NEET MDS Quiz - Practice Test

1

Medicine

Which drug class is commonly used in combination with other agents for HIV prophylaxis and treatment to inhibit the viral enzyme responsible for converting viral RNA into DNA?

1) Protease Inhibitors (PIs)

2) Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitors (INSTIs)

3) Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTIs)

4) Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs)

Option 1

Option 2

Option 3

Option 4

📝 Explanation:

NRTIs (e.g., Tenofovir, Emtricitabine) work by mimicking natural nucleosides and terminating the growing DNA chain during the reverse transcription process, which is the mechanism by which HIV converts its RNA genome into DNA. Other classes like PIs inhibit viral protein maturation, INSTIs block viral DNA integration into the host genome, and NNRTIs also block reverse transcriptase but via a different mechanism.�

2

Medicine

A patient has history of recurrent hemoptysis, truncal obesity and cushingoid habitus and has increased ACTH not suppressible by Dexamethasone suppression test. Which of the following is most likely to be the diagnosis?��
1. Adrenal adenoma
2. Pituitary tumor��
3. Ectopic ACTH secreting tumor
4. Carcinoma thyroid

Option 1

Option 2

Option 3

Option 4

📝 Explanation:

The patient's clinical presentation points to Cushing's syndrome, characterized by truncal obesity and cushingoid habitus. The key diagnostic features leading to the specific diagnosis are:

Increased ACTH levels: Rules out primary adrenal causes like an adrenal adenoma (option 1), where ACTH levels would be suppressed.

Lack of suppression by dexamethasone: In Cushing's disease (pituitary tumor, option 2), high-dose dexamethasone typically suppresses ACTH and cortisol production. The absence of suppression suggests an ectopic source of ACTH.

Recurrent hemoptysis: This symptom (coughing up blood) is a strong indicator of a pulmonary source, such as a small cell lung carcinoma, which is a common cause of ectopic ACTH secretion.

Therefore, an ectopic ACTH-secreting tumor is the most likely diagnosis.

3

Medicine

An 18-year-old boy presents with ascending paralysis followed by increasing respiratory muscle involvement. CSF examination shows albuminocytological dissociation. Which of the following is the best treatment?
1. i.v prednisolone
2. Oral prednisolone
3. Corticosteroid
4. i.v Immunoglobulin

Option 1

Option 2

Option 3

Option 4

📝 Explanation:

The clinical presentation of ascending paralysis, respiratory muscle involvement, and albuminocytological dissociation in CSF is characteristic of Guillain-Barr� syndrome (GBS). The two primary treatments for GBS are intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) and plasma exchange.

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