allergies and the type of infection.
What is the primary function of the mitral valve in the heart?
1) To prevent backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during diastole
2) To prevent backflow of blood from the pulmonary artery into the right ventricle during systole
3) To prevent backflow of blood from the left atrium into the left ventricle during systole
4) To prevent backflow of blood from the vena cava into the right atrium during systole
The mitral valve is crucial in preventing the backflow of blood from the left atrium to the left ventricle during systole, ensuring that blood flows in the correct direction through the heart during the cardiac cycle.
Which of the following is NOT a common behavioral symptom in early Huntington's disease?
(1) Depression
(2) Apathy
(3) Hyperactivity
(4) Social withdrawal
In early Huntington's disease, common behavioral symptoms include depression, apathy, irritability, and social withdrawal. Hyperactivity is not a typical early symptom; rather, the disease is more associated with a decline in motor function and increased involuntary movements (chorea).
In humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (HHM), what is the most common overproduced substance leading to hypercalcemia?
(1) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
(2) Parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP)
(3) 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (1,25(OH)2D)
(4) Calcitonin
PTHrP is a protein that is structurally similar to parathyroid hormone (PTH) but is produced by some tumor cells. It acts on the PTH receptor, leading to increased calcium levels in the blood, similar to PTH. HHM is most often associated with overproduction of PTHrP by tumors, causing hypercalcemia without the typical elevation in PTH levels seen in primary hyperparathyroidism.
What is the initial event in a vasovagal syncope episode?
1) Bradycardia
2) Tachycardia
3) Decrease in peripheral vascular resistance
4) Increased catecholamine release
The initial event in a vasovagal syncope episode is an increase in catecholamine release, leading to a decrease in peripheral vascular resistance and tachycardia.
Varicose veins may be seen in the
1) Calf
2) Thigh
3) Scrotum
4) All of the above
Oral medicine
Answer: 4
Varicose veins are characterized by twisted, swollen veins that often
appear blue or purple. Common signs and symptoms include aching or heavy
legs, burning or throbbing sensations, muscle cramps, swelling in the lower
legs, and skin changes such as color alterations or sores
Visible Changes:
Twisted, swollen veins that are often blue or dark purple.
Bulging veins that may appear just below the skin surface.
Physical Sensations:
Aching or heavy feeling in the legs.
Burning, throbbing, or cramping sensations, particularly in the
calves.
Swelling in the lower legs and ankles.
Skin Changes:
Color changes in the skin, which may appear red or brown.
Development of sores or ulcers on the skin that do not heal easily.
Scaly or irritated skin that may crack easily.
Other Symptoms:
Restless legs syndrome, which can cause discomfort and an urge to
move the legs.
Pain in the legs or calves after prolonged sitting or standing.
Complications of Varicose Veins
Severe Symptoms:
Increased leg swelling and pain, especially after long periods of
inactivity.
Risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can lead to
serious complications if blood clots form.
Skin Conditions:
Lipodermatosclerosis, a condition that causes inflammation and
hardening of the skin.
Venous ulcers, which are painful sores that can develop due to poor
circulation.
A patient with severe nausea and vomiting is prescribed metoclopramide. What is the primary mechanism of action of metoclopramide?
(1) Antihistaminic action
(2) Dopamine antagonism in the CNS
(3) Muscarinic receptor antagonism
(4) 5-HT3 receptor antagonism
Metoclopramide acts primarily as a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist in the chemoreceptive trigger zone in the brain and in the gastrointestinal tract, which helps to reduce nausea and vomiting by decreasing gastric emptying and increasing gastric tone.
In the context of antitubercular therapy, which of the following is true about the metabolism of isoniazid and streptomycin?
(1) Both are metabolized in the liver
(2) Both are metabolized in the kidneys
(3) Isoniazid is metabolized in the liver, while streptomycin is metabolized in the kidneys
(4) Isoniazid is metabolized in the kidneys, while streptomycin is metabolized in the liver
Isoniazid is metabolized by the liver, while streptomycin is metabolized by the kidneys. This is important to consider when administering these drugs, especially in patients with hepatic or renal impairment.